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CBE 3 > CELL AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY > Flashcards

CELL AND MOLECULAR BIOLOGY Flashcards

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1
Q
  1. What are the reactants for the chemical reaction of cellular respiration?
    A. Carbon dioxide and water
    B. Glucose and oxygen
    C. Oxygen and lactic acid
    D. Water and glucose
A

B. Glucose and oxygen

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2
Q
  1. How many ATP molecules does glycolysis provides a cell?
    A. 2 ATP molecules
    B. 4 ATP molecules
    C. 16 ATP molecules
    D. 32 ATP molecules
A

A. 2 ATP molecules

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3
Q
  1. Which is released as a byproduct of photosynthesis?
    A. Carbon
    B. Carbon dioxide
    C. Oxygen
    D. Water
A

C. Oxygen

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4
Q
  1. Which best describes light-dependent reaction?
    A. Uses carbon dioxide to synthesize proteins
    B. First stage of photosynthesis
    C. Creates ATP and NADPH
    D. Utilizes ATP and NADPH
A

C. Creates ATP and NADPH

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5
Q
  1. Why do we perceive chlorophyll as green?
    A. Because it combines blue and yellow light
    B. Because it absorbs green light
    C. Because it reflects green light
    D. Because it refracts green light
A

C. Because it reflects green light

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6
Q
  1. What is the starting molecule for glycolysis?
    A. ADP
    B. Citric acid
    C. Glucose
    D. Pyruvic acid
A

C. Glucose

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7
Q
  1. Where does lactic acid fermentation occurs?
    A. Beer
    B. Bread dough
    C. Muscle cells
    D. Wine
A

C. Muscle cells

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8
Q
  1. What is produced as electrons pass through the electron transport chain?
    A. Alcohol
    B. ATP
    C. Citric acid
    D. Lactic acid
A

B. ATP

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9
Q
  1. Which of these statements is true about the relationship of photosynthesis (P) and cellular respiration (CP)?
    A. Products of (P) inhibits (CP)
    B. Products of (P) are also the products of (CP)
    C. Reactants of (P) are also the reactants of (CP)
    D. Products of (P) are the reactants of (CP)
A

D. Products of (P) are the reactants of (CP)

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10
Q
  1. What is the main difference between aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration?
    A. Aerobic uses sugar, anaerobic does not
    B. Aerobic uses oxygen, anaerobic does not
    C. Anaerobic uses oxygen, aerobic does not
    D. Aerobic makes 2 ATP, anaerobic makes 36 ATP
A

B. Aerobic uses oxygen, anaerobic does not

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11
Q
  1. Photosynthesis uses sun light to convert water and carbon dioxide into _____________________.
    A. Glucose
    B. Oxygen
    C. ATP and oxygen
    D. Oxygen and glucose
A

D. Oxygen and glucose

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12
Q
  1. What does the chloroplast do?
    A. Stone water
    B. Control cellular activities
    C. Transport through the cell
    D. Moves the energy into the cell
A

D. Moves the energy into the cell

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13
Q
  1. What is found in plant cell but not in animal cell?
    A. Cell membrane
    B. Chloroplast
    C. Cytoplasm
    D. Golgi apparatus
A

B. Chloroplast

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14
Q
  1. What are products of photosynthesis and are reactants of cellular respiration?
    A. Hormones
    B. ATP and ADP
    C. Glucose and oxygen
    D. Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b
A

C. Glucose and oxygen

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15
Q
  1. Photosynthesis is to chloroplast as cellular respiration is to ____________________.
    A. Cell membrane
    B. Cytoplasm
    C. Mitochondrion
    D. Nucleus
A

C. Mitochondrion

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a stage of aerobic cellular respiration?
    A. Electron transport system
    B. Fermentation
    C. Glycolysis
    D. Krebs cycle
A

B. Fermentation

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17
Q
  1. Which or the following is the CORRECT sequence of events in cellular respiration?
    A. Glycolysis > fermentation > Krebs cycle
    B. Krebs cycle > electron transport > glycolysis
    C. Krebs cycle > glycolysis > electron transport
    D. Glycolysis > Krebs cycle > electron transport
A

D. Glycolysis > Krebs cycle > electron transport

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18
Q
  1. Which of these processes take place in the cytoplasm of a cell?
    A. Electron transport
    B. Glycolysis
    C. Krebs cycle
    D. All of the above
A

B. Glycolysis

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19
Q
  1. Where is the chlorophyll found?
    A. Cytosol
    B. Matrix
    C. Stroma
    D. Thylakoids
A

D. Thylakoids

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20
Q
  1. What are the reactants during Calvin cycle?
    A. Oxygen and carbon dioxide
    B. Carbon dioxide and water
    C. ATP and carbon dioxide
    D. ATP and glucose
A

C. ATP and carbon dioxide

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21
Q
  1. What refers to the regulation of the body of an organism establishing equilibrium or balance?
    A. Growth
    B. Homeostasis
    C. Organization
    D. Sensitivity
A

B. Homeostasis

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22
Q
  1. Which among the following is the smallest unit in the organization of living things?
    A. Cell
    B. Organ
    C. Organ system
    D. Tissue
A

A. Cell

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23
Q
  1. What characteristics of life is shown when a cell undergoes phagocytosis?
    A. Growth
    B. Metabolism
    C. Organization
    D. Responsiveness
A

B. Metabolism

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24
Q
  1. All of the following are parts of a prokaryotic cell, EXCEPT:
    A. Cell wall
    B. Endoplasmic reticulum
    C. Plasma membrane
    D. Ribosome
A

B. Endoplasmic reticulum

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25
25. Which structure is common to plant ang animal cells? A. Cell wall B. Chloroplast C. Mitochondrion D. Vacuole
C. Mitochondrion
26
26. Which organelle is the primary site of ATP synthesis in eukaryotic cells? A. Golgi body B. Mitochondrion C. Nucleus D. Vacuole
B. Mitochondrion
27
27. What will happen to a cell when water moves from outside and in to the cell? A. Nothing B. Pinocytosis C. Shrink D. Swell
D. Swell
28
28. What will happen to a cell when the concentration is higher outside of the cell? A. Burst B. Nothing C. Shrink D. Swell
C. Shrink
29
29. What solution is a cell submerged when red blood cells are soaked in pure distilled water? A. Hypertonic B. Hypotonic C. Isotonic D. Saline
B. Hypotonic
30
30. Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains? A. Bacteria and Archaea B. Bacteria and Eukarya C. Bacteria and Fungi D. Bacteria and Protist
A. Bacteria and Archaea
31
31. Which statement best describes why plasma membrane is said to be selectively permeable or differentially permeable A. Permeable to glucose only B. Allows certain liquids and gases to pass C. Permeable to certain kinds of molecules D. Both B and C
C. Permeable to certain kinds of molecules
32
32. Which activity relates to passive transport? A. Sodium-potassium pump B. Addition or salt to cure meat C. Low concentration of substances outside the cell D. Movement of molecules where energy is exerted by the cell
D. Movement of molecules where energy is exerted by the cell
33
33. Microorganisms include the following organisms EXCEPT: A. Bacteria B. Cnidaria C. Fungi D. Protist
B. Cnidaria
34
34. The term spirillum refers to what shape of bacteria? A. Rod B. Sphere C. Spiral D. Triangular
C. Spiral
35
35. Which organelle or structure is ABSENT in plant cells? A. Flagella B. Golgi body C. Mitochondria D. Nuclear membrane
A. Flagella
36
36. All are eukaryotic microorganisms EXCEPT: A. Algae B. Fungi C. Mycoplasma D. Protist
C. Mycoplasma
37
37. Microorganisms uses the following parts for locomotion EXCEPT: A. Cilia B. Cnidocyst C. Flagellum D. Pseudopod
B. Cnidocyst
38
38. What monosaccharide is formed after photosynthesis? A. Galactose B. Glucose C. Maltose D. Sucrose
B. Glucose
39
39. What is the total magnification of a Paramecium viewed under OIO using an ocular with a magnification of 20x?? A. 200x B. 800x C. 1000x D. 2000x
D. 2000x
40
40. What chemical reaction is involved in ATP synthesis in mitochondrion? A. Chemosynthesis B. Combustion C. Oxidation D. Photosynthesis
C. Oxidation
41
41. Which pair of parts and function of a compound microscope is mismatched? A. Base: supports the whole microscope B. Mirror: reflects light C. Objective: adjust the body tube D. Stage: where specimen is placed
C. Objective: adjust the body tube
42
42. Who said that cells came from pre-existing cells? A. Matthias Schleiden B. Robert Hooke C. Robert Schwann D. Rudolf Virchow
D. Rudolf Virchow
43
43. What kind of cell transport is pinocytosis? A. Diffusion B. Endocytosis C. Exocytosis D. Osmosis
B. Endocytosis
44
44. How many ATP are produced when 5 glucose units entered a bacterial cell found in the gut and undergone cellular respiration? A. 10 ATP B. 20 ATP C. 180 ATP D. 360 ATP
A. 10 ATP
45
45. What objective is used to view a cell with a total magnification of 400x using a 10x ocular? A. High power objective B. Low power objective C. Oil immersion objective D. Power objective
A. High power objective
46
46. How many ATP are produced when 8 glucose units undergone aerobic cellular respiration? A. 16 ATP B. 32 ATP C. 144 ATP D. 288 ATP
D. 288 ATP
47
47. Which part of a compound microscope makes you choose what objective to use? A. Draw tube B. Inclination joint C. Fine adjustment knob D. Revolving nosepiece
D. Revolving nosepiece
48
48. What best describes an organelle? A. It is a cell part B. It is membrane bound C. It distinguishes a structure D. It can be only seen in eukaryotes
B. It is membrane bound
49
49. When are viruses sometimes considered as living? A. When they have a host B. When they replicate C. When they cause sickness D. When they are contagious
A. When they have a host
50
50. What category do humans belong when described to be made up of many and different kinds of cells? A. Eukaryotic B. Multicellular C. Prokaryotic D. Unicellular
B. Multicellular
51
Why does autophagy or cell suicide occur? A. To fight cancer cells B. To eliminate old cells C. To avoid mutation of cells D. To prevent abnormal cells
B. To eliminate old cells
52
What does the smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes? A. Carbohydrate B. Lipid C. Nucleotide D. Protein
B. Lipid
53
Which structure does NOT possess a sarcoplasmic reticulum? A. Colon B. Heart C. Liver D. Stomach
C. Liver
54
Which structures are involved in eliminating waste out of the cell? I. Cell membrane II. Golgi body III. Lysosome IV. Rough endoplasmic reticulum V. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum VI. Vacuole A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and V D. IV, V and VI
B. I, II and IV
55
Which is NOT an element of the cytoplasm? A. Cell inclusions B. Cell wall C. Centriole D. Cytosol
B. Cell wall
56
Which organelle helps in drug detoxification? A. Lysosome B. Rough endoplasmic reticulum C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum D. Vacuole
C. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
57
Which organelle is considered as the digestive plant of the cell? A. Golgi body B. Nucleus C. Lysosome D. Vacuole
C. Lysosome
58
Which statement does NOT describe the cytoplasm correctly? A. It is the jelly like substance inside the cell B. It is where metabolic processes occur C. It has three elements D. It has two regions
A. It is the jelly like substance inside the cell
59
Where do ribosomes came from? A. Golgi body B. Nucleus C. Rough endoplasmic reticulum D. Vacuole
B. Nucleus
60
Vacuoles may only store water. A. True B. False
B. False
61
A golgi body may form a vesicle that can cause autophagy. A. True B. False
A. True
62
The ectoplasm refers to the jelly like substance outside of the cell. A. True B. False
A. True
63
Different organelles have double lipid layers. A. True B. False
A. True
64
How many filamentous structures comprise a cytoskeleton? A. 5 B. 4 C. 3 D. 2
C. 3
65
What protein polymer composes a microtubule? A. Actin B. Clathrin C. Keratin D. Tubulin
D. Tubulin
66
Microtubules form the spindle fibers in a dividing cell. A. True B. False
A. True
67
What filament is composed of protein actin? A. Intermediate filament B. Macrofilament C. Microfilament D. Microtubule
C. Microfilament
68
What makes cilia and flagella move? A. Intermediate filament B. Macrofilament C. Microfilament D. Microtubule
D. Microtubule
69
Which among the filaments is the thickest? A. Intermediate filament B. Macrofilament C. Microfilament D. Microtubule
D. Microtubule
70
What organisms possess cilia? A. Euglena B. Human C. Paramecium D. Volvox
C. Paramecium
71
Which best differentiates cilia and flagella? A. Their location in the cell B. Their size and function C. Their components D. Their movement
B. Their size and function
72
Why is a primary cilium non-motile? A. It has a 9+0 axoneme B. It has nine microtubule doublets C. It is shorter than the motile cilium D. It has two microtubules in the center
A. It has a 9+0 axoneme
73
In humans, only the males have a flagellated cell. A. True B. False
A. True
74
In microorganisms, cilia can be found in hundreds while flagella are found to be few (max of 8). A. True B. False
A. True
75
Cilia and flagella move in a wave like motion. A. True B. False
B. False
76
What is the process of copying a gene’s DNA sequence into a sequence of RNA? A. DNA repair B. Transcription C. Translation D. Replication
B. Transcription
77
Which among the following is the transcribing enzyme? A. Amino-acyl transferase B. DNA polymerase C. Ligase D. RNA polymerase
D. RNA polymerase
78
What molecules contain the genetic code? A. DNA B. mRNA C. rRNA D. Trna
A. DNA
79
What is the base pair of uracil? A. Adenine B. Cytosine C. Guanine D. Thymine
A. Adenine
80
What bases does RNA have? A. Adenine, thymine, cytosine, guanine, uracil B. Adenine, cytosine, guanine, thymine C. Adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine D. Cytosine, guanine, thymine, uracil
C. Adenine, uracil, cytosine, guanine
81
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding introns? A. Human genes have fewer introns compared to other organisms B. Introns are the parts of the mRNA that are translated C. Introns may be involved in exon shuffling D. Introns have no function
D. Introns have no function
82
Which mode of information transfer DOES NOT occur in a cell? A. DNA to DNA B. DNA to RNA C. DNA to protein D. All occur in a cell
D. All occur in a cell
83
Jneiss, a geneticist, isolated a corresponding mRNA and found to be containing 1,000 fewer bases than the original DNA. Did she isolate the wrong DNA? A. Yes, mRNA is made from a DNA template and should be of the same length as the gene sequence B. Yes, the mRNA should contain more bases than the DNA sequence C. No, the final mRNA only contains exons, the introns were remove D. No, the mRNA was partially degraded when it was transcribed
C. No, the final mRNA only contains exons, the introns were remove
84
A DNA strand with the sequence AACGTAACG is transcribed. What is the sequence of the mRNA molecule synthesized? A. AACGTAACG B. UUGCAUUGC C. AACGUAACG D. TTGCATTGC
B. UUGCAUUGC
85
What word describes DNA replication? A. Conservative B. Conservative C. Semi-conservative D. None of the abovementioned
C. Semi-conservative
86
Which Is TRUE about DNA polymerase? A. It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction B. It can synthesize DNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction C. It can synthesize mRNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction D. It can synthesize mRNA in the 3’ to 5’ direction
A. It can synthesize DNA in the 5’ to 3’ direction
87
Which enzyme unwinds a DNA? A. Helicase B. Hexonuclease C. Ligase D. Topoisomerase
A. Helicase
88
Which enzyme joins bits of DNA? A. DNA ligase B. DNA polymerase C. Exonuclease D. Primase
A. DNA ligase
89
Which mechanism will remove uracil in a DNA and replace it with the correct base? A. Base excision repair B. Direct repair C. Mismatch repair D. Nucleotide repair
A. Base excision repair
90
Which of the following has self-repairing mechanisms? A. DNA and RNA B. DNA and mRNA C. DNA, RNA and proteins D. DNA only
D. DNA only
91
Which is not present in an animal cell? A. Cell plate B. Centriole C. Centromere D. Cytoplasm
A. Cell plate
92
What period of growth is most spent in the life of any cell? A. Anaphase B. Cytokinesis C. Interphase D. Prophase
C. Interphase
93
Which is NOT a process of cell cycle? A. Death B. Development C. Division D. Growth
A. Death
94
Which stage of mitosis are spindle fibers produced? A. Anaphase B. Metaphase C. Prophase D. Telophase
C. Prophase
95
Which stage of meiosis, do homologous chromosomes form? A. Metaphase I B. Metaphase II C. Prophase I D. Prophase II
C. Prophase I
96
What stage of mitosis does a cleavage furrow form in a cell? A. Cytokinesis B. Interphase C. Meiosis D. Mitosis
D. Mitosis
97
How many chromosomes does a somatic cell of an organism have if its gametes have 28 chromosomes? A. 14 B. 28 C. 56 D. 112
C. 56
98
How many daughter cells will be produced when 3 sperm cells undergo cell division? A. 3 B. 6 C. 9 D. 12
D. 12
99
Which statement is FALSE about meiosis? A. It produces gametes B. It produces diploid cells C. It produces four daughter cells D. It undergoes two rounds of cell division
B. It produces diploid cells
100
Which structure is present during prophase? A. DNA B. Chromatids C. Homologous chromosomes D. Sister chromatids
D. Sister chromatids

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