CDC 3D152 Flashcards
(779 cards)
1
Q
What is modulation?
A
Process of modifying any characteristic of a signal so that it varies in-step with value of another signal.
2
Q
Analog-to-Digital Technique?
Digital-to-Analog Technique?
A
PCM
CVSD
3
Q
What are the two basic types of modulation?
A
Analog & Digital
4
Q
What are the three basic types of analog modulation?
A
AM / FM / PM
5
Q
What are the three basic types of analog modulation used to convert digital signals?
A
ASK / FSK / PSK
6
Q
What is the simplest form of PSK?
A
BPSK
7
Q
What analog modulation technique is similar to QPSK?
A
QAM
8
Q
Why is DPSK better than PSK?
A
Easier to implement / more robust
9
Q
What are the 4 basic types of pulse modulation?
A
PAM / PDM / PPM / PCM
10
Q
How does ADPCM differ from PCM?
A
ADPCM = 4 bits; 32K
PCM = 8 bits; 64K
11
Q
How does ADM differ from DM?
A
Signal’s step size may vary from sample to sample
12
Q
What is a simple form of ADM?
A
CVSD
13
Q
What frequencies are present at output of AM modulator?
A
Carrier Frequency, Carrier + MF, Carrier - MF
MF = Modulating Frequency
14
Q
What components of AM modulated sine wave carries information signals?
A
Upper/Lower Sidebands
15
Q
What are the 2 bands of frequencies located below and above the carrier in AM modulated signals called?
A
Upper/Lower Sidebands
16
Q
Which sideband of AM modulated signal is a mirror-image of the modulating signal?
A
Lower Sideband
17
Q
How does the bandwidth required to transmit an AM signal compare to that for transmitting the modulating signal by itself?
A
Bandwidth required = 2x that of modulating signal itself.
18
Q
What is the predominant characteristic of SSBSC modulation?
A
All of the transmitter power can be used for transmission of info signal located in one sideband w/out carrier.
19
Q
What advantage does SSBSC have over other forms of AM?
A
6 to 1 improvement.
20
Q
What makes SSBSC more efficient?
A
Reduced bandwidth / greater power efficiency.
21
Q
In AM, what products are present in the resultant waveform?
A
Carrier, upper sideband, lower sideband.
22
Q
What term is used for additional sidebands that cause unwanted bandwidth and distortion transmitted in AM signal?
A
Splatter
23
Q
What problem is associated with all forms of AM?
A
Susceptibility to interference.
24
Q
What determines amount of deviation of an FM carrier?
A
Amplitude of modulating signal.
25
How does the rate of deviation compare with the frequency of modulating signal?
Directly proportional.
26
What agency is responsible for determining maximum amount of deviation?
FCC
27
In PM, how is the transmitted signal modulated?
Carrier's phase is caused to shift at rate of modulating signal.
28
What effect does a change in amplitude have on a PM signal?
Amount of phase signal is proportional to amplitude of modulating signal.
29
What effect does a change in frequency have on a PM signal?
Rate of phase shift is controlled by frequency of modulating frequency.
30
How is carrier stability maintained in a PM signal?
Crystal-controlled oscillators
31
In BPSK, what amount of degrees of phase shift of the carrier is used to represent binary 1's and 0's?
180 degrees
32
What are the advantages of bi-phase modulation?
Insensitivity to level variations; low frequencies/smaller bandwidth requirements.
33
What are the disadvantages of BPSK?
Complex, costly, phase ambiguity.
34
What are the main advantages of QPSK over BPSK?
Transmit 2x the amount of data
35
How is phase ambiguity overcome when PM techniques area used?
Use of a pilot tone
36
How many carrier phases does quadriphase modulation have?
4
37
How is information represented in DPSK?
Changes in phase value form one sample to the next.
38
What is the main advantage of DPSK?
Less complex receiver needed.
39
What are the 3 characteristics of a pulse train that can be varied by an information signal to produce a modulated rectangular pulse train?
Peak voltage, period, pulse width/duration.
40
What determines the bandwidth of a pulse train?
Width of pulses.
41
What characteristics of a pulse train does frequency influence?
Number/spacing of harmonics
42
What 2 modulation processes are required to transmit pulse-modulated signals?
Pulse Modulation
AM / FM
43
What are 5 pulse-modulation techniques that can be used to form composite TDM signals?
PAM / PDM / PPM / PCM / DM
44
What is the simplest analog pulse-modulation technique?
PAM
45
What is the PAM process?
Pulse carrier is AM-modulated to convey information
46
What is the sampling rate of a 4-kHz voice channel?
8 kHz
47
What determines the amplitude of a PAM pulse?
Amplitude of modulating signal @ point of sampling
48
What susceptibility does PAM share with AM?
Noise
49
What are 2 other names for PDM?
PWM
PLM
50
What determines PDM pulse width?
Amplitude of modulating signal @ point of sampling
51
Why is PDM less affected by noise than PAM?
Noise less likely to be correct (amplitude/time)
52
What disadvantage is shared by both PAM and PDM?
Proportionately affected by distortion in pulse width/amplitude.
53
How does PPM over disadvantage of distortion experienced in PAM and PDM?
Pulses are at constant widths and amplitudes
54
What is a disadvantage of PPM?
Eats up a lot of bandwidth
55
What determines the time position of a PPM pulse?
Amplitude of modulating signal @ time of sampling
56
Give 2 reasons for converting analog signals to digital signals before transmission.
Digital media can be regenerated and easily encrypted.
57
What is the principal advantage of converting analog signals to digital signals before transmission?
Quantizing Noise
58
Of PAM, PDM, PPM, PCM - which is least affected by noise?
PCM
59
What is the PCM process?
Analog utililizing a band-limiting filter; binary code word; modulated using AM / FM / PSK.
60
What is quantizing noise?
PAM pulses 'rounded off' to nearest assigned value.
61
How many code bits are required to provide 16 quantized steps?
4
62
Which quantizing method produces less quantizing noise?
Nonuniform quantizing
63
How can we increase the capability for regenerating quantized pulses?
Keeping pulses at a constant duration and amplitude`
64
Companding does what?
Reduces the range of voice signals; compresses high-amplitude portions.
65
Why is PCM less susceptible to noise than PAM or PDM?
In PCM, noise must insert or obscure pulse not just change its height or duration.
66
What is ADPCM different from PCM?
It generates a 4-bit word PAM rather than an 8-bit word.
67
Name two methods of multiplexing.
TDM
FDM
68
Describe the difference between the two methods of multiplexing.
TDM: Time slots
FDM: Frequency
69
What type of signal(s) is the T1 able to transmit?
Analog, digital, video
70
What are some of the advantages of T1 multiplexing?
Simplicity
71
What method of multiplexing does the T1 use?
TDM
72
WDM is considered a method of improving what?
Efficiency through fiber through condensing transmitted channels.
73
How does WDM work?
Uses wavelengths of light or different colors in spectrum.
74
What are WDM technologies?
WDM
CWDM
DWDM
75
What does CWDM use to reduce cost?
Uncooled lasers
76
What three characteristics must the DWDM optical demultiplexer have?
Stable, flat passband, must reject adjacent optical channels.
77
Define the term 'bit'.
Bit of information based on 2 symbols, states or conditions.
78
What unit of measurement is normally used in data systems to express signaling speed for equipment?
Bits / second
79
What does "baud" mean?
Unit of modulation rate of the shortest unit interval.
80
What's the difference between baud and bit.
Baud: Expression of time
Bit: No 'time' reference
81
What is the difference between overflow and underflow?
Overflow: More bits than expected
Underflow: Fewer bits received than expected.
82
What are the 3 terms we use to describe synchronization methods used in digital signaling?
Synchronous, asynchronous, isochronous
83
How many synchronizing pulses are needed in synchronous operation?
None
84
How does synchronous operation work?
Receiving device adjusts automatically to speed of transmitting; compares speed of incoming signal with time base.
85
What constitutes an asynchronous signal?
Any signal with synchronizing bits
86
What are the principles of asynchronous operation?
Start / stop bits
87
How does asynchronous synchronization affect transmission speed?
Slows down transmission speed
88
What is an isochronous signal?
All bits are equal duration
89
Which of the synchronization terms is normally used with channel-packing systems to indicate the utilization of internal timing?
Isochronous
90
Name 2 factors that determine when a digital transition should occur.
Bit rate of signal / signals format
91
Define NRZ-L
Level / Mark-Space
92
What is a BPV?
Bi-polar variation; 2 consecutive marks occur with same polarity.
93
How does the B8ZS signal format correct ones density problems?
By intentionally inserting BPV's into signal to break up 0's.
94
Which type of framing would be used for a T1 carrying video traffic?
ESF
95
Which framing sequence is used for synchronization with incoming data?
D4
96
What are the 3 types of communcations signals that are the functions to control and process analog calls?
Control / Informational / Supervisory
97
What are the 2 methods of address signaling?
Pulse / Tone
98
Call waiting is what type of communication signal?
Information signaling
99
What is the purpose of supervisory signaling?
Monitor status of line to determine state
100
What are the 2 digital signaling methods to transmit supervisory signaling?
CAS / CCS
101
How does CAS signaling convey signaling information?
Bit-robbing
102
How does CCS convey signaling information?
Uses a separate network channel to transfer supervisory information in an out-of-band fashion and multiplexed with the digitized voice signals.
103
What are the 3 CCS signaling modes?
Associated
Non-associated
Quasi-associated
104
Define noise.
Unintelligible electrical disturbances; leads to masking/distortion.
105
What is white noise?
Mixture of all frequencies / if loud enough can mask.
106
What is the usual circuit input impedence for a transmission line?
600 Ohms
107
What causes impulse noise?
Disturbances that have abrupt amplitudes of short duration
108
When is the best time to take measurements of impulse noise?
During times of peak system activity
109
Define the term clocking.
Rate of running / keeps approximately standard time.
110
What is a station clock? What can a station clock minimize?
Clock that controls some/all of the equipment. (Requires local time control)
111
What are 2 types of station clocks?
Master / Slave
112
What is the master station clock?
Cesium beam / GPS tied to primary communications equipment
113
How does a slave clock get its timing?
Locks onto incoming data stream from a stable source
114
How does synchronization distinguish positions in the data bit stream?
1's and 0's are transmitted / patterns of frame bits (known as framing formats)
115
What 3 factors can affect the line quality of a long distance transmission line?
Attenuation distortions, delays, noise
116
How can the capacitance of a transmission line cable be varied?
Insulation, size of wire, spacing between wires.
117
A reduction in energy that is generally expressed in decibels.
Attenuation
118
A proportionate increase that results with the length of the line.
Inductance (L) of the line
119
A movement through a medium; transmission
Propagation
120
A variance with frequency
Attentuation distortion
121
A means to compensate for attenuation distortions caused by transmission lines
Lumped Inductances
122
Define electronic attack
Electronic Warfare utilizing the electromagnetic and directed energy and anti-radiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities and equipment.
123
Give one example of electronic attack
High-speed anti-radiation missiles
124
Protecting people, facilities and equipment from electronic attack is known as...
Electronic Protection (EP)
125
What are two examples of EP for a radar system?
Active decoys to draw missiles off-target. Varying pulse repetition frequency.
126
What is ES?
Electronic Warfare Support: Putting a picture together for battle commanders; accurate picture of spectrum w/in AOR (area of responsibility).
127
What are two items used to provide ES capability?
Radar warning receivers / intelligence platforms.
128
What is the purpose of a multimeter?
Measure voltage, current and resistance.
129
How is a multimeter connected in a circuit to measure microamperes?
In series
130
How is a multimeter used as a voltmeter in a circuit/
In parallel
131
What preliminary precaution should you take when using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading?
Make sure all power is off
132
What kind of cable faults can the TDR locate?
Splices, water in cable, split pairs, discontinuities / faults.
133
Describe a TDR's operating principle.
Similar to radar where a pulse is applied; impedence changes and reflections occur.
134
How does cable fault information appears on the TDR's CRT?
View CRT
135
Explain the purpose of the impedence selector buttons.
Input / Output: 50 / 75 / 95 / 125 Ω
136
Describe how you would connect a cable under test to the TDR.
Do not connect live cables
137
What do deflections (pips) indicate to the TDR user?
Upward deflections = Opens
Downward deflections = Shorts
138
Describe 2 operating modes used by the TD-9930
Real-time & Average
139
What are the 4 tests and measurements performed by the OTDR?
Cable acceptance testing / cable installation / end-to-end tests / fault location
140
What is the power that is reflected back towards the optical source?
Backscatter
141
How is signal loss represented in an OTDR display?
dB drop in backscatter between 2 reflections is signal loss within fiber.
142
What index factor is the TD-9930 already programmed to accept?
Index of 1.47
143
What are the 2 major sections of a BERT set that create and receive the test pattern?
Data Code Generator (Transmitter) & Code Detector (Receiver)
144
What type of test pattern does the data code generator produce?
Pseudo-random
145
Name 2 common signal codes that are used with BERT sets.
AMI / B8ZS
146
Name 2 framing formats used with BERT sets.
D4 / ESF
147
What does 63, 511 and 2047 in a test pattern identify?
Total # of bits in a pattern
148
Explain the purpose of a breakout box
Monitor / access all 25 conductors of RS-232 and ITU V.24 interfaces between modems and terminals.
149
What is the purpose of the 24 miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box?
Allow interface conductors (except frame ground pin 1); interrupted individually for isolated testing and observation.
150
What is an example of analog-to-digital and digital-to analog techniques?
Pulse code modulation (PCM) and continuously variable slope delta (CVSD) modulation.
151
What converts analog signal information into an analog carrier signal?
Analog modulation.
152
What converts analog signal information into a digital carrier signal?
Digital Modulation.
153
The information-carrying components that occur on either side of a carrier are called
Sidebands.
154
Amplitude Modulation (AM) requires a bandwidth that is
twice that of the modulating signal.
155
The upper sideband in a single-sideband suppressed carrier (SSBSC) modulation is eliminated by
filtering.
156
We can express the 6-to-1 improvement of the single-sideband suppressed carrier(SSBSC) modulation over conventional amplitude modulation (AM) as
8 dB of improvement.
157
The only basic waveform in nature is a
pure sine wave.
158
A modulated waveform that contains a carrier plus two sidebands for each modulation frequency is a description of
an amplitude modulation (AM)
159
If 100 percent modulation is exceeded and there is distortion in the modulating signal, additional sidebands are generated. WE identify these sidebands as what?
Splatter
160
The amount of deviation in a frequency modulation (FM) signal is directly proportional to the modulating signal's
amplitude.
161
The amount of phase shift in a phase modulation (PM) signal is directly proportional to the modulating signal's
amplitude of the modulating signal.
162
What form of modulation is insensitive to signal variations?
Binary-phase shift keying or bi-phase shift keying (BPSK)
163
In quadrature-phase shift keying (QPSK) the radio frequency (RF) bandwidth for a quadriphase signal is what of that required by bi-phase signal, given the same data rate.
Half.
164
What is the main advantage of differential phase shift keying (DPSK)?
It requires a less complex receiver than a basic phase shift keying (PSK) signal.
165
Which of the following is not considering an analog modulation techniques?
Pulse-code modulation (PCM)
166
The form of pulse modulation in which the pulse is varied within a set range of positions is known as
Pulse-duration modulation (PDM).
167
Quantized analog modulation is actually
analog-to-digital conversion.
168
How many bits per character of a 16-step pulse-code modulation (PCM) system are used to describe the quantized analog sample?
4.
169
The process of coding pulse code modulation (PCM) quantized pulses to make them a constant duration and amplitude is
encoding.
170
In Time Division Multiplexing (TDM), the transmitting multiplexer will put a bit or a byte from each of the incoming lines into a specifically allocated what?
time slot.
171
The two major types of frame structures are
CCITT and low speed.
172
Wave-division multiplexing (WDM) creates the virtual channels for multiplexing them together for transmission by using different
Wavelengths or lambdas.
173
The most common wave-division multiplexing (WDM) system uses how many wavelengths?
2.
174
The method of multiplexing the T1 multiplexer uses is
Time division.
175
Individual pulses within digital signal are
bits.
176
What unit is most commonly used in data systems to express signaling speed?
Bits per second.
177
Bit count integrity problems are primarily caused by
system timing faults.
178
Three categories of synchronization used in digital data circuits are
synchronous, asynchronous, and isochronous
179
Which option is a characteristic of synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes
All data bits are the same length in time.
180
A digital signal that contains synchronizing bits within the signal stream describes
Asynchronous operation.
181
In what type of signal is the information contained in the transition, and there is a transition from one state to the other only when a mark bit is sent?
Non-return-to-zero mark.
182
In what type of signal does the signal level move to one of the discrete signal levels, but returns to the zero level after a predetermined time?
Return-to-zero.
183
Which statement best describes an alternate mark inversion (AMI) signal?
A logic one is transmitted as positive voltage if the previous logic one was negative.
184
Digital coding techniques such as binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) are becoming more popular because they are designed to
maintain ones density standards.
185
Which statement best describes a binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) signal?
Bipolar violations are intentionally inserted into a data signal to break up long strings of zeros.
186
The major difference between conditioned di-phase (CDI) and other schemes is the
use of mid-bit transitions for timing.
187
How many bits are in the D4 framing sequence?
12.
188
How many bits are in the extended superframe format (ESF) framing sequence?
24.
189
What communications control signal uses a two-frequency dialing combination?
Tone dialing.
190
What communications information signal uses a continuous 350- and 440-Hz frequency pair?
Dial tone.
191
What communications information signal uses a signal cycled on and off for 0.5 second and contains the generation of a 480- and 620-Hz frequency pair?
Busy signal.
192
What communications supervisory signal uses a continuous application of direct current voltage for signaling?
Loop-start.
193
When is the voltage applied in loop-start signaling?
Off-hook condition.
194
In common associated signaling (CAS), what is the seventh bit in frames 6 and 12 used to convey signaling information known as?
Bit robbing.
195
In what common channel signaling (CCS) mode are the messages relating to signaling between two points conveyed directly interconnecting these signaling points?
Associated mode.
196
What are the two principle weighting characteristics in use with telecommunication circuit noise?
CCIT psophometric and C-message.
197
While timing makes sure the equipment is sending and receiving bits at the same time intervals, synchronization makes sure that the
receive equipment can find its place in the bit stream.
198
What term is associated with the delay or lag introduced in the application of voltage from one section to the next?
Latency.
199
Attenuation distortion is caused by
differing attenuation rates for the various frequency components comprising a voice frequency transmission.
200
Jamming a portion of the frequency spectrum is an example of
electronic attack.
201
The definition of electronic attack can be found in which publication?
Air Force Doctrine Document 2-5.1.
202
Any actions we take to protect our forces, facilities, and equipment for electronic action that can destroy or degrade our capabilities is considered
electronic protection.
203
Varying the pulse repetition frequency on a radar set is an example of
electronic protection.
204
Electronic warfare support includes devices such as
radar warning receivers and intelligence systems.
205
When a multimeter has three input terminal jacks, which jack is always used?
Voltage terminal.
206
When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading is unreadable due to fluctuations?
Display hold.
207
When using a multimeter, which mode should be used if the reading fluctuations and a more accurate reading is desired?
Minimum/Maximum (MIN/MAX)
208
When using an ohmmeter to take a resistance reading, what preliminary precaution should you take?
Disconnect the power from the circuit input terminal jack.
209
What principle of operation does the time domain reflectometer use to test cables?
Radar.
210
Which Push-buttons would you select to get 125- ohm impedance on the time domain reflectometer?
50- ohm and 75-ohm
211
What is the power that is reflected back to an optical source in the time domain reflectometer (TDR)?
Backscatter.
212
What are the two major sections of a bit error rate test (BERT) set?
Transmitter and receiver.
213
What type of framing format should you use to conduct a bit error rate test (BERT) on a T1 circuit configured for binary with eight-zero substitution (B8ZS) coding?
Extended superframe.
214
Which section of a bit error rate test (BERT) set measures the received test pattern?
Receiver.
215
When performing a bit error rate test (BERT), what determines the size of a test pattern segment?
The number of bits that can represent the total number of bits in the test pattern.
216
What type of error is the result of two successive logic one pulses of the same polarity in violation of alternate mark inversion coding rules?
Bipolar violation.
217
On a breakout box, how many RS-232 key interface signals can be monitored and accessed individually?
12.
218
The purpose of the miniature ON/OFF switches on a breakout box is to
allow the interruption of the individual interface conductors.
219
What is a bit?
The smallest unit of information (data) a computer can process; a "1" or a "0"
220
What is a code set?
Preset sequence of bits that is arranged and understood by the sender and receiver
221
A code set of 10 bits has how many possible combinations?
1024 possible choices
222
What is a byte?
A set of bits "1's" and "0's" of a specific length that represent a value in a computer coding scheme
223
Normally, how long is a byte?
8 bits long
224
What term is used in networking when referring to 8 bits of information?
Octet
225
What is the ANSI's main focus?
ANSI focuses on standards usd by software and hardware vendors who make the products the software engineer uses
226
What role does EIA serve?
Enables US electronics producers to be competitive by developing technical standards, hosting tradeshows, performing market analysis and facilitating relations with the government.
227
What is NIST's role?
A government organization providing servies and programs to help US industries commercialize new technologies and compete internationally.
228
Which organizations' specifications are supported by ANSI?
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) & Telecommunications Industry Assocation (TIA)
229
What is the CEPT?
A European body for telecommunications policymaking and regulation
230
What does the ETSI do?
Develops the telecommunications standards for Europe
231
What is the E-carrier?
Digital telecommunications services backbone system of Europe
232
The IETF tracks ideas or suggestions. What are these ideas and suggestions called?
Request for Comments (RFC)
233
What organization assumed responsibility for the IP address space allocation?
ICANN
234
What are some of the Project 802 standards?
802.3 = Ethernet; 802.5 = Token Ring; 802.11 = Wireless; 802.13 = Cable TV
235
What organization was known as the International Telegraph and Telephone Consultative?
ITU Telecommunications Standardization Sector or ITU-T
236
List some X-series standards that you may encounter
X.20; X.20 bis; X.21; X.21 bis; X.25; X.400; X.500
237
List the V-series standards that you may encounter
V.35; V.90; V.92
238
What are 3 distinct specifications that the RS-232 standards meets?
(1) Type of Connector; (2) Purpose / definition of connector pins; (3) Electrical characteristics of those pins.
239
The RS-232-C pins can be understood by knowing how they are grouped. What are the different categories?
Data, clock, control, common, ground
240
What is the function of the RS-232-C data leads?
Pins that carry the data intelligence from DTE to DCE and vice versa. 2 categories: Primary / Secondary (Channels)
241
What is the function of the RS-232-C clock leads?
They provide "clock" or "timing" for data transmission synchronization.
242
What is the function of the RS-232-C control leads?
Control leads are used enable / disable data transmission and reception; they also indicate the operational status an condition of DTE / DCE
243
Name some control leads
RTS - Pin 4; CTS - Pin 5; DSR - Pin 6; DTR - Pin 20 and Received Line Signal Detector (Carrier Detect-CD) - Pin 8.
244
What is the function of the RS-232-C Protective Ground - Pin 1?
Ground connection keeps you from getting shocked when you touch the equipment
245
What is the function of the RS-232-C Common (Signal) Ground - Pin 7?
Establishes a common reference for all interchange circuits except Pin 1
246
What are the 2 categories of the OSI model can be divided into?
Application & Data Transport (Layers)
247
What are the 4 lower layers of the OSI model responsible for?
Defining how data is sent across the physical media, through internetwork devices, to destination computer and to the application of the destination machine
248
This layer's specifications include physical addressing, sequencing of frames and flow control
Data Link (2)
249
This layer includes multiplexing, virtual circuit management, error checking and recovery
Transport (4)
250
Electrical, mechanical, procedural and functional specifications for network communications
Physical (1)
251
A hub operates at this layer
Physical (1)
252
TCP operates at this later
Transport (4)
253
Switches and bridges operate at this layer
Data Link (2)
254
This layer provides routing and related functions that enable multiple data links to be combined into an internetwork
Network (3)
255
This layer provides a variety of coding and conversion functions that are applied to application layer data
Presentation (6)
256
A router operates at this layer
Network (3)
257
Telnet, FTP, SMTP that exist in the TCP/IP suite operate at this layer
Application (7)
258
This layer establishes, manages, and terminates communication sessions between presentation layer entities
Session (5)
259
At this layer, common data compression and encryption schemes are used
Presentation (6)
260
At what layers of the OSI model do LAN protocols operate?
Network & Data Link
261
At what layers do WAN protocols operate?
Network, Data Link & Physical
262
What is the difference between routing and routed protocols?
Routing: Path determination / traffic switching
Routed: Preparing data to be placed onto network media.
In essence, routing protocols route routed protocols.
263
With the exception of the layers on each end, what OSI model layers does each layer communicate with?
Peer layer in other network devies and the layers directly above and below
264
What are the 2 forms of control information typically used to exchange communications between peer OSI layers?
Headers & Trailers
265
What is known as encapsulation as it relates to the OSI model?
Data portion of an information unit at a given OSI layer can potentially contain headers, trailers and data from all the higher layers.
266
This is an information unit whose source and destination are network-layer entities that use connectionless network service.
Datagram
267
This is an information unit whose source and destination are transport-layer entities.
Segment
268
This a generic term that refers to a variety of information units.
Data unit
269
This is an information unit whose source and destination are data link layer entities.
Frame
270
This is an information unit whose source and destination entities exist in the application layers.
Message
271
This is an information unit whose source and destination are network-layer entities.
Packet
272
The asynchronous data communications protocol data frames use what for synchronization?
Start & stop bits
273
What 3 elements of the message block (frame) format can be contained in each BSC transmission?
Header, text and a trailer
274
All BOP transmissions in a link follow the frame format. The frame consists of what fields?
Start flag field, station address field, control field, data information field, frame check sequence and close flag field
275
In HDLC, what is used so the receiving station can determine if the data is information or a flag indicating the end of a frame?
Bit stuffing
276
What network is an informal collection of government, military, commercial and educational computer networks that all interconnected and transmit information?
Internet
277
A LAN may serve how many users?
As few as 2-3 or as many as thousands of users
278
What type of network is also used as a means to interconnect several local area networks by bridging them with backbone lines?
MAN or campus network
279
What network provides a private tunnel through the Internet?
VPN
280
What are the advantages of using a peer-to-peer network?
Easy to configure, don't require additional hardware/software, users can manage their own resources, they don't require a network administrator and they reduce costs.
281
What are the disadvantages of client/server networks?
Planning, design and management are complicated. Requires dedicated staff, software/hardware are expensive.
282
The easiest way to break down the many protocols of the TCP/IP suite is according to where they operate within the OSI model. Each protocol in this stack operates at one of what 4 layers?
Data Link, Network, Transport or Application
283
The protocols at the Data Link layer define the access method for the media, the architecture, and interface with the Physical layer of the network based on what protocol standards?
Standards adopted by IEEE; Project 802 standards
284
What are the 4 most important TCP/IP protocols that function within the network layer?
IP, ARP, RARP, ICMP
285
Within IP, what are the datagram fields?
Version, IHL, DiffServ Field, Total length, Identification, Flags, Fragment offset, TTL, Protocol, header checksum, Source IP address, Destination IP address, Options, Padding and Data
286
What are the fields belonging to a TCP segment?
Source port, Destination port, Sequence number, ACK, TCP header length, Reserved, Flags, Sliding-window size (window), Checksum, Urgent pointer, Options, Padding and Data
287
What are some reasons for implementing DHCP?
To reduce the time and planning spent on IP address management, to reduce the potential for errors in assigning IP addresses, to enable users to move their workstations and printers without having to change their TCP/IP configuration, and to make IP addressing transparent for mobile users
288
Between what layers do the application layer protocols reside?
Between the Session and Application layer of the OSI model
289
What's the difference between FTP and TFTP?
TFTP uses UDP which means it doesn't guarantee deliverability. FTP uses TCP.
290
What protocol is responsible for matching a host name to an IP address?
Domain Name System (DNS)
291
What utility sends out ICMP requests in hopes to get an ICMP echo reply?
The ping utility
292
Which IP address is a 32-bit number, usually represented as a four-part decimal number, with each of the four parts separated by a period or decimal point?
IPv4
293
IP addresses with a first octet from 192 - 223 are what of what IPv4 class?
C
294
What 2 questions must you ask yourself during the selection of a subnet mask?
Question 1: How many routed subnets are required?
Question 2: What is the likely maximum # of hosts on any one of those subnets?
295
Nowadays, what protocol is likely employed for subnetting large networks?
A protocol supporting VLSM (Variable length subnet masking)
296
What type of routing protocols support VLSM?
Classless routing protocols
297
What are some examples of classless routing protocols?
OSPF, RIP version 2, Cisco's EIGRP / BGP / IS - IS
298
How many bits are in an IPv6 address?
128
299
How many sets of 16 bit sections make up an IPv6 address?
8
300
What unique part of a network device is used when acquiring an IPv6 address by way of autoconfiguration?
MAC Address
301
What does it mean to have a dual-stack router?
Router has both IPv4 and IPv6 protocols running on it
302
What IPv4 protocol is needed to tunnel IPv6?
Protocol 41
303
What are the two IPv6 tunneling classes?
Manual & Automatic
304
Which IPv6 transition approach doesn't require a dual stack router?
NAT-PT (Network Address Translation-Protocol Translation)
305
Transceivers are capable of operating in what modes?
Full-duplex, half-duplex, simplex mode(s)
306
At what layer of the OSI model do transceivers operate and how are they used?
Physical Layer (Used in ethernet networks to connect a device to fiber or copper)
307
What device can be viewed as the actual interface between workstations, servers, clients and the shared media of the network?
NIC
308
Nearly all NIC's contain what device that transmits and receives data signals?
Data transceiver
309
How do one-way repeaters overcome attenuation?
Repeaters remove the unwanted noise in an incoming signal
310
What do all devices on a network share when connected to a hub?
They share the same amount of bandwidth and the same collision domain
311
What are the 3 central hub classifications?
Passive, Active & Intelligent
312
What are some advantages of switches?
Internal processor, operating system, memory and ports that enable connections. Have multiple ports, make better use of limited bandwidth. More cost-efficient than bridges. Each device on switch receives its own dedicated channel. Limits potential for collisions.
313
What are some disadvantages of switches?
They can become overwhelmed by continuous, heavy traffic.
314
Why would you replace a backbone router with a switch?
A switch provides at least 2 advantages: Better security & performance
315
What are the 4 types of switching devices?
Cut-through / Store & Forward / Hybrid / Fragment-free
316
Hybrid switches represent a combination of what switching devices?
Cut-through / Store & Forward
317
What is a major advantage of a hybrid switch?
Its minimal latency when error rates are low and it becomes a store & forward when error rates rise, allowing it to discard frames when error rates get high
318
Routers operate at what layer of the OSI model?
Network (3)
319
What does a typical router contain?
Processor, memory, input / output, management console interface
320
What tasks can all routers do?
Connect dissimilar networks; interpret Layer 3 addressing; determine best path for data; reroute traffic if primary path is down
321
Identify and define the 4 common routing protocols
RIP: Slower, less secure. Internal protocol. Does not work well in large environments.
OSPF: Used commonly on LANs with rely on a mix of routers from different manufacturers.
EIGRP: Cisco proprietary. Supports large / heterogeneous networks.
BGP: Used on border / exterior routers.
322
What is a brouter?
Cross / hybrid between a bridge and a router
323
Where can a gateway reside?
On servers, microcomputers or on connectivity devices such as routers or mainframes
324
What are some popular types of gateways?
Email gateway, IBM host, Internet, LAN, Voice / Data, Firewall
325
What do VPN concentrators create to extend a network?
Create tunnels using secure communications across a network such as the Internet
326
What functions does a VPN concentrator perform?
Establish tunnels, negotiates tunnel parameters, authenticates users, assigns user addresses, encrypts and decrypts data, manages security keys, manages data transfer across the tunnel, manages data transfer inbound and outbound as a tunnel endpoint or router - invokes various standard protocols to accomplish these functions.
327
What is the purpose of the TDR?
It uses pulses to locate and test for sheath faults, damaged conductors, loose connectors, splices, bridge taps, split pairs and other problems.
328
What type of cable discrepencies can be detected by a TDR?
Opens, shorts and pin holes in cable shielding, kinks and mismatched / corroded cable connectors.
329
How does the OTDR use "backscattered" light to make measurements?
It correlates the returned light pulses with a location in the fiber.
330
What determines the amount of light-pulse power that is transmitted down the cable?
Light-pulse width
331
What function of the cable scanner shows the manner in which each wire is mated to the connectors at both ends of the cable?
The wire map
332
What are the primary capabilities provided by a protocol analyzer?
Digital network diagnostics & software development
333
Explain the difference between a protocol analyzer NIC and other NIC's.
NIC in protocol analyzer: Configured to process all frames.
| Other NIC's: Only process broadcast frames and frames with its MAC address.
334
What function of the protocol analyzer excludes specific types of frames?
Capture filters
335
List 4 types of specific occurrences that can be displayed by counters.
Packets transmitted, CRC errors, undersize packets, oversize packets, ARP requests, collisions and bit errors.
336
What menu is best used to report errors that occur at the physical layer such as bad FCS, short frames and jabbers?
MAC node statistics
337
What kind of information does the connection statistics menu provide?
Bandwidth utilization and # of connections related to specific nodes.
338
Identify the 3 types of active tests that are conducted with a protocol analyzer.
Ping, trace route & traffic generator
339
MIB's contain a set of managed objects - how are they identified?
Object identifiers
340
What 2 things may an MIB be indentified by?
Object name or object descriptor
341
What TCP / IP ports are used by SNMP?
TCP Ports 161 / 162
342
What are the 4 basic SNMP commands?
Read, write, trap and traversal operations
343
Includes authentication, access control, data confidentiality, data integrity and nonrepudiation.
Security Management
344
Measures network utilization of individual users.
Accounting Management
345
Reports the occurrence of faults and corrects them automatically.
Fault Management
346
Provides the capability to initialize and shut down managed devices.
Configuration Management
347
Ensures a transferred message has been sent and received by the parties claiming to have sent and received the message.
Security Management
348
It covers areas such as installation, device booting / startup, inventory management and recovery.
Configuration Management
349
Provides statistical data about the network.
Performance Management
350
How does the NMS notify you of the occurrence of a trigger event or alarm?
Change in color of a device or link on the network map that is displayed on the NNM's monitor screen.
351
What must be done to each managed device on the network so that it provides data to the NNM?
Each managed device on the network must be individually configured for SNMP.
352
Which NNM menu includes the SNMP MIB browser selection?
The Tools menu from any network map
353
Which NNM submenu do you use to start the data collection process?
The NNM's Data Collection and Threshold submenu
354
Which NNM submenu do you use to change alarm thresholds?
The NNM's Data Collection and Threshold submenu
355
Using the NNM, what are the steps involved in printing performance graphs?
Performance graphs can be printed by selecting File & Print from the Graph window.
356
Name and describe the 4 types of reports that can be created using the report templates.
(1) Availability Report: % availability of network interfaces
(2) Exception Report: Threshold events that have been exceeded.
(3) Inventory Report: Lists all nodes in MIB.
(4) Performance Report: Summary of statistical data for network interfaces.
357
When configuring a report, what data intervals can you select?
Data collection intervals are selected in 5, 10 or 15 minute intervals.
358
What is the name of the Air Force initiative that defines and drives network information security?
Barrier Reef
359
What is the basic stance of the network security policy?
To allow authorized traffic and deny all else
360
What does the classic "Defense in Depth" approach to security require you to do?
Minimize exposure of your protective assets as much as possible
361
What service is essential to network security and must not be susceptible to spoofing?
Network time sourcing
362
What is the most common form of a proxy for common services?
A Firewall
363
What is an adverse event that threatens some element of computer security such as loss of data?
Computer security incident
364
What results from a denial of service security incident?
System is disabled or a worm has saturated network bandwidth
365
What is used to protect and measure the security posture of information systems?
Information protection tools
366
What is one of the primary functions of the NCC and what are the purposes of that function?
System monitoring: Verifies system is operational and makes sure that the system is being operated within parameters established by network security policy and the DAA.
367
What is internal control?
Defines the various mechanisms employed to provide internal system security. They may include but are not limited to: access control methods, system ID and authentication programs and system configuration.
368
What 2 possible security postures are used based on the information you want to protect, system usability, and the cost of required security measures?
"Default deny" posture and "Open" Posture
369
Information security-related access controls fall into what 2 categories?
Technical Controls: Passwords / encryption
| Administrative Controls: Segregation of duties / Security screening of users.
370
What are one-time passwords?
Passwords used only once and change for each user access session.
371
What does Biometrics refer to?
ID process that uses physical / behavioral characteristics unique to the user. (Fingerprints, key-stroke patterns, voice / iris / retina, facial characteristics)
372
What agency approves high-robustness encryption?
NSA
373
What must be employed to preclude unauthorized use of legitimate identification and authentication data?
Network anti-spoofing capability
374
How is an IDS used in relation to a firewall?
Complements a firewall and provides additional protection, particularly against threats originating from outside the firewall.
375
What are some examples of an intrusion a firewall might miss but IDS might catch?
Tunneling or application-based attacks.
376
What happens when more bits are added to a digital signal arranged in a sequence understood by the sender and receiver?
A code set is established.
377
How many possible symbols can 4 bits represent?
16
378
In networking, a byte is identified as a/an
octet
379
What organization sets important computer networking wiring standards for residential and commercial network cabling?
Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
380
Which of following is an International Telecommunication Union (ITU) standardized format used for digital telecommunications services backbone system?
E-carrier.
381
What Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)/Telecommunications Industry Association (TIA) standard is used for commercially building telecommunications cabling?
568A.
382
There is a worldwide nonprofit association of technical professionals that promotes the development of standards called the
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
383
A collection of standards for local area network (LAN) architectures, protocols, and technologies called Project 802 were developed by the
Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE)
384
The "parent" organization, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, for all other telecommunications organizations is the
International Telecommunications Union (ITU)
385
What organization is responsible for the X-series and V-series standards?
International Telecommunication Union Telecommunications Standardization Sector (ITU-T)
386
Which series of standards are recommended for data transmission using the telephone network?
V.
387
The definition of the Open System Interconnect (OSI) reference model was a major contribution to networking made by the
International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
388
Within how many feet of the data communications equipment (DCE) connection does the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-232-C standard prescribes bipolar-voltage serial data transmission?
50.
389
Which Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA) interface standard has the ability to work in either balance or unbalanced electrical circuits?
RS-530.
390
What transmission rate does Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA) RS-530 accommodate?
20Kbps to 2Mbps
391
What two sublayers did the Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) divide the Open System Interconnect (OSI) data link layers into?
Logical Link Control (LLC) and Media Access Control (MAC)
392
What Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer are common data compression and encryption schemes used?
Presentation.
393
What Open System Interconnect (OSI) layer is closest to the end user?
Application.
394
In the Open System Interconnect (OSI) model, a layer will communicate with three other OSI layers. Which one is not one of those layers?
Lowest layer.
395
Which information unit, whose source and destination are network-layer entities, uses connectionless network service?
Datagram.
396
What data communication protocol is used to govern the flow and format of information between systems?
Character-oriented.
397
In binary-synchronous protocol, what character is used to establish and maintain character synchronization prior to the message block and during transmission?
SYN.
398
What data communication protocol is based on bits and the position of the bits?
Bit-oriented.
399
What data communication protocol ensures that the receiving station can distinguish information from garbage?
High-Level Data Link Control (HDLC)
400
A group of computers and associated devices that share a common communications line within a small geographic area is a
Local area network (LAN)
401
The interconnection of several networks in a city into a single layer network is a
Metropolitan area network (MAN)
402
What type of network connects networks that are typically separated by geographical distances?
Wide area network (WAN)
403
What type of network enables a group of two or more computer systems to communicate over the public Internet?
Virtual private network (VPN)
404
Which type network enables users to share resources, files, and printers in a decentralized way?
Peer-to-peer.
405
What network layer protocol provides information about how and where data should be delivered, including the data's source and destination address?
Internet Protocol (IP).
406
Which network layer protocol matches a known internet protocol (IP) address for a destination devices to a Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
407
Which network layer protocol provides the internet protocol (IP) address for a device that knows its own Media Access Control (MAC) address?
Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
408
Which Transport Layer protocol does not guarantee that packets will be received at all?
User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
409
Which Application layer protocol is used to send and receive file by way of transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP)?
File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
410
Which protocol is simpler than File Transfer Protocol (FTP) when transferring files between computers?
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP).
411
Which Application layer protocol is a terminal emulation used to log on to remote hosts?
Teletype Network.
412
Which Application Layer protocol is an automated means of assigning a unique internet protocol (IP) address to every device on a network?
Dynamic Host Configuration (DHCP).
413
Which Application layer protocol is a utility that can verify that transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) is installed and communicating with the network?
Ping.
414
The physical address of any device on the network is a/an
Media Access Control (MAC) address
415
What are the two parts to an Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) address?
Network and Host.
416
What is used on a transmission control protocol/internet protocol (TCP/IP) network to determine which network a computer is on?
Subnet mask.
417
How many subnet bits are required to support 90 subnets on a Class B network?
Seven.
418
How many bits are available for host bits on a Class B network using seven bits?
Nine.
419
What is not a recommendation for planning networks using variable length subnet masking (VLSM)?
Re-address the entire network.
420
What mechanism allows for easier Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) address allocations?
Auto configuration.
421
Which one of the following is not an Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) transition approach.
Auto configuration.
422
Which Internet protocol version 6 (IPv6) tunneling approach attempts to solve the issue of IPv6 to IP version 4(IPv4), IP protocol 41 issue?
Teredo.
423
Teredo has four tunneling components. Which one is not one of them?
Teredo agent.
424
The combination transmitter/receiver device, in a single package, is called a
transceiver.
425
What device provides the physical, electrical, and electronic connections to the network media?
Network interface card (NIC).
426
What layers of the open system interconnection (OSI) model do network interface cards (NIC) belong?
Physical and Data Link layers.
427
A repeater with more than one output port is a
hub.
428
What can be used to extend the size of a network?
Active hubs.
429
What device subdivides a network into smaller logical pieces, or segments?
Switch.
430
The time it takes a switch to figure out where to forward a data unit is called
latency.
431
Which device has multiport connectivity that directs data between nodes on a network?
Router.
432
A router's strength is its
intelligence.
433
What is the oldest routing protocol?
Routing Information Protocol (RIP).
434
Which routing protocol does internet backbones use?
Border Gateway Protocol (BGP).
435
What type of gateway can restrict the kind of access local area network (LAN) users have to the internet, and vice versa?
Voice/data.
436
What type of gateway might include remote access servers that allow dial-up connectivity to a local area network (LAN)?
LAN.
437
Virtual private networks (VPN) allow the AF to extend network resources across a/an
public network.
438
Which of the following is not a function that a virtual private network (VPN) concentrator performs?
Encapsulates data.
439
What cable discrepancies can a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect?
Kinks, opens, and corroded connectors.
440
What type of cable property change does a time-domain reflectometer (TDR) detect to identify problems?
Impedance.
441
When using optical time-domain reflectometer (OTDR), what action is suggested by most manufacturers to prevent false readings?
Connect a launch cable between the test set and the cable being tested.
442
A cable wire scanner wire-map display identifies crossover and straight-through cables by
providing wiring maps at both ends of the cable.
443
What test equipment has the capability of diagnosing digital network and developing communications software?
Protocol analyzer.
444
Which component of a protocol analyzer discards frames based on its definition or activates
Filter.
445
What component of a protocol analyzer processes the frames based on the selected test and the user configuration inputs?
Central processing unit (CPU).
446
What protocol analyzer feature automatically runs in the background when the protocol analyzer application is activated?
Node discovery.
447
What protocol analyzer utility is used to determine if a network node is connected or responding?
Ping.
448
What protocol analyzer utility is used to see the path that packets are traveling and the time it takes the packets to complete the trip?
Trace Route.
449
A Management Information Base (MIB) can be identified by either its object name r its object what?
Descriptor.
450
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) has three components: a managed device, an agent and a
Network Management System (NMS).
451
Which of the following is not a basic Simple Management Protocol (SNMP) command?
Get.
452
Which network management function provides the capability to initialize, operate and shut down managed devices?
Configuration.
453
Which network management function obtains the utilization and error rates of network devices and provides statistical data about the network?
Performance.
454
The community name that is used with the network management systems (NMS) authenticates
simple network management protocol (SNMP) requests.
455
What defines the format and type of data in a network management system (NMS) report?
Report Template.
456
What process provides the overall process to secure and protect our information networks?
Barrier Reef.
457
What defines traffic flow and is a basic protection mechanism on routers?
Access lists.
458
The World Wide Web (WWW) proxy provides three benefits: it conceals internal network configuration, provides a means to monitor and eliminate traffic to unofficial WWW sites, and
provides much faster access to the internet.
459
What is one of the primary functions of the Network Control Center (NCC), usually done in real time, and ensures the system is being operated within the parameters established by network security policy?
System monitoring.
460
What security posture permits everything that is not specifically blocked?
Open.
461
What security posture prevents everything that is not specifically authorized?
Default deny.
462
What is the first line of defense when gaining access to a laptop computer's operating system?
Logon identification and password combination.
463
Who has unrestricted access to system commands and data?
Superusers.
464
What must be employed to ensure data integrity?
Checksums.
465
What method is approved for changing passwords through the use of remote access?
Strongly encrypted virtual private network.
466
An intrusion detection system (IDS) may miss attacks that bypass the firewall like application-based attacks and
tunneling.
467
What type of firewall can filter messages according to a set of rules for a specific application?
Proxy server.
468
What are the two vulnerability scanner examination techniques?
Passive and active.
469
Of what does a firewall physically consist?
One or more routers and host machines with filtering software containing a series of rules that accept or reject packets of information, connection types or application specific communications attempting to cross the firewall.
470
What is the simplest and least expensive type of firewall, and what is its purpose?
Packet filtering firewall; to stop messages with inappropriate network addresses.
471
What type of firewall is used to separate secure sites, networks, or network segments from less secure areas?
Bastion host.
472
Name the 3 factors that affect microwave propagation.
Reflection, refraction and diffraction.
473
Name 3 major propagation paths and identify the radio system(s) used with each.
Ground waves, space waves and sky waves; HF and microwave frequencies.
474
A space wave and a reflected wave arrive at the receive antenna 180° out-of-phase. What effect will this have on the received receiver signal level (RSL)?
RSL will decrease due to partial or total cancellation.
475
What happens to the RSL when reflected waves and space waves pass in and out-of-phase at the receive antenna?
RSL will vary due to the aiding and opposing of the 2 signals.
476
How much further is the radio horizon than the true horizon in a standard atmosphere?
33% further
477
K experiences a significant decrease in value. What effect does this have on the radio horizon?
Wave is bent more and radio horizon decreases an is known as superstandard refraction.
478
As the atmosphere becomes less dense, what happens to the speed of the propagated wave?
As K varies, the distance the wave travels to the radio horizon varies, causing fading at the receive antenna.
479
Define the term diffraction?
Down bending of radio waves as they graze the surface of an obstruction.
480
What determines the size of the waveguide?
Wavelength of the energy to be transmitted.
481
What is the waveguide's cutoff frequency?
A limiting frequency below microwave range where it cannot transmit a signal.
482
How many miles are satellites placed in orbit and why?
22,300 miles above Earth to maintain stability. At this distance the satellite does not fall back to Earth and does not drift off into space.
483
In what way is satellite communications a deficiency?
Transmitting on uplink is secure; transmission on downlink is in broadcast mode which makes it unsecure.
484
Name 2 satellite communications systems.
AFSATCOM / DSCS
485
Why is modulation used?
To transmit audio frequencies over appreciable distances and to send more than 1 message at a time over same medium.
486
What is the frequency bandwidth of a high frequency signal?
3 - 30 MHz
487
What are the 2 paths that an HF signal can travel?
Ground wave & sky wave transmission.
488
What is referred to as coherency?
Properties of a laser light that make a narrow beam and does not diverge or spread out like light from a flashlight.
489
Name 3 disadvantages to laser light transmission?
Laser light is strictly a LOS transmission media. Great care is required to properly align the transmitting and receiving equipment. Laser light is susceptible to atmospheric interference, and cannot penetrate walls or very thin coverings such as curtains or paper.
490
What is one of laser light transmissions greatest advantages?
No FCC license is required. Equipment is moderate in cost and undetected eavesdropping is difficult.
491
Broadband is a term that refers to what type of signaling method?
Signaling method that can handle a relatively large range (band) of frequencies.
492
Give 2 examples of broadband technology.
ADSL / Cable TV
493
What transmission media can utilize broadband signaling?
Copper, fiber, or wireless
494
What are the 2 main interfaces used in ISDN?
PRI and BRI
495
There are 2 channel configurations for PRI, what are they?
30 bearer channels and 2 delta channels for E1.
23 bearer channels and 1 delta channel for T1.
496
What is the primary application for PRI connections?
Higher xfer speeds and call setup times.
497
What are the 2 uses for BRI in the military?
Video teleconferencing & STE.
498
How is voice transmitted and received by a telephone?
Voice of talker vibrates membrane that has magnet attached to it. Magnet causes changes in current in coil. Current changes are transmitted to speaker on other end causing another membrane with a magnet attached to vibrate and reproduce the sound.
499
The telephone exchange system was developed to address what problem?
Get rid of point-to-point setup
500
What was the impact of conversion from manual switchboards to electro-mechanical switches?
Electro-mechanical switches = Speed and reliability and allowed telephone companies to cut personnel costs.
501
What is a dial tone signal?
User that the telephone line is connected to the switch and is ready to transmit dialing digits.
502
What are the 3 cornerstones of voice network system security?
Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability
503
Inadvertent disclosure of communications violates which cornerstone of voice network system security?
Confidentiality
504
Problems that affect the QoS and functionality customers require are related to what cornerstone of voice network system security?
System Integrity
505
Ensuring redundancy in a voice network system so that system operations are maintained if there is a failure at any single point in the system relates to which cornerstone of voice network system security?
Availability
506
PBX switches generally handle what kind of traffic?
Internal call traffic and connection to outside public switched telephone network.
507
What types of services can the Meridian Option 11C PBX support?
60 - 720 lines. VoIP, ISDN BRI, VM, Call center operations.
508
What are the 2 models of the DMS-100?
DMS-100 & MSL-100
509
What is the maximum # of ports that a fully-expanded DMS-100 and MSL-100 can support?
DMS-100 = 100,000 ports
MSL-100 = 30,000 ports
510
What is the physical difference between the DMS-100 and MSL-100?
DMS-100 = 6-foot equipment racks.
MSL-100 = 6-foot modular cabinets.
511
Which major area monitors and controls all system activity by executing stored computer programs?
Central control area
512
What are the elements that make up the control components for the SuperNode central control area?
CM, SLM, MS
513
What is the SLM used for?
Boot load CM and MS from disk/tape, load an office image into the inactive CPU, dump an image to disk, perform offline transfers from tape to disk.
514
What 3 services/facilities does a PM interface?
Analog/digital trunk, subscriber lines and test/service trunks.
515
What component in a PM performs local processing functions?
PP
516
How many analog circuits can be connected to a TM8?
30
517
How many line cards are controlled by one of the two processors in an LCM?
320
518
How many LCM's can occupy a single bay?
2
519
Which major area provides an interface between the maintenance subsystem software and the maintenance technician?
I/O or MAP
520
To what central control component(s) does the IOC interface?
MC in the SuperNode
521
How many DC's can be connected to 1, IOC?
Up to 9 DC Cards
522
What IOC card is required to interface a tape drive?
A 1X68 MTD Controller
523
What IOC card is required to interface a disk drive?
A 1X55 DDU Controller
524
What is terminated on the vertical and horizontal sides of the MDF?
Circuits routed over base cable plant leading to subscriber's buildings are terminated on the vertical side. Equipment from peripheral area of telephone switch are terminated on the horizontal side.
525
What is the function of protectors installed on the MDF?
Protect switching system from damage due to high voltages that could enter the central office via the base cable plant.
526
What is the function of jumpers on the MDF?
Connect telephone numbers from the switching system to specific cable pairs that are routed to various telephone subscribers.
527
What precaution should you take before removing / replacing faulty terminal or distribution frame protectors?
Measure voltage across the protector prior to removing it to ensure dangerous voltages are not still present on the line.
528
What are the safety rules you need to remember when using a ladder?
Use wood or reinforced fiberglass ladders and remove any finger rings.
529
How many planes and shelves per plane are provisioned in a fully equipped ENET?
2 planes and 4 shelves per plane
530
What 2 switch functions does the ENET provide access to?
Messaging and a speech / signaling path
531
How many horizontal buses are provided on each ENET shelf and what is their designation?
Two H-buses per shelf designated odd and even
532
How many PM's are connected to the ENET?
Hardwired to a designated port
533
How does a circuit entering the ENET on an odd card slot gain access to the even H-bus?
Through a V-bus extension to its mate even card
534
How many sections is each H-bus divided into?
8 Sections numbered 0-7
535
What major DMS database facility provides facilities for mapping data from its external character string format to its logical binary format?
The formatter
536
When changing the DMS database, you are required to name particular entries. Which major database facility stores these entries?
The data dictionary
537
What is the purpose of the POF system?
It provides facilities for storing DMO's and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution
538
Which database facility preserves DMO on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the switch should fail?
The POF
539
What user interfaces are available on the MSM that use Meridian Mail software?
Nortel's proprietary MMUI and VMUIF
540
What is the storage capacity of a single SPN?
75 or 150 hours
541
What are the Meridian mail user interface user options that VMUIF does not support?
TAG, timed delivery, added to an already existing recorded message and save copies of message.
542
How does the system notify a VMUIF mailbox user they have received a message?
Message waiting indicator (either a light on the phone or an interrupted dial tone)
543
What is the maximum # of submailboxes that can be partitioned from a VMUIF main mailbox?
Up to 8 submailboxes
544
What is a typical adminstration configuration for the MSM administration and maintenance interface?
One main system administration terminal and up to 3 MAT's
545
How is remote administration access activated in the administration and maintenance interface?
From the main system administration terminal
546
Why did the NTSC decide to shift the R-Y and B-Y signals 33° counterclockwise?
To place the R-Y signal on the axis of maximum visual acuity and the B-Y signal on the axis of minimum visual acuity.
547
What were the bandwidths and limitations of the R-Y and B-Y signals, and what were the shifted signals?
R-Y is called the I signal for in-phase. Bandwidth: 1.5MHz
| B-Y is called the Q signal for quadrature. Bandwidth: .5MHz
548
List the functions of the encoder
Derive the luminance (brightness) signal, derive the I and Q signals, use I and Q to modulate suppressed subcarrier balanced modulator to represent hue and saturation, combine luminance and chrominance signals, add sync and burst to combined luminance and chrominance signal.
549
What are the 5 components of the NTSC color video signal?
Luminance, chroma, blanking, sync, colorburst
550
What digital broadcasting system was adopted as a standard in the USA?
ATSC (Advanced Television Systems Committee)
551
What type of modulation is used in ATSC?
8-vestigial sideband technique
552
Name the format used by ATSC to provide 5.1 channel surround sound?
Dolby Digital AC-3
553
List the advantage of OFDM
Reduces the amount of interference caused by multipath
554
Explain video tape recording
Means of storing information in a memory device wherein the memory is provided by a series of magnetic patterns on tape.
555
What type of function is the playback process?
Voltage function
556
A VTR head can be compared to what?
An electromagnet
557
Before being applied to the head, the incoming signal in a reorder is converted to what type of waveform?
Current
558
List the 4 signals recorded on tape.
One video track, two audio tracks and a control track.
559
What is the maximum recording and/or playback time allowed by the Betacam SP format?
90 minutes on a large cassette.
560
List some of the advantages of digital video recording.
Superior image quality and ability to dupe down unlimited generations (cloning), edit layer upon layer of effects without quality loss, record in one TV standard and accurately reproduce in a different standard.
561
List 3 conversion methods available when working with digital video.
Analog-to-digital (A/D); Digital-to-analog (D/A); Digital-to-digital (D/D).
562
What is the purpose of the D/A converter?
Change binary data stream back into the continuous electrical waveform that a binary data stream represents.
563
What format is used in D2 digital recording?
A 4 fsc sampling frequency with 8-bit quantizing.
564
What are the benefits of XDCAM recording in MPEG HD format?
Data can quickly be transferred over computer networks and easily edited in the field with a laptop computer and made readily available to a wide variety of applications.
565
What is the main benefit of having time counters on VTR's?
Timesave that enables the operator or editor to find a specific clip and/or segment at a later time.
566
What GVG-110 system allows you to insert titles or other video scenes into a full-screen background scene?
Effects Keyer
567
What can you use to fill an effects key when using the GVG-110?
Key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
568
What type of downstream keys can you use to layer over the picture coming out of the effects keyer?
Linear or luminance
569
What is the purpose of the GVG-110 effects memory?
Store effects for recall later
570
How many effects storage registers are there in the GVG-110 switcher?
16
571
What circuit re-inserts reference blanking into the program output to prevent noisy sync in the GVG-110?
Blanking processor
572
What is the purpose of the GVG-110 GPI?
Allows remote control of information
573
What allows a personal computer or digital picture manipulator to remote control all of the switcher's functions?
Serial interface
574
The VDA is designed for what type of video signal?
75Ω composite video signal
575
The VDA is capable of how much gain?
+ or - 6dB
576
The high frequency speaker is adjusted to maintain flat response through what frequency?
5.5 MHz
577
Which stage of the VDA has the provision for delay adjustment?
Fixed gain and level shift
578
In the output driver of the DA, what assures a linear operating characteristic?
Generous amount of feedback
579
What is a head-end system?
Beginning of a cable system
580
State the purpose of a head-end system.
Master facility that receives TV signals for processing and distribution over a cable TV infrastructure.
581
What device is used to combine the different channel inputs received into one output for distribution?
Modulator (multiplexer)
582
What device is used to make up for cable losses in the line?
Trunk amplifiers
583
What factors should you take into consideration when planning the installation of an IDS?
Equipment capabilities and limitations, mission criticality and threat to resources that are to be protected.
584
What must a line of detection detect?
A person walking, running, rolling crawling or jumping through line of detection.
585
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
Present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
586
What does a clear zone consist of?
A 30 foot area inside and outside the site perimeter fence.
587
Why does the area lighting need to illuminate the interior of the restricted area?
To help personnel detect and track intruders.
588
How does an IDS assist SF capabilities?
Increase detection capability by alerting security personnel to an approach, intrusion or attempted intrusion.
589
Why type of system should the installed IDS be?
A closed system, not allowing access from external source.
590
What is the point from which control of personnel and vehicle entry is conducted?
Entry control facility
591
How many hours of battery power are needed to operate sensor, alarm, delay/denial and communication components in case of an AC power failure?
4
592
What sensors provide an early detection and near real-time assessment to any attempt to penetrate the perimeter security system?
Exterior sensors
593
What are the primary parts of the AN/GSS-39 system?
Main control panel, mixture of sensors, associated equipment.
594
When the SPCDS annunciator is used in the IDS, what control unit should be used?
Advisor VIII
595
What information can be obtained from the ZIPS?
What sensors have gone into alarm since it was last reset
596
Why is the model TROS 8/4 multiplexer used with the STAS and SMAS instead of Advisor VIII?
Multiplexers are standard equipment with these annunciators and directly interface with them
597
What are the IIDS's primary AC power requirements?
115 or 220 VAC; through a step-down transformer to the 12 VDC power supply.
598
What is the frequency of the tamper alarm?
26.3 kHz
599
What is a dual-phenomenology sensor?
One that uses a combination of microwave and passive infrared sensors in the same physical circuit and housing
600
How many feet of coverage does the DR-301, PIR sensor provide?
35
601
How many frequencies are there in a SD80DC microwave sensor and what is the minimum and maximum frequency range?
10 frequencies. 9.45 and 10.545 GHz
602
What is the minimum and maximum range of control, in feet, for the PIRAMID sensor, model SDI-76?
15 - 75 feet
603
What is the maximum coverage, field of view, # of beams of a SDI-76 sensor equipped with the standard high-density lens?
75 x 75 feet; 100 degrees; 24 beams.
604
What is the difference between the FPS-2 and FPS-2-2R?
FPS-2 is single-channel and can cover up to 100 meters. FPS-2-2R has 2, 100 meter zones.
605
What has been done to the FPS cables to help detect cuts or shorts?
A 1 megaohm resister is placed in the end of the line termination kit.
606
In a typical Air Force installation, how much area can the E-Flex II cover?
Up to 1,000 feet (300 meters)
607
How, if at all, can cutting of the E-Flex II cable be detected?
If the cable is cut, resistance drops and causes a supervision tamper alarm.
608
What is the purpose of the TWS's?
To detect an intruder climbing over or through the barbed wire of a security fence.
609
What tension should be maintained on the TWS's?
90 + or - 15 lbs.
610
What is the maximum allowable distance the barbed wire can be pulled before an alarm is generated?
6 inches
611
What is the normal length of a VTWS sensor sector?
328 feet (100 meters)
612
What type of IR technology does the Birdseye use?
Active
613
How many sensors does a typical Birdseye sector transmit/receive pole contain?
18. Transmit pole: 6 transmitters / 3 receivers. Receive pole: 6 receivers / 3 transmitters.
614
How does the detection pattern change, if a sector is set up to cover an area of 175 feet instead of 125 feet?
Each transmitted beam is sent to two receivers.
615
What is the maximum intrusion detection barrier length that an IPIDS system can provide?
80 meters
616
For how long will a generated alarm signal remain active on the IPIDS?
2 seconds or as long as the beam is broken.
617
How can the MFS detect intruders?
By an intruder breaking the beam or by multipath return signal.
618
Normally how many MFS's are used to establish a microwave line-of-sight detection sector?
Two (one transmitter and one receiver)
619
Describe the subcarrier frequency in a MFS.
Amplitude modualtion frequency that canc be set to 3, 5, 8, or 13 kHz.
620
What is the purpose of the multipath/amplifier detector?
It looks for increases in the fluctuation level of this signal caused by an intruder disturbance of the multipath field and generates an alarm when fluctuations are large enough.
621
The P-MUX provides what functions?
Multiplexing / demultiplexing of aggregate signals.
622
What are the different categories of cards found in the Promina Multiplexer?
Common equipment, voice/data/trunk and server cards.
623
What is the C-Bus used for?
Communication with other cards in Promina.
624
The PLM's flash memory provides the data storage of what?
Boot code, system software and config database.
625
The USD card's port 0 can be used for what purpose?
Accept an external clock for network synchronization.
626
The purpose of the PRC (Primary Rate Card) is to?
Provide and manage incoming/outgoing calls to network.
627
Symmetric trunk operation means?
Both directions of trunk (transmit and receive) operate at the same bit rate and all calls that traverse the trunk are symmetric and full-duplex.
628
What is the purpose of the CM?
Encryption and decryption; convert traffic to/from NRS/CDI, reachback and internal ICAP equipment; receive GPS timing for external timing interface of P-Mux.
629
KIV 19A
Encrypting NRZs signals at data rates between 9.6 Kbps and 13 Mbps
630
CV 8448D
Converting NRS signals to Balanced, Unbalanced or Optical CDI signals.
631
True Time Xli/Zypher GPS Receiver
Disciplined precision timing reference
632
The crypto module is typically found where in the TDC network?
Located between P-Mux and ground satellite terminal.
633
The True Time Xli/Zypher GPS receiver can provide what range of clock rates?
8 KHz to 8192KHz
634
What are the differences between the KIV 19 and the KIV 19A?
KIV19A provides enhanced features that enable configuration of local strap settings using the control panel.
635
What is the CV8448 necessary?
Data interfaces like EIA-530 are designed for short interoffice connections and the 25 wire cables used for this standard are too bulky for long distance tactical use.
636
What application does the FCC-100 Tactical Module have in the TDC network?
To provide low rate communiations channels to smaller sites.
637
What services does the FCC-100 provide?
It can serve as a long local telephone channel for TRI-TAC devices or common two-wire desk telephones or fax machines, and for NRZ or CDI data channels.
638
What task does the CIM normally perform in the TDC network?
Acts as the external router for secure / non-secure data network.
639
The Cisco 3460 and 3745 modular routers provide what for the ICAP data backbone?
Connectivity between classified or unclassified ICAP backbon
640
What devices are compatible with the KIV-7HS/HSB?
KIV-7HS/HSB; KIV-7 or KG84
641
When is the CV 2048-M/CV 8448-D used?
When CIM and P-Mu are not in the same location.
642
What are the primary components of the BAM v3?
REDCOM IGX-C and 2 Cisco switches
643
What role does the BAM play in the deployed TDC network?
Voice and data access for 50 users in a single location
644
What cards are required for operation of the REDCOM IGX-C Circuit switch?
Modular Switching unit (MSU), Expanded Timeslot Interchange Board (ETSI), Ringing Generator Card.
645
What is the main limiting factor in the configuration of the IGX switch?
Limited # of timeslots
646
How does stacking work with the Avaya Prologix Switch?
Can only be stacked in pairs, with the 2nd switch in the stack acting as a pair of expansion shelves with no processing capability.
647
What signaling can the Avaya DS1 card be configured to support?
DTMF, Multi-frequency and Primary Rate Interface
648
What purpose does the tactical interface gateway serve?
Provides backwards compatibility with TRI-TAC devices such as tactical radios, DNVT and DSVT's
649
What are the Cisco switches in the BAM used for?
Connect workstations and other network devices
650
What is the normal data path for the Red Data Module to send traffic to a SIPRNet user on a TDC network?
SIPR traffic comes through Promina as encrypted. Pass through KIV-7 to be decrypted. Decrypted traffic is routed to TACLANE which then encrypts each IP frame before sending back through black network. Client RDM then decrypts the frames for reception by SIPR user.
651
What type of encryption does the TACLANE utilize?
Ethernet frame encryption
652
The MRV console server provides what service?
Secure remote configuration and management of TDC modules.
653
What components make up the NGRT?
Reflector dish, tracking receiver and pedestal motor assembly with tripod.
654
What purpose does the STRC have in the AF IP Receive Suite?
STRC contains all the computer elements required for operating the NGRT, including initial heading settings for satellite acquisition and test circuitry for troubleshooting.
655
What is the function of the RBM?
Receives data streams sent by satellite through NGRT and relay that information to the subscribers connected to the terminal.
656
What is the difference in function of the Type 1 and Type 2 RBM?
Type 1: Military specific / classified data.
Type 2: Handles commercial / unclassified data.
657
What does the video converter in the RBM do?
Takes input signal and converts it to an NTSC standard video signal.
658
What is the difference in equipment between the Type 1 and the Type 2 RBM?
Type 1 RBM contains a crypto unit to decrypt military specific information carried in the data feed from the Type 2 RBM. Type 2 RBM contains an IRD to extract data content from the incoming video stream and to transmit that data to an Ethernet switch for distribution. The IRD also descrambles the video content before processing.
659
What is an RFS?
A request for communications service from a user to DISA.
660
What is a TSR?
A request to staff, stop, or change circuits, trunks, links, or systems.
661
What is the purpose of the TSO?
To authorize activations, deactivations, or changes to circuits, trunks, links, or systems. It also gives the
O&M agencies authority to procure equipment.
662
Who normally receives TSOs?
All DII stations that a trunk or circuit traverses, the designated DII control office, the leasing agency
(if applicable), and other DISA area offices if the trunk or circuit enters their area. Information copies of the
TSO are sent to the O&M agency, the TCO and the user of the circuit or trunk.
663
What does a SAM identify?
Time for installation of the leased service at your facility, contract service completion, delay in service,
contractor supplies information (that is. reference number, cost, service date), any additional information
that is required.
664
Where do you look to determine circuit requirements of circuits composed entirely of
government-owned facilities?
DISAC 300–175–9, DII Technical Schedules.
665
The TSO issuing authority keeps current listings of circuits accepted for service that do not meet
required parameters and ensures what?
Outstanding exceptions are cleared at the earliest possible date.
666
A TSO designated DII facility must do what for initial acceptance of a leased circuit?
(1) Ensure that leased circuit segments meet all circuit parameters for the ToS specified in the TSO.
(2) Contact the TSO issuing authority when the carrier fails to meet all required circuit parameters.
667
List the three types of reports used by the CCO for circuit activation.
In-effect, exception, and delayed service.
668
What is the purpose of the trend analysis program?
The program trends the number of outages, outage times, reason for outage, calculate availability and
reliability, and determine if circuit reliability meets MT on a monthly calendar basis.
669
When are outages analyzed to determine if corrective actions are required?
Anytime a link, trunk, or circuit fails monthly MT.
670
Who do you notify when a circuit fails MT for three or more consecutive months?
The CCO, or servicing SCF/PTF, should notify the appropriate LCC/NCO and O&M command of all links,
trunks, and circuit that fail MT for three or more consecutive months.
671
How many character positions are there in a trunk identifier?
Six.
672
Which position of a trunk identifier would indicate the receive side area of a trunk?
Second position, the “To” area.
673
What publication can you use to locate the codes of trunk identifiers?
DISAC 310–65–1.
674
Which position of a trunk number indicates the type of trunk or media?
Fourth.
675
What is the purpose of a CCSD?
To provide each circuit a specific identity for reporting and status keeping.
676
What position and part of a CCSD contains the type of circuit identified?
Fourth position, third part.
677
What are the two classes of CCSDs?
Permanent and temporary.
678
Who has responsibility for constructing and assigning temporary CCSDs?
SCF Technician.
679
What are the two parts of the TSP restoration priority code?
(1) TSP provisioning priority field.
| (2) TSP restoration priority field.
680
When restoring circuits, what type of facility do you use first?
Use all available spare channels first.
681
One disadvantage of microwave wavelengths is that the frequencies are susceptible to
weather effects
682
What is not a factor in determining the refractive index of air?
Propagation medium.
683
The determining factor in calculating the correct size of a waveguide is
frequency.
684
How many miles above the earth are satellites placed in orbit?
22,300.
685
Which satellite communications system is used to transmit space operations?
Defense Satellite Communications System (DSCS).
686
To transmit an audio signal over radio frequency (RF), it first has to be
modulated.
687
What is one path high frequency (HF) transmissions follow from the antenna to the distant end?
Groundwave.
688
Which is not a disadvantage of laser light transmission?
No need for careful alignment of transmitter and receiver.
689
Broadband refers to a technology that can transmit
a relatively wide range of frequencies.
690
Broadband technology uses all of these transmission mediums except?
laser light.
691
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) configuration normally used to connect
primary rate interface (PRI).
692
How many B and D channels does the standard configuration in North American Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) primary rate interface (PRI) application use?
23, 1.
693
What was the primary driving factor behind the invention of the telephone exchange
system?
Point-to-point telephone access caused cabling issues.
694
When a telephone network is circuit switched, each call
has a dedicated circuit created by the switch.
695
The three cornerstones of voice network system security are availability,
confidentiality, and integrity.
696
What is the most serious threat to voice network system integrity?
Subversion
697
What role does the Private Branch Exchange (PBX) play in the telephony industry?
A small scale switch that handles internal calls for an organization.
698
How many serial data interface ports does the Meridian Option 11C Small System
Controller have?
3.
699
Which models of the digital multiplex system (DMS) family are commonly used at Air
Force bases to provide base telephone services?
DMS-100 and Meridian System Logic (MSL)-100.
700
Which elements make up the control component of the SuperNode central control?
CM and system load module (SLM).
701
What link is used to connect the digital multiplex system (DMS)-core to the DMS-bus?
DS-512.
702
Which major component of the NorTel digital switching system (DSS) interfaces line and
trunk subscribers?
peripheral module (PM).
703
What components are directly connected to the input/output controller (IOC)?
A pair of SuperNode message controllers and the device controllers.
704
Base cables normally enter the central office (CO) facility through a
cable vault.
705
The primary reason you should measure the voltage across terminal or distribution frame protectors before removing and replacing them is to
ensure dangerous voltages are not present on the line.
706
Where do incoming unswitched circuits from a peripheral module (PM) enter the NT9X35A cross-point card matrix?
Vertical bus.
707
Because the enhanced network (ENET) is a matrix, any input channel has access to any available
output channel.
708
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility is responsible for creating and maintaining tables of data in a controlled manner?
Table control.
709
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for storing data modifications orders (DMO) and for retrieving them at a specified time for execution?
Pending order file.
710
Which digital multiplex system (DMS)-100 database facility provides facilities for
preserving data modifications orders (DMO) on tape or disk so that data tables can be restored if the system should fail?
Journal file.
711
What voice mail interface has the capability to support the temporary absence greeting (TAG) feature?
Meridian mail user interface.
712
What voice mail interface allows a user's mailbox to be partitioned into a main mailbox and up to eight submailboxes?
Voice Messaging User Interface Forum.
713
Why are the R-Y and B-Y signals shifted 33° counterclockwise?
R-Y was shifted to maximum and B-Y was shifted to minimum color acuity, respectively for
human vision.
714
The red, green, and blue (RGB) outputs from the camera go to the
encoder.
715
What modulation technique is used by the Advanced Television Systems Committee
(ATSC) system?
8-vestigial sideband (8-VSB).
716
What modulation technique is used for Digital Video Broadcasting - Cable transmission?
a. Motion Picture Experts Group (MPEG)-1.
MPEG-2.
717
How many lines of video are discarded in high-definition 1080 line video encoded with 1920x1088 pixel frames prior to display?
8.
718
How is information recorded or stored on the videotape?
Series of magnetic patterns.
719
You can compare a video tape recorder (VTR) head to a/an
electromagnet.
720
What function in a video tape recorder (VTR) is accomplished by transporting the videotape
across the head gap at the same speed at which it was recorded?
Playback.
721
An important concept to understand is that digital video is merely an alternate means for
minimizing video loss.
722
What is a major advantage of digital recording over analog recording?
Material can be edited generation after generation without noticeable degradation in quality.
723
Which digital video tape format uses a 4:2:2 standard, with an 8 bit sampling rate, 19mm
wide tape, and has a 94 minute recording time?
D1.
724
What is the means of measuring the amount of time that has been played or recorded on a
video tape recorder (VTR)?
Counter.
725
What part of the video switcher allows titles or other video scenes to be inserted into a full screen background?
Effects keyer.
726
The GVG-110 video switcher effects key fills with
key bus video or an internally-generated color matte signal.
727
The purpose of the GVG-110 general purpose contact-closure editor interface (GPI) is to allow
remote control of switcher transitions.
728
The GVG-110 video switcher serial interface allows
remote control of the switcher by a personal computer or digital picture manipulator.
729
What are the frequencies at which the two common mode nulling adjustments are set in the video distribution amplifier?
60 Hz and 5.5 MHz.
730
What is the beginning of a cable system called?
Head-end.
731
What device is used to combine TV channels into a single line?
Modulator.
732
What component carries the signal to individual subscribers?
Trunk line.
733
What must a line of detection detect?
Walking, running, rolling, crawling, or jumping through the line of detection.
734
What is the main purpose of a boundary fence?
To present a physical and psychological deterrent to unauthorized entry.
735
The security lighting inside the restricted area is used to
facilitate the detection and tracking of intruders.
736
The basic configuration of the entry control facility (ECF) includes a
gatehouse, personnel entry gate, inspection equipment, and vehicle entrapment area.
737
What interior intrusion detection system (IIDS) is designed to detect intruders attempting to
enter a shelter, storage igloo, or building?
AN/GSS-39.
738
What annunciator is used with the Advisor VIII control unit?
Small permanent communications and display segment (SPCDS).
739
What does the AN/GSS-39 system use to monitor the integrity of all sensor wiring to the
control panel?
EOL module.
740
Which sensor uses heat radiation to detect intruders?
Passive infrared.
741
What is the range of the alternate current (AC) presence time delay relay in the AN/GSS-39 system before a power loss is reported?
1.5 to 15 seconds.
742
Between what ranges can you adjust the SDI-76 microwave sensor?
15-75 feet.
743
What type signal is sent to the fence protection system (FPS) signal processor when an
alarm is detected?
Analog.
744
A standard Air Force E-Flex II monitors how many meters?
300.
745
Which is not a selectable option of the E-Flex II system?
Sector reporting priority.
746
What is the maximum length of the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS)?
328 feet.
747
What is the maximum length of the Y taut-wire sensor (YTWS)?
200 feet.
748
What type alarm occurs if the sensor post cover in vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) is
removed?
Tamper.
749
In the event of a power failure, how many hours can the vertical taut-wire sensor (VTWS) remain operational?
4.
750
How many inches is the beam width at the widest portion of the infrared perimeter detection
sensor?
2.
751
At what distance does the detection pattern of the infrared perimeter detection sensor
(IPDS) transmitters change, and to what pattern does it change?
150 feet; signal transmitted to two receivers.
752
What is the operating frequency of the synchronizing oscillator in the "A" sensor post of the infrared pulsed intrusion detection system (IPIDS)?
1200 Hz.
753
What is the primary mode of detection for the microwave fence sensor?
Beam break.
754
When aligning a microwave fence sensor, what reading do you look for from the automatic gain control (AGC) using a multimeter?
Lowest possible.
755
How does the T-Bus relate to the function of the Promina?
The information that is multiplexed/demultiplexed travels over the T-Bus.
756
Asymmetric trunk operation provides more efficient use of bandwidth by
not utilizing the bandwidth in the opposite direction of a one-way call.
757
```
Which module provides encryption/decryption of traffic into and out of the theater
deployable communications/integrated communications access package (TDC/ICAP) network?
```
Crypto.
758
If all deployed and fixed locations use global positioning system (GPS) referenced clocks,
we can eliminate crypto-sync loss due to
timing slips.
759
What is the maximum number of channels of voice and/or data traffic that the FCC-100 can
handle?
16.
760
How many card slots does the FCC-100 have, and how many of them are available for user
configuration?
16, 8.
761
For either secure or nonsecure data network in theater deployable communications (TDC),
the Crypto Interface Module's router normally acts as the
external router.
762
For a theater deployable communications (TDC) network design that has the crypto
interface module (CIM) and the Promina Multiplexer (P-MUX) in separate locations, which piece
of equipment is necessary?
CV-2048/8448-D.
763
The Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) Gateway Exchange (IGX) switch allows
for stacks of up to 8 IGX switches, while the Avaya Prologix switch can operate in a stack of.
2.
764
The tactical interface gateway (TIG) uses what protocol to allow backwards compatibility between the Avaya Prologix and legacy Triservice Tactical Communications (TRI-TAC)
equipment?
Internet.
765
What configuration does the Red Data Module normally operate in?
Gateway/client.
766
The next generation receive terminal (NGRT) accepts feeds from which two satellite bands?
Ku, Ka.
767
What receive broadcast manager (RBM) processes military specific and classified
information?
Military.
768
Which piece of the receive broadcast manager (RBM) functions as a common television settop
converter box?
Video converter.
769
A status acquisition message (SAM) is sent from
Defense Informaiton Technology Contracting Office (DITCO).
770
Circuits that fail to meet all parameters specified in the appropriate technical schedule when
test and acceptance (T&A) is done may not be accepted for service without the express approval
of
the Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority.
771
```
Within how many normal duty hours of completion action on the Telecommunications
Service Order (TSO) must the circuit control office (CCO) submit an in-effect report?
```
72.
772
What report must be sent if the circuit does not meet all required parameters and the
Telecommunications Service Order (TSO) issuing authority advises that the circuit is accepted for service?
Exception.
773
Trend Analysis is a program that trends all of these outage data except
preempted outages.
774
Trend Analysis is a program that ensures circuits meet management thresholds (MT) on
what basis?
Monthly.
775
If a circuit fails its management threshold (MT), what test might be performed?
Quality control (QC).
776
The first position of a trunk identifier indicates the
"from" (sending) station.
777
Which Defense Information Systems Agency Circular(s) (DISAC) contain information
needed to assign a temporary command communications service designator (CCSD)?
310-70-1 and 310-55-1.
778
Which office or system confirms a restoration priority?
National Communications System (NCS).
779
What are the two parts/priorities to the Telecommunications Service Priority (TSP)?
provisioning and restoration.
