Certmaster practice questions Flashcards
5
A multinational company has partnered with several smaller, younger companies. To protect their supply chain and improve their own risk posture, the company offers to provide network security services for their new partners. Conclude what type of risk the company is addressing.
External
Legacy systems
Multiparty
Internal
Multiparty
Multiparty risk occurs when an adverse event impacts multiple organizations. If a breach occurs for one party, all parties share the risk.
1
A vulnerability database loaded on a scanning tool such as Tenable Nessus will commonly show which of the following properties?
Select all that apply.
Score
Dictionary
Security data inputs
Packet data
Score
Dictionary
Score-Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) is maintained by the Forum of Incident Response and Security Teams (first.org/cvss). Scores range from 0 (low) to 9+ (critical).
Dictionary-Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE) is a dictionary of vulnerabilities in published operating systems and applications software provided by cve.mitre.org. It includes CVE ID, brief descriptions, a URL reference list, and data of entry.
3
A company provides smartphones to their employees. IT administrators have the ability to deploy, secure, and remove specific applications and data from the employees’ smartphones. Analyze the selections and determine how IT can perform this type of control.
Push notifications
Content management
Baseband update
Storage segmentation
Storage segmentation
Storage segmentation is personal data segmented from organizational data on a mobile device. It gives IT administrators control over corporate assets on employees’ mobile devices.
1
Experts at a scientific facility suspect that operatives from another government entity have planted malware and are spying on one of their top-secret systems. Based on the attacker’s location and likely goals, which attacker type is likely responsible?
Hacktivists
Script kiddies
State actors
Criminal syndicates
State actors
State actors have been implicated in many attacks, particularly on energy and health network systems. They typically work at arm’s length from the national government that sponsors and protects them, maintaining “plausible deniability.” A criminal syndicate can operate across the internet from different jurisdictions than its victim, increasing the complexity of prosecution. Syndicates will seek any opportunity for criminal profit, but typical activities are financial fraud. A script kiddie is someone who uses hacker tools without necessarily understanding how they work or having the ability to craft new attacks. Hacktivists might attempt to obtain and release confidential information to the public domain, perform denial of service (DoS) attacks, or deface websites.
1
What would be the highest concern for an e-commerce company whose top priority is to ensure customers can shop online 24/7?
Increase of data breaches
Loss of reputation
Loss of availability
Increase of fines
Loss of availability
Availability loss in this case is losing redundancy in applications and servers that host and run the e-commerce website. Service availability is important to an e-commerce company that advertises 24/7 services.
1
Today’s hackers are keen on knowing that security teams are actively hunting for threats on the network. Hackers may use resources to trigger a diversion to keep threat hunters busy, while another attack is initiated to carry out the primary objective of the planned penetration attack. How can a security team best circumvent this strategic hacking technique?
Monitor threat feeds from ISACs.
Review security advisories.
Apply intelligence fusion techniques.
Use a defensive maneuver.
Use a defensive maneuver.
A defense maneuver uses passive discovery techniques so that threat actors do not know they have been discovered. This gives the security team a chance to investigate the source of the attack and plan a resolution before the threat moves on to the next objective.
5
A severe tropical storm devastates an island where a small company stores data. Which disaster types have impacted the company?
Select all that apply
External
Internal
Environmental
Person-made
External
Environmental
An environmental or natural disaster is one that could not be prevented through human agency. Environmental disasters include floods, earthquakes, storms, or disease.
External disaster events are caused by threat actors who have no privileged access and includes disasters that have an impact on the organization through wider environmental or social impacts.
2
A cardiovascular patient is sent home with a monitoring device that records and sends data to a healthcare provider when triggered by abnormal cardiac activity. Response time to the data is critical to patient health. Which embedded platform is the medical device using?
Real-time
Standalone
Distributed
Networked
Real-time
A real-time operating system (RTOS) is in an embedded system intended to serve real-time applications that process data as it comes in. It provides a quicker reaction to external events than a typical operating system.
3
A network administrator can conduct a site survey to find potential placement locations of wireless access points (WAP) using which of the following?
Select all that apply
Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS)
Wi-Fi analyzer
Wireless controller
Heat map
Wi-Fi analyzer
Heat map
A Wi-Fi analyzer is software on a laptop or mobile device with a wireless network adapter. Information about the signal is obtained at regularly spaced points as the surveyor moves around.
A heat map is a visual of the information gathered from a Wi-Fi analyzer. It can show where a signal is strong (red) or weak (green/blue), and which channel is being used.
5
An employee at a financial firm is responsible for ensuring that data is stored in accordance with applicable laws and regulations. What role does the employee have in terms of data governance?
Data steward
Data processor
Data owner
Data custodian
Data steward
The data steward is primarily responsible for data quality. This involves tasks such as ensuring data is labeled and identified with appropriate metadata, as well as ensuring the data is collected and stored in a format containing values that comply with applicable laws and regulations.
3
A small company has set up the domain environment to prevent the installation of a list of prohibited software. Employees received this same list via email. What type of method prevents the installation of specific software on workstations?
Whitelisting
Blacklisting
Anti-malware
Application hardening
Blacklisting
Execution control, to prevent the use of unauthorized software, can be implemented as a blacklist. This control means that anything not on the prohibited blacklist can run.
3
Which certificate attribute describes the computer or machine it belongs to?
Select all that apply
Certificate authority name
Common name
Company name
Subject alternate name
Common name
Subject alternate name
The common name (CN) attribute identifies the computer or machine by name, usually a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), such as www.comptia.org.
The subject alternative name (SAN) extension field is structured to represent different types of identifiers, including domain names. This is more commonly used as the CN attribute has been deprecated.
3
Evaluate and select the differences between WPA and WPA2.
Select all that apply
WPA2 supports an encryption algorithm based on the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) rather than the version of RC4 “patched” with the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP).
WPA2 is a security protocol developed by the Wi-Fi Alliance for use in securing wireless networks.
WPA2 is much more secure than WEP, where WPA is not.
WPA2 requires entering a longer password than WPA.
WPA2 supports an encryption algorithm based on the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) rather than the version of RC4 “patched” with the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP).
WPA2 requires entering a longer password than WPA.
WPA2 supports an encryption algorithm based on the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES) rather than the version of RC4 “patched” with the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP).
WPA and WPA2 are both much more secure than WEP (wired equivalent privacy).
3
IT management wants to make it easier for users to request certificates for their devices and web services. The company has multiple intermediate certificate authorities spread out to support multiple geographic locations. In a full chain of trust, which entity would be able to handle processing certificate requests and verifying requester identity?
OCSP
RA
CA
CSR
RA
A Registration Authority (RA) is a function of certificate enrollment and its services would be combined with a Certificate Authority (CA) in a single CA hierarchy. An RA is responsible for validating and submitting a request on behalf of end users.
1
IT discovers a flaw in a web application where it allows queries without encryption. As a result, requests are being spoofed and directories containing private files are viewable. What is happening?
Structured Query Language (SQL) injection
Dynamic Link Library (DLL) injection
Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) injection
Extensible Markup Language (XML) injection
Extensible Markup Language (XML) injection
Extensible Markup Language (XML) can be used for data exchange. Without encryption, it is vulnerable to spoofing, request forgery, and injection of arbitrary code. For example, an XML External Entity (XXE) attack embeds a request for a local resource.
2
A test team performs an in-depth review of completed code and analyzes its compatibility with the environment it will be deployed to. Which of the following environments is the test occurring in?
Development
Test
Staging
Production
Staging
A staging environment mimics that of a production environment. It is used for dynamic analysis of an application in a complete but separate production-like environment.
2
A consumer uses a Samsung SmartThings coordinator to turn on lights in the home and start the dishwasher. Which communications protocol is the hub using?
Baseband
Bluetooth
Narrowband
Zigbee
Zigbee
Zigbee is a two-way wireless radio frequency communication between a sensor and a control system. It is an Institute of Electrical and Electronics Engineers (IEEE) 802.15.4-based specification for communication protocols and is used for home automation.
3
A company stages its computing power in a centralized environment. All workstations run off of one desktop hosted in the data center. When the admin makes changes at individual workstations, the changes only get saved locally, until a user signs off, and the system then reverts back to the previous state. What technology does this represent?
Type 1 hypervisor
Persistent VDE
Snapshot
Non-persistent VDE
Non-persistent VDE
Non-persistent Virtual Desktop Environments (VDE) utilizes a central desktop through a remote server. When a user accesses logs on to the desktop, changes and work completed are not saved locally long term. As soon as the user logs off, the desktop reverts back to the image on the central location.
2
A logistics facility provides transportation services globally for many clients. Clients require their planning information to be kept in a secure environment not connected to a network until the needs have been fulfilled. Which of the following solutions would be the most ideal method of meeting this requirement for the company?
Air gap
Faraday cage
Container
Mantrap
Air gap
An air gap is a host that is not physically connected to any network. Air gaps are secure areas that protect resources against unauthorized users and spillage of information.
2
A systems administrator plans to protect a data center with various security controls and safety mechanisms. Which solution does the administrator plan based on a “triangle” principle?
Noise detection
Industrial camouflage
Motion detection
Fire suppression
Fire suppression
The fire triangle works on the principle that fire requires heat, oxygen, and fuel to ignite and burn. Removing any one of those elements provides fire suppression.
4
List methods of containment based on the concept of segmentation.
Select all that apply
Honeynet
Sandboxing
Blackhole
Sinkhole
Honeynet
Sinkhole
Sinkhole routing means suspicious traffic that is flooding a specific IP address, routes to another network for analysis. Sinkhole routing is a form of segmentation because it maintains the connection to other networks.
A honeynet is a segmented network composed entirely of honeypots. A honeypot is a decoy node intended to draw the attention of threat actors, to trick them into revealing their presence and potentially more information.
4
A Security Information Event System (SIEM) parses network traffic and log data from multiple sensors, appliances, and hosts to implement correlation rules on metrics derived from data sources. SIEM assists the systems admin to detect events that may be potential incidents. Define the term for notifications passed upon detection of a potential incident.
Correlation
Sensitivity
Alerts
Trends
Alerts
SIEM dashboards are one of the main sources of automated alerts. The event is listed on a dashboard or incident handling system for an agent to assess. Then, the SIEM dashboard will automatically notify the staff in charge of security.
2
In which environment can multiple developers check out software code and include change management processes?
Production
Test
Development
Staging
Development
A development environment is where developers create a product. Developers check out code for editing or updating. Version control and change management occur in the development environment to track development.
4
Identify types of metadata that would be associated with CDR (call detail records) of mobile devices
Select all that apply
List of towers connected to
Call durations
SMS text timestamps
GPS location data
Call durations
SMS text timestamps
GPS location data
Call detail records (CDR) routinely contain times and durations of incoming, outgoing, and attempted calls, as well as the phone numbers of said calls.
By examining the** list of towers **a device has connected to in the call detail records (CDR), it is possible to ascertain the general vicinity of locations in which the device has been present.
SMS text time, duration, and phone number of origin are recorded in the call detail records (CDR) metadata associated with mobile devices.