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MB3 Neurology > Central spine and brain anatomy > Flashcards

Central spine and brain anatomy Flashcards

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1
Q

what type of neurons make up motor neurons

A

multipolar

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2
Q

true/false - multipolar neuron cell bodies are found in the PNS

A

false

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3
Q

what makes a unipolar neuron unique

A

double process - one with dendrites and another with axons

usually transmit sensory information

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4
Q

what is a nerve within the CNS called

A

a tract

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5
Q

true/false - tracts tend to be single/mixed modality

A

single

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6
Q

12 cranial nerves?

A 
olfactory 
optic 
oculomotor 
trochlear 
trigeminal
abducent 
facial
vestibulocochlear 
glossopharyngeal
vagus 
accessory 
hypoglossal
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7
Q

modalities of the 12 cranial nerves

A 
I - S
II - S
III - M
IV - M
V - B
VI - M
VII - B
VIII - S
IX - B
X - B
XI - M
XII - M
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8
Q

origins of the 12 cranial nerves

A 
I - forebrain
II - forebrain
III - midbrain
IV - midbrain
V - pons
VI - pons/medulla
VII - pons/medulla
VIII - pons/medulla
IX - medulla
X - medulla
XI - spinal cord
XII - medulla
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9
Q

describe the exit of sympathetic nerves from the spinal cord

A

thoracolumbar T1-L2
from lateral horns, entering via anterior roots/rootlets and pass into the spinal nerve and then to the anterior rami
then pass to sympathetic trunk

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10
Q

describe the sympathetic innervation course to the heart

A

synapse in T1 or cervical paravertebral ganglia

postsynaptic nerves pass to the heart by cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerves

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11
Q

describe the sympathetic innervation course to the lungs

A

enter upper thoracic paravertebral ganglia, synapse and pass to the cardiopulmonary splanchnic nerves

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12
Q

describe the sympathetic innervation course to the abdominal organs

A

synapse in a prevertebral ganglia after passing out of sympathetic trunk without a synapse

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13
Q

describe the sympathetic innervation course to the renal medulla

A

pass directly through the aorticorenal ganglion and synapses directly onto the adrenal medulla

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14
Q

sympathetic ganglion for the foregut

A

celiac ganglion

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15
Q

sympathetic ganglion for the midgut

A

superior mesenteric ganglion of SM plexus

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16
Q

sympathetic ganglion for the hindgut/pelvis and perineum

A

inferior mesenteric ganglion of the IM plexus

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17
Q

sympathetic ganglion for the kidney

A

aorticorenal ganglion

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18
Q

what cranial nerves are responsible for parasympathetic outflow

A

III, VII, IX, X

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19
Q

what sacral nerves are responsible for parasympathetic outflow

A

S2,3,4

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20
Q

how many pairs of spinal nerves are there

A

31

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21
Q

describe the connection from spinal cord to spinal nerve

A

right/left posterior rootlets become roots and right/left anterior rootlets become roots
converge to become spinal nerve
emerge from intervertebral foramen to split to anterior/posterior ramus

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22
Q

what do anterior rami supply

A

anterolateral body wall

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23
Q

what do posterior rami supply

A

small strip on posterior body wall

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24
Q

describe the path sensory information takes from spinal nerve to spinal cord

A

enters onto posterior root, to posterior rootlet and onto posterior horn of spinal cord

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25
describe the path motor information takes from spinal cord to spinal nerve
travels from anterior horn to anterior rootlets, to anterior root and then to spinal nerve
26
dermatome level for the niipple
T4
27
dermatome level for umbilicus
T10
28
dermatome levels for posterior scalp, neck, shoulder
C2-4
29
dermatome levels for upper limb
C5-T1
30
dermatome levels for lower limb, gluteal region and perineum
L2-Co1
31
describe what would have to happen for full anaesthesia of an area of the chest wall and what would happen if this were not to occur. what is the exception
dermatome level of the affected level, plus one above and one below would need to occur if only one level was knocked out there would only be diminished sensation due to overlapping nerve supply exception being if two levels are next to each other on dermatome map that are not in order of spinal level
32
spinal levels of the cervical plexus and what it supplies
C2-4 | posterior scalp, neck, diaphragm
33
spinal levels of the brachial plexus and what it supplies
C5-T1 | upper limb
34
spinal levels of the lumbar plexus and what it supplies
L1-L4 | lower limb
35
spinal levels of the sacral plexus and what it supplies
L5-S4 | lower limb, gluteal region and perineum
36
true/false - all rami of spinal nerves contribute to nerve plexuses
false - only the anterior rami
37
what are the bony prominences of the back
``` T1 spinous process spine of scapula spinous processes sacrum coccyx iliac crests PSIS ```
38
extrinsic muscles of the back
``` trapezius latissimus dorsi rhomboids levator scapulae teres major ```
39
name of the superficial muscle group of the back and their names
erector spinae iliocostalis longissimus spinalis
40
where does spinalis attach
spinous processes
41
where does longissimus attach
ilium and sacrum to mastoid process and transverse processes
42
where does iliocostalis attach
sacrum and iliac crest to ribs
43
what is the deep intrinsic muscle of the back and where does it attach
between transverse and spinous processes | attaches between vertebrae and skull, vertebrae and ribs, vertebrae to vertebrae and sacrum to vertebrae
44
what is the nervous innervation to the intrinsic muscles of the back
by posterior rami of spinal nerves as per dermatome pattern
45
if erector spinae contract bilaterally then ___ occurs
spinal extension
46
if erector spinae contract unilaterally then ___ occurs
lateral flexion
47
function of erector spinae and transversospinalis
maintenance of posture support to spine movement
48
where does the spinal cord end generally
L1/2
49
what is the end of the spinal cord named
conus medullaris
50
how many vertebrae are there
31
51
function of the vertebral column
support to head and trunk movement of head and trunk protects spinal cord
52
what are the 4 curvatures of the spine? are they primary or secondary?
cervical lordosis - secondary thoracic kyphosis - primary lumbar lordosis - secondary sacral kyphosis - primary
53
what forms the vertebral arch posterior to the vertebral post?
two pedicles, then two laminae
54
true/false - there are two spinous and one transverse process in a vertebra
false - two transverse and one spinous process
55
where are the facet joints located and what type of joint are they
between the superior and inferior articular processes | synovial
56
what are the outer and inner segments of the intervertebral discs known as
annulus fibrosis | nucleus pulposus
57
true/false - there isnt an intervertebral disc between C1/2
true
58
function and location of the ligamentum flavum
posterior to spinal cord and connects adjacent laminae
59
function and location of the posterior longitudinal ligament
prevents over flexion of the spine and anterior to spinal cord
60
function and location of the anterior longitudinal ligament
broad, strong and anterior to vertebral bodies | prevent over extension of the spjne
61
function and location of the supraspinous ligament
connects tips of the spinous processes
62
function and location of the interspinous ligament
connects superior and inferior surfaces of adjacent spinous processes
63
unique features of cervical vertebrae
bifid spinous process triangular vertebral foramen transverse foramen
64
what movements occur at the atlantooccipital joints
mainly flexion and extension iof the neck but also lateral rotation and lateral flexion
65
what is the sacral hiatus
opening at the bottom of the sacral canal ie open end if the vertebral canal
66
to apply an epidural anaesthetic, where is the needle generally entered
L3/4 interspace
67
true/false - in raised ICP you should perform a lumbar puncture to drain excess csf from the subarachnoid space
false - it can lead to brain herniation
68
what layers of fascia does a needle pass through for giving a lumbar puncture
``` skin and fascia supraspinous interspinous ligamentum flavum epidural space dura mater arachnoid mater subarachnoid space ```
69
explain why local anaesthetic is injected in the sacral hiatus to anaesthetise the sacral nerve roots
the dura mater ends at S2 so by injecting here only lower nerve roots would be affected
70
what is a laminectomy and what fascial layers would laminectomy require
surgical removal of the spinous process with its adjacent laminae skin and superficial fascia aponeurotic origin of trapezius, lat dorsi intrinsic back muscles lig flavum, supraspinous, interspinous, lamina and spinous process
71
layers of the scalp
``` skin connective tissue aponeurosis loose connective tissue pericranium ```
72
what blood vessels supply the scalp anastomosis
ECA posterior | lateral artery and ophthalmic artery anterior from ICA
73
what is the pterion and what is its clinical significance
H shape suture formed by frontal, sphenous, parietal and temporal bone susceptible to fracture and middle meningeal artery runs right under it
74
true/false - in the cranial cavity there are two layers of dura
true - a periosteal layer and a meningeal layer
75
what is tentorium cerebelli
dura mater tenting over cerebellum | central gap to allow brainstem through
76
what is the falx cerebri and where does it attach
midline dural fold separating right and left cerebral hemispheres christa gali anteiror internal occipital protuberance posterior internal aspect of sagittal suture
77
describe the venous drainage of the cranial cavity by the dural venous sinuses
superior and inferior sagittal sinus join straight sinus at confluence of sinuses drained by the transverse sinus, draining to the sigmoid sinus and to IJV
78
what is the danger triangle and why is it of clinical significance
top of bridge of nose to lips veins on extenal face drain to deeper sinuses of the face, like cavernous sinus bacterial infection superficially therefore has the capability to spread backwards deep into the cranium
79
what arteries supply the head with blood
vertebral and carotid
80
describe the circle of willis
right and left vertebral artery form the basillar small branches of basillar supply cerebellum braches off to posterior cerebral arteries anastomoses with middle cerebral artery by posterior communicating arteries anastomoses with anterior cerebral artery, connected to each other by anterior communicating artery
81
in terms of the layers of the brain, where would you find the circle of willis
subarachnoid space
82
where would you find an epidural haemorrhage
between bone and dura
83
where would you find a subdural haemorrhage
between dura and arachnoid
84
what is cingulate herniation of the brain
passes under falx cerebri
85
what is uncal herniation of the brain
uncus on temporal lobe herniates inferior to tentorium cerebelli
86
what is central herniation of the brain
supratentorial parts herniate inferior to tentorium cerebelli
87
what is transcalvarial herniation of the brain
through skull
88
what is infratentorial herniation of the brain
cerebellar tonsils hernaite into foramen magnum

MB3 Neurology (19 decks)

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