Ch 300: Deep Venous Thrombosis and Pulmonary Thromboembolism Flashcards

(40 cards)

1
Q

The two most common autosomal dominant genetic mutations are ______ _ ______, which causes resistance to the endogenous anticoagulant, activated protein C (which inactivates clotting factors V and VIII), and the ___________ ____ ________, which increases the plasma prothrombin concentration.

A

factor V Leiden

prothrombin gene mutation

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2
Q

What is the most common acquired cause of thrombophilia?

A

Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome

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3
Q

Virchow’s triad consist of…

A

…inflammation, hypercoagulability, and endothelial injury.

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4
Q

What 3 substances are naturally occurring coagulation inhibitors?

A

Antithrombin, protein C, and protein S

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5
Q

Paradoxically, these thrombi in the heart occasionally embolize to the arterial circulation through a…

A

…patent foramen ovale or atrial septal defect.

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6
Q

In the patient with a PE, physiologic dead space increases because…

A

…ventilation to gas exchange units exceeds venous blood flow through the pulmonary capillaries.

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7
Q

Leg DVT is about __ times more common than upper extremity DVT,

A

10

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8
Q

Low-risk PE constitutes about what % of cases?

A

70 - 75%

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9
Q

Lower extremity DVT usually begins…

and propagates…

A

…in the calf

…proximally to the popliteal vein, femoral vein, and iliac veins.

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10
Q

Superficial venous thrombosis usually presents with…

A

…erythema, tenderness, and a “palpable cord.”

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11
Q

Patients with a low-to-moderate likelihood of DVT or PE should undergo initial diagnostic evaluation with…

A

…d-dimer testing alone without obligatory imaging tests.

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12
Q

However, for patients with a high clinical likelihood of VTE…

A

…skip d-dimer testing and undergo imaging as the next step in the diagnostic algorithm.

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13
Q

Not all leg pain is due to DVT. Sudden, severe calf discomfort suggests a…

A

…ruptured Baker’s cyst.

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14
Q

Pulmonary infarction usually indicates a small PE. This condition is exquisitely painful because…

A

…the thrombus lodges peripherally, near the innervation of pleural nerves.

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15
Q

What rare type of embolisms can occur after total hip or knee replacement?

A

Cement embolism and bony fragment embolism

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16
Q

Which clotting factors does activated protein C inactivate?

A

Factors V and VIII

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17
Q

RV wall tension also compresses the right coronary artery, limits myocardial oxygen supply, and precipitates…

A

…right coronary artery ischemia and RV microinfarction, with release of cardiac biomarkers such as troponin.

18
Q

The quantitative plasma d-dimer enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) rises in the presence of DVT or PE because…

A

…of the breakdown of fibrin by plasmin.

19
Q

D-dimer rarely has a useful role among hospitalized patients, because levels are…

A

…frequently elevated due to systemic illness.

20
Q

The most frequently cited abnormality, in addition to sinus tachycardia, is the S1Q3T3 sign: __ _ ____ in lead _, _ _ ____ in lead ___, and __ ________ _ ____ in lead ___. This finding is relatively specific but insensitive. RV strain and ischemia cause the most common abnormality, ______ _________ in leads __ to __.

A

an S wave in lead I
a Q wave in lead III
an inverted T wave in lead III
T-wave inversion in lead V1 to V4

21
Q

What is Westermark’s sign?

A

focal oligemia – radiographic sign of PE

22
Q

What is Hampton’s hump?

A

a peripheral wedged-shaped density above the diaphragm – radiographic sign of PE

23
Q

What is Palla’s sign?

A

an enlarged right descending pulmonary artery – radiographic sign of PE

24
Q

RV enlargement on chest CT indicates an increased likelihood of death within the next…

A

…30 days compared with PE patients who have normal RV size.

25
A high-probability scan for PE is defined as...
...two or more segmental perfusion defects in the presence of normal ventilation.
26
_____ ____ ________ of patients with angiographically confirmed PE have a high probability V/Q scan.
Fewer than one-half
27
The best-known indirect sign of PE on transthoracic echocardiography is __________ sign: hypokinesis of the RV free wall with....
McConnell’s | normal or hyperkinetic motion of the RV apex.
28
Anticoagulation or placement of an inferior vena caval filter constitutes _________ prevention of VTE.
secondary
29
When RV function remains normal in a hemodynamically stable patient with PE, a good clinical outcome is highly likely with...
....anticoagulation alone.
30
What is one benefit of fondaparinux?
It does not cause heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
31
Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist that prevents carboxylation activation of what coagulation factors?
II, VII, IX, and X
32
___________, a factor Xa inhibitor, is approved for treatment of acute DVT and acute PE as monotherapy, without a parenteral “bridging” anticoagulant.
Rivaroxaban
33
There is no specific ________ _____ for bleeding caused by fondaparinux, direct thrombin inhibitors, or factor Xa inhibitors.
reversal agent
34
Major bleeding from warfarin is best managed with ___________ _______ ___________. With serious but non–life-threatening bleeding, _____-______ ______ or ___________ _______ _ can be used.
prothrombin complex concentrate fresh-frozen plasma or intravenous vitamin K
35
What is the minimum duration of anticoagulation for patients with one episode of DVT?
3 months
36
The two principal indications for insertion of an IVC filter are:
(1) active bleeding that precludes anticoagulation | (2) recurrent venous thrombosis despite intensive anticoagulation
37
For patients with massive PE and hypotension, replete volume with ___ __ of ______ ______. Additional fluid should be infused with extreme caution because excessive fluid administration exacerbates __ ____ ______, causes more profound RV ischemia, and worsens LV compliance and filling by causing further interventricular septal shift toward the LV.
500 mL; normal saline | RV wall stress
38
________ and __________ are first-line inotropic agents for treatment of PE-related shock.
dopamine and dobutamine
39
The preferred fibrinolytic regimen is 100 mg of recombinant ___ administered as a continuous peripheral intravenous infusion over _ _____. The sooner thrombolysis is administered, the more effective it is. However, this approach can be used for at least __ days after the PE has occurred.
tPA (tissue plasminogen activator) 2 hours 14
40
Chronic thromboembolic pulmonary hypertension develops in _ - _% of acute PE patients. Therefore, PE patients who have initial pulmonary hypertension (usually diagnosed with Doppler echocardiography) should be followed up at about _ weeks with a repeat echocardiogram to determine whether pulmonary arterial pressure has normalized.
2 - 4% | 6