Ch 20 Part 1 Flashcards

(71 cards)

1
Q

Osteonecrosis

A

bone death; avascular necrosis due to trauma

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2
Q

Osteomyelitis

A

bone marrow infection

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3
Q

Dysostosis

A

developmental anomaly of bone

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4
Q

Homeobox gene

A

structural development during embryonic development (tends to be regionalized)

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5
Q

Klippel-Feil Syndrome

A

Failure of cervical vertebrae to develop into 7 vertebrae

idiopathic congential fusion of any two cervical vertebrae

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6
Q

What is the name of the deformity that is often associated with Klippel-Feil Syndrome?

A

Sprengel’s deformtity

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7
Q

What is sprengel’s deformity?

A

fusion of scapula to the transverse process

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8
Q

What are some other associated findings with dysostosis?

A

Aplasia, supernumerary digits, and abnormal fusion of bones

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9
Q

What is aplasia?

A

absent or incomplete development with abnormal function

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10
Q

In association with dysostosis, where does abnormal fusion of bones usually occur?

A

usually in the digits

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11
Q

Dysplasia

A

mutations interfere with growth or homestasis (dwarfism)

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12
Q

Dysplasia of bone is termed?

A

osteodysplasia

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13
Q

Dysplasia of cartilage is termed?

A

chondrodysplasia

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14
Q

Osteogenesis Imperfecta is also called

A

Brittle bone disease

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15
Q

What type of collagen is mutated by Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Type I

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16
Q

What chains of type I collagen are mutated in Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

Alpha 1 and Alpha 2 chains

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17
Q

What happens to the abnormal collagen suffering from Osteogensis Imperfecta?

A

it leads to premature breakdown

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18
Q

Is Osteogenesis Imperfecta autosomal recessive or dominant?

A

autosomal dominant

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19
Q

What structres are typically affected by Osteogenesis Imperfecta?

A

bones, eyes, teeth, inner ear bones (often leads to deafness), skin, and joints

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20
Q

What type of Osetogenesis Imperfecta is lethal in utero?

A

Type II

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21
Q

When is Type I Osteogenesis Imperfecta diagnosed?

A

in childhood

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22
Q

What are some common features associated with Type I O.I.?

A

fractures, etremeity bowing, scoliosis, ligamentous laxity, hearing loss, short stature

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23
Q

What is Zebra Stripe Sign?

A

it is associated with children who have Type I O.I. who have been treated with bisphosphonates and appears on X-ray in a zebra stripe fashion

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24
Q

What is the most common form of dwarfism?

A

Achondroplasia

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25
A decrease in growth plate expansion is referred to as
Achondroplasia
26
What mutation leads to achondroplasia?
Fibroblast growth factor receptor (FGFR3)
27
What does the mutation of FGFR3 cause?
decreased cartilage synthesis and inhibited epiphyseal chondrocytes
28
About what percentage of Achondroplasia is caused by an autosomal dominant mutation of FGFR3?
25%
29
List some physical features associated with achondroplasia
short proxial extremities, lower extremity bowing, frontal bossing, midface hypoplasia
30
To be considered a dwarf, you must be this height or shorter?
4'10" (147cm)
31
Describe the spinal features of Achondroplasia
bullet vertebrae, hyperlordosis or kyphosis at birth, scoliosis, and spinal stenosis
32
What parts of the vertebral column become stenotic with achondroplasia?
foramen magnum and spinal canal
33
What can spinal stenosis of achondroplasia lead to?
possible brain compression or cardiovascular abnormalities (may be lethal)
34
Describe Thanatophoric dwarfism?
Fatal: extremely small thorax and short long bones perinatal respiratory failure
35
What else can OsteoPETROSIS be called?
marble bone disease or Albers-Schonberg disease
36
What is the main identifier of Osteopetrosis?
decreased osteoclast-mediated bone resoprtion In other words, excessive over-mineralization of bone leads to brittleness
37
What is the other main feature of osteopetrosis?
skeletal sclerosis ("stone-like" bone) which leads to increases in fractures
38
Foraminal stenosis of ostepetrosis can lead to?
cranial nerve palsies
39
What does the medullary cavity fill with in osteopetrosis?
deranged hematopoiesis
40
What can deranged hematopoiesis of osteopetrosis lead to?
hepatosplenomegaly, recurrent infections, and anemia
41
What is the treatment for osteopetrosis?
stem cell replacement
42
List some typical X-ray features associated with osteopetrosis?
bright white appearance due to overly dense bone, lacking medulla in long bones, and Erlenmeyer flask deformity
43
What do fractures of osteopetrosis look like on X-ray?
"chalk-stick fracture"
44
What type of bone is most impacted by osteoporosis?
trabecular bone (cancelous spongy)
45
What are some common bones affected by osteoporosis?
vertebral bodies, femoral neck, calcaneus
46
A decrease in bone density leads to an increase in
porosity
47
What T-score determines a major fracture risk?
2.5 SD and above
48
What is primary Senile osteoporosis?
age-related osteoporosis
49
What is the other form of primary osteoporsis?
Postmenopausal
50
A decrease in growth factor equals a decrease in osteoblast ativity, with normal osteoclast activity describes what?
Senile osteoporosis
51
Around what age does bone loss of .5% each year begin?
mid 20's
52
A decrease in estrogens accelerating bone loss describes
Postmenopausal osteoporosis
53
What are the three factors that determine peak bone mass?
physical activity, genetic factors, and nutrition
54
Describe how one may maximize bone desnity in young adulthood.
Diet, regular exercise (resistance training, athletics), Ca+ and Vit. D supplementation
55
List some common risk factors for osteoporosis
Increased age, sedentary lifestyle, family history, malnutrition, and malsbsorption
56
What are some common fractures typically associated with osteoporosis?
vertebral compression fractures,and femoral neck fractures
57
A vertebral compression fracture as a result from osteoporosis in the thoracolumbar region leaves one at risk for
pneumonia
58
A femoral neck fracture as a result of osteoporosis leaves one at risk for
pulmonary emboli
59
What is the preferred method for diagnosing osteoporosis?
DEXA scan, or bone density scan
60
What is the required bone percentage loss to have osteoporosis?
30-40% bone loss
61
List some ways one can prevent osteoporosis
physical activity prior to age 30, Ca+ and Vit. D supplementation, and pharmacological agents
62
Bone in Paget's Disease appears to have a _____ appearance
"shaggy"
63
In short, describe how Paget's disease affects bone
regional osteoclast activity excessive bone formation which leads to disorganized lamellar bone with greater bone mass, but is weakened
64
How is Paget's disease diagnosed?
serum testing to determine if alkaline phosphatase levels are eleavted (byproduct of osteoblast activity)
65
Bone in Paget's disease is said to be in this pattern
mosaic or "jigsaw" pattern
66
In Idiopathic Paget's disease, what antigens are attached on osteoclasts?
Paramyxoviridae
67
What percentage of Idiopathic Paget's diease is asymptomatic?
70-90%
68
How is Idiopathic Paget's Disease diagnosed?
through incidental X-ray findings
69
What is the MC (most common) feature of Idiotpathic Paget's disease?
neck and back pain
70
What is an "ivory vertebra sign"?
On x-ray findings a vertebral body appears very white in comparison to the others
71
What three ailments is an "ivory vertebra sign" indicative of?
Paget's disease, metastatic cancer, and lymphoma