cfii Flashcards

1
Q

When is a Instrument rating required?

A
  • When acting as PIC under IFR weather conditions less than prescribed for VFR.(61.3)
    -When carrying passengers for compensation or hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50nm or at night (61.133)
    -For flight in class A airspace
    -For special VFR between sunset and sunrise (91.157)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are currency requirements for acting as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than VFR minimums?

A

66 HITS
-In the proceeding 6 calendar months
-6 Instrument approaches
-Holding procedures and tasks
-Intercepting
-Tracking through the use of Navigation systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can you log a instrument approach?

A

-Must operate aircraft by solely reference to instruments.
-Pilots must execute the entire IAP commencing at a Initial approach fix or associated feeder route and fly the initial segment, intermediate segment and final segment.
- However the pilot may receive actual or simulated radar vectors to the final approach course.
-If using simulated IMC, must continue whole approach down to the MDA, DA or DH
- If in IMC must continue down past the FAF, or use a view limiting device.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what do you need for the next 6 months if you are not current for IFR?

A

you have a additional 6 months to regain currency by performing 66 hits with a safety pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what do you need if it is more than 6 months from currency?

A

-A Instrument Procedure check (IPC) is required, administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved person
-Guidelines are in the ACS
-Some IPC tasks, but not all, can be conducted in a FTD or ATD (see ACS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How do you log a IAP for recency?

A

-Location and Type of each instrument approach
-The name of the safety pilot, if required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the requirements to be a safety pilot?

A

-Holds at least a private pilot certificate with the appropriate category and class
-Holds a medical
-Dual flight controls
-Must log name of safety pilot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Decision making (DECIDE)

A

D- Detect, that a change has occurred
E-Estimate, the need to counter
C-Choose and desirable outcome
I-Identify solutions
D-Do the necessary actions
E-Evaluate the effects of the actions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Preflight info required for IFR?

A

NWKRAFT (91.103)
N- Notams
W- Weather reports and forecasts
K- Known traffic delays as advised by ATC
R- Runway lengths of intended use
F- Fuel requirements
T- Take off and landing performance data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

IFR Minimum fuel requirements?

A

-Fuel from departure to destination airport + Fuel from destination to most distant alternate (if alternate is required) + 45 minutes calculated at normal cruise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How do you know if you need a alternate?

A

1-2-3 Rule
A destination alternate is always required, unless
- an instrument approach is published and available for the destination, and
- for at least 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA:
-ceilings will be at least 200ft above the airport and
-visibility will be at least 3sm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Min WX conditions required at an airport to list it as an alternate?

A

-For a precision approach
-600ft ceilings and 2sm visibility
-For a non precision approach
-800ft ceilings and 2sm visibility
-If no instrument approach available at the alternate
ceiling and visibility must allow descent from MEA, approach and landing under VFR.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

IFR takeoff Minimums?

A

(91.175)
No takeoff minimums mandated for part 91
-Part 121,125,129, and 135:
prescribed take off minimums for the runway, or if none:
-1-2 engines airplanes: 1sm Visibility
-More than 2 engines: 1/2sm visibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is a departure procedure? (DP)

A

-Ensures obstacle clearance , provided:
-the airplane crossed the departure end of the runway at least 35ft AGL
-reaches 400ft all before turning, and
-climbs at least 200ft Per/NM or as published otherwise on the chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how do you calculate FPM from FPNM?

A

FPM = FPNM X Groundspeed / 60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

when are pilots encouraged to file a DP?

A

at night, during marginal VMC or IMC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 2 types of DPs?

A

Obstacle departure procedure (ODP)
-provides only obstacle clearance
-printed either textually or graphically
-graphic ODPs are titled “(Obstacle)”
Standard Instrument Departure (SID)
-in addition to obstacle clearance it reduces pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC Clearance and minimizing radio communications
-may depict special radio failure procedures
-Sids are always printed graphically

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

are you required to accept a DP?

A

No you are not, to avoid it state “NO SIDs” in the flight plans remarks sections.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a VCOA?

A

Visual Climb Over Airport
-A departure option for IFR aircraft in VMC
-The pilot visually conducts turns over the airport up to the published “climb to” altitude
-Advise ATC as early as possible prior to departure of the intent to fly a VCOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a STAR?

A

Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)
-Serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made
-Transition routes connect enroute fixes to the basic STAR procedure
-Can state “NO STARS” in remarks section of flight plan to avoid it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the minimum IFR Altitudes?

A

91.177
-Except for take off or landing, or otherwise authorized by the FAA, no person may operate an aircraft under IFR below-
-Minimum altitudes prescribed for the flown segment or if none-
-Mountainous areas: 2000ft above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of 4NM from the course
-Non-Mountainous areas: 1000ft above the highest obstacle within a 4NM from the course

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

MCA?

A

Minimum Crossing altitude- the lowest altitude at certain fixes that an airplane must cross when flying in the direction of a higher MEA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

MOCA?

A

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude- provides obstacle clearance and navigation coverage up to 22NM of the VOR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

MORA?

A

Minimum Off Route Altitude- Provides obstruction clearance within 10nm to either side of the airway centerlines and within a 10nm radius at the ends of the airways

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
MRA?
Minimum Reception Altitudes- The lowest altitude on an airway segment where intersection can be determined using radio navigational aids
26
OROCA?
Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude- Provides obstruction clearance with a 1000 ft buffer in non-mountainous terrain areas and 2000 ft buffer in mountainous terrain areas
27
what are the types of altitudes? (5)
Indicated- Indicated on altimeter Pressure- Altitude above standard datum plane Density- Pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature True- MSL Absolute- AGL
28
what are the types of airspeeds?
Indicated- indicated on the airspeed indicator Calibrated- IAS corrected for instrument and position errors True- actual speed through the air Groundspeed- actual speed over the ground
29
Static port blockage for airspeed indicator?
Indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude -Higher Altitudes- airspeed indicates lower than it should be -Lower Altitudes- Indicates higher than it should be When using alternate static it indicates faster than it should
30
Static port blockage for altimeter?
Will freeze on the altitude where it was block when using alternate static source it indicates higher than it should
31
Static port blockage for VSI?
Freezes on zero when using alternate static source it will momentarily show a climb
32
Pitot Tube Blockage?
The only Instrument affected is the airspeed indicator -Ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open? Airspeed drops to zero -Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged? The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter -When suspecting a blockage use pitot heat to melt away and ice
33
Magnetic Compass Errors?
VDMONA V-Variation- Difference between true north and magnetic north (east his least west is best) D- Deviation- Aircraft instruments disrupt (deviation card) M- Magnetic Dip- the tendency of a magnet to align with the Earth's magnetic field lines, causing the north end of a compass needle to dip down in the northern hemisphere (positive dip) and up in the southern hemisphere (negative dip). O-Oscillations- Airplanes movement and vibrations N- North south turn errors (UNOS) A- Acceleration errors (ANDS)
34
IFR Required equipment?
GRABCARD G-Generator/ Alternator R-2 way radios A-Altimeter with kolsman window B-Ball (Slip skid indicator) C- Clock- Shows hours, miniutes, and seconds, installed in the aircraft A- Attitude indicator R- Rate of turn indicator D- Directional Gyro (heading indicator)
35
what is the VOR frequency range?
108.0 to 117.95, excluding 108.10-111.95 (reserved for LOC frequencies)
36
how many degrees is a full scale deflection for a VOR?
10 degrees
37
How to identify if the VOR is operable and correct?
Morse code
38
What is a VOR MON
Minimum Operational Network: program ensures that as old VORS are decommissioned, a MON Airport is available within 100NM regardless of aircraft position in the CONUS
39
When do you need to perform a VOR check?
Every 30 Days
40
What are the different VOR Checks?
VOT- +-4 Repair Station +-4 VOR ground checkpoint +-4 VOR airborne checkpoint +-6 Dual VOR crosscheck +-4 Airborne check within 20nm +-6
41
VOR check Sign off?
DEPS D-Date E-Error P-Place S-Signature
42
VOR limitations?
Cone of confusions Reverse Sensing Requires line of sight
43
What is the dimension of a LOC?
35 degrees for 10NM then 10 Degrees for another 8NM
44
What are the different Marker beacons?
Outer Marker Middle Marker Inner Marker Back Course Marker
45
Details of a Outer Marker?
4-7 miles out Indicates when the aircraft should intercept glide slope Blue "- - -"
46
Details of a Middle Marker?
-3500ft from runway GS meets the decision height Amber color ".- .-"
47
Details of a inner marker?
Indicates where the GS meets the DH on a Cat II ILS approach White ". . ."
48
Details of a Back Course marker?
Indicates FAF on back course approaches White ".. .."
49
what position does 3 satellites get you?
3 satellites are required for 2D position
50
what position does 4 satellites get you?
4 Satellites are required for 3D position
51
What is RAIM?
Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring- is a function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals -RAIM (fault detection) requires a minimum of 5 Satellites or 4 + an altimeter input -To eliminate a corrupt satellite ( fault exclusion) rain needs a additional satellite (total of 6 or 5 with baro-aid)
52
How many Satellites do you need for each thing and RAIM?
3-2D 4-3D, or RAIM FD if has BARO-AID 5-RAIM FD, or RAIM FE if has BARO-AID 6-RAIM FE
53
What is WAAS?
Wide Area Augmentation System Ground Stations (wide area reference and wide area master stations) measure GPS errors and produce correction signals -Covers a wide area
54
What is GBAS?
Ground Based Augmentation System -Errors are broadcasted via VHF to GBAS-enabled GPS receivers -GBAS is more accurate than WAAS but covers a much smaller geographical area -Allows for category I and above approaches to GLS DA minimums
55
What is RNP?
Required Navigation Performance US Approaches with RNAV (RNP) in the title are AR (Authorization Required) approaches, which require special FAA approval for the crew, aircraft, and operation.
56
Basic attitude instrument flying skills?
-Cross check -Instrument interpretation -Aircraft Control
57
Common Scanning errors?
Fixation omission emphasis
58
What is the Control and Performance Method?
Divides the cockpit panel by control instruments and performance instruments. -First, set the power and attitude, then monitor the performance and make adjustments Control Instruments -Power- Tach -Attitude- Attitude indicator Performance Instruments -Pitch: Altimeter, Airspeed,VSI -Bank: Heading indicator, turn indicator, and magnetic compass
59
What is the Primary and Supporting Method?
Divides the cockpit panel by pitch, bank, and power instruments Pitch Instruments- Attitude indicator, altimeter, Airspeed indicator, and VSI Bank Instruments- Attitude indicator, heading indicator, turn coordinator, and mag compass Power Instruments- Airspeed, tachometer, manifold pressure
60
Required Reports Under IFR? (Marvelous VFR 500)
Marvelous VFR 500 M-Missed approach A-airspeed +- 10kts / 5% change of files TAS (whichever is greater) R- Reaching a holding fix (report time and altitude) V- VFR on top- when a altitude change will be made E-ETA changed +- 2Min, or +-3min in North Atlantic L-Leaving a holding fix/point O-Outer marker (or fix) U-Unforcasted weather (91.183) S-Safety of flight V-Vacating a altitude / FL F-Final Approach Fix R- Radio/nav/approach equipment failure C-Compulsory reporting points 500- unable climb descent 500 FPM
61
Holding pattern timing?
-At or below 14,000 MSL- 1 min -Above 14,000 MSL- 1.5 min
62
What are the holding speeds?
-6000 or below- 200kts -6001-14,000- 230kts -14,001 and above- 265kts Airfare fields 310kts navy fields 230kts
63
Lost Communication procedure for altitude to fly?
MEA The highest of: M- MEA E- Expected A- Assigned *highest for the route segment flown
64
Lost communication procedure for route to fly?
AVEF Select route by this order A- Assigned route V-Vectored (Fly to fix, route,airway last vectored to) E- last expected route F-Filed route
65
what are the components of GPS?
Space Control User
66
what does the space element of GPS consist of?
Consists of 32 satellites
67
what does the control element of GPS consist of?
1 Master control station 6 monitoring stations 3 ground antennas ensures accuracy of satellite positions and their clocks
68
what does the user element of GPS consist of?
antennas and receivers/processors onboard the aircraft that provide positioning
69
70
What are the 3 components to a ILS?
Guidance Range Visual
71
What does the Guidance component of a ILS consist of?
Localizer Glide slope
72
What does the range component of the ILS consist of?
Marker beacons Or DME
73
What is the visual component of the ILS?
Approach lighting system Runway markings