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Ob/gyn > Ch. 35,36,38 > Flashcards

Ch. 35,36,38 Flashcards

1
Q

In the four-chamber view at 18 weeks of gestation, the ventricles should each measure approximately _______ millimeters (mm).

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

A

c. 6

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2
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities is communication between the right and left atrium that persists after birth?

a. Patent ductus arteriosus
b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Persistent ductus venosus
d. Atrial septal defect

A

d. Atrial septal defect

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3
Q

Which one of the following structures forms in the wall of the sinus venosus near its opening into the right atrium?

a. Sinoatrial node
b. Atrioventricular node
c. Purkinje fiber node
d. Moderator band

A

a. Sinoatrial node

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4
Q

The ______________ is the first part of the atrial septum to grow from the dorsal wall of the primitive atrium. It fuses with the endocardial cushions.

a. septum primum
b. fossa ovale
c. septum secundum
d. fossa ovalis

A

a. septum primum

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5
Q

The embryonic vascular system begins during the _____ week.

a. second
b. third
c. fourth
d. fifth

A

b. third

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6
Q

The cardinal vein returns blood from which one of the following?

a. Embryo
b. Yolk sac
c. Placenta
d. Heart

A

a. Embryo

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7
Q

The primitive cardiovascular system is formed by blood vessels including all of the following structures except the:

a. yolk sac.
b. chorion.
c. connecting stalk.
d. amnion.

A

d. amnion.

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8
Q

The caudal region of the primitive heart is called the ___________________.

a. primitive atrium
b. truncus arteriosus
c. sinus venosus
d. primitive ventricle

A

c. sinus venosus

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9
Q

The division of the heart into four chambers occurs during the _____ and _____ weeks of fetal development.

a. third; fourth
b. fourth; fifth
c. fifth; sixth
d. sixth; seventh

A

b. fourth; fifth

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10
Q

The right ventricle is formed from which one of the following structures?

a. Primitive vein
b. Septum primum
c. Bulbus cordis
d. Septum secundum

A

c. Bulbus cordis

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11
Q

Normal interventricular septal thickness during the third trimester should not exceed _______ mm.

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

A

b. 4

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12
Q

Blood flow in the fetus communicates between the aorta and pulmonary arteries via which one of the following?

a. Fossa ovalis
b. Ductus venosus
c. Ductus arteriosus
d. Pulmonary veins

A

c. Ductus arteriosus

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13
Q

The _____________ forms the floor of the fossa ovale.

a. bulbus cordis
b. septum primum
c. annulus
d. sinoatrial node

A

b. septum primum

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14
Q

In utero, the right heart is ______________ than the left heart.

a. much larger
b. slightly larger
c. slightly smaller
d. much smaller

A

b. slightly larger

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15
Q

In utero, the foramen ovale opens toward which one of the following?

a. Right atrium
b. Left atrium
c. Right ventricle
d. Left ventricle

A

b. Left atrium

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16
Q

The tricuspid valve is normally located ___________ the mitral valve.

a. slightly superior to
b. slightly inferior to
c. at the same level as
d. slightly ventral to

A

b. slightly inferior to

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17
Q

In the four-chamber view, all pulmonary veins are imaged except which one of the following veins?

a. Left lower
b. Right lower
c. Left upper
d. Right upper

A

b. Right lower

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18
Q

The four pulmonary veins bring blood from the lungs back into the ___________ wall of the
___________ atrium.

a. medial; left
b. posterior; left
c. medial; right
d. posterior; right

A

b. posterior; left

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19
Q

Which one of the following is between the left atrium and the left ventricle?

a. Tricuspid valve
b. Foramen ovale
c. Mitral valve
d. Atrioventricular node

A

c. Mitral valve

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20
Q

A gestational age of 20 weeks would show a normal aortic measurement of ______ mm.

a. 2
b. 4
c. 6
d. 8

A

b. 4

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21
Q

Fetal tachycardia is defined as a heart rate over _____ beats per minute.

a. 160
b. 180
c. 200
d. 220

A

c. 200

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22
Q

Fetal risk factors for congenital heart disease include all of the following abnormalities except:

a. an abnormal heart rate.
b. abnormal amniotic fluid collections.
c. extracardiac abnormalities.
d. a sibling with a cardiac abnormality.

A

d. a sibling with a cardiac abnormality.

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23
Q

Which one of the following types of imaging is used to evaluate cardiac motion?

a. M-mode
b. B-mode
c. Pulse Doppler
d. Color Doppler

A

a. M-mode

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24
Q

In fetal echocardiography, the normal peak systolic measurement of the mitral valve is ___________ centimeters per second (cm/sec).

a. 45-65-87
b. 40-60-77
c. 25-55-80
d. 40-60-100

A

b. 40-60-77

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25
Q

The ________________ artery wraps around the cerebral peduncle.

a. Posterior cerebral
b. Anterior cerebral
c. Posterior communicating
d. Middle cerebral

A

a. posterior cerebral

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26
Q

Blood flow in the ACA is normally ___________ the transducer.

a. Bidirectional to
b. Away from
c. Toward
d. Vertical to

A

b. away from

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27
Q

The union of the 2 vertebral arteries forms which one of the following?

Select one:
a. Posterior communicating artery
b. Anteroinferior cerebellar
c. Posterior cerebral artery
d. Basilar artery

A

d. Basilar artery

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28
Q

Blood flow in the MCA is normally __________________.

a. Both away from the transducer and blue on color Doppler
b. Toward the transducer
c. Away from the transducer
d. Blue on color Doppler

A

b. Toward the transducer

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29
Q

A _____degree angle is assumed when performing TCD imaging examinations.

a. zero
b. 45
c. 60
d. 25

A

a. zero

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30
Q

The acoustical intensity should be ___________ to evaluate the carotid siphon using the transorbital approach.

a. Doubled
b. Not adjusted
c. Increased
d. Decreased

A

d. decreased

31
Q

After evaluating the MCA, the color PRF may need to be __________ to evaluate the posterior cerebral artery (PCA).

a. Doubled
b. Decreased
c. Increased
d. Unadjusted

A

b. decreased

32
Q

Identification of normal cranial arteries is based on all of the following except:

a. Blood flow direction
b. Adjacent anatomic structures
c. Depth of sample volume
d. Blood flow velocity

A

d. Blood flow velocity

33
Q

The middle cerebral artery is located at a depth of _______ millimeters (mm).

a. 60 to 80
b. 60 to 75
c. 55 to 67
d. 30 to 67

A

d. 30 to 67

34
Q

The large terminal branch of the internal carotid artery is which one of the following?

a. Middle cerebral artery
b. Posterior cerebral artery
c. Posterior communicating artery
d. Anterior cerebral artery

A

a. Middle cerebral artery

35
Q

Which one of the following windows is used to evaluate the vertebrobasilar system?

a. Suboccipital
b. Transorbital
c. Submandibular
d. Transtemporal

A

a. Suboccipital

36
Q

A low hematocrit (less than 30%) is associated with _________ intracranial arterial velocities.

a. Decreased
b. Turbulent
c. Increased
d. Unchanged

A

c. increased

37
Q

The interpretation of a TCD imaging examination is made from which one of the following?

a. Spectral waveforms
b. Color display
c. Color bar
d. Gray-scale image

A

a. Spectral waveforms

38
Q

A high-resistance Doppler signal is normally characteristic of which one of the following arteries evaluated during a TCD examination?

a. Middle cerebral artery
b. Ophthalmic artery
c. No artery has a high resistance.
d. Vertebral artery

A

b. Ophthalmic artery

39
Q

The anterior cerebral artery (ACA) is normally evaluated from the ____________ approach.

a. Transtemporal
b. Transorbital
c. Submandibular
d. Suboccipital

A

a. Transtemporal

40
Q

Intracranial arterial velocities __________ with increasing age.

a. Increase
b. Expand
c. Decrease
d. Do not change

A

c. Decrease

41
Q

Most users report ___________ velocities during TCD examinations.

a. Peak-systolic
b. Mean
c. End-diastolic
d. Pulsatility

A

b. Mean

42
Q

Which one of the following is not a limitation of a TCD examination?

a. Patient movement
b. Poor temporal window
c. Anatomic variations
d. Pulsed Doppler transducer

A

d. Pulsed Doppler transducer

43
Q

During color Doppler transcranial imaging, the middle cerebral artery (MCA) runs parallel to which one of the following bony landmarks?

a. Cerebral peduncle
b. Petrous ridge of the temporal bone
c. Sphenoid wing
d. Occipital bone

A

c. Sphenoid wing

44
Q

The two A1 segments of the ACA are joined by which one of the following?

a. Anterior communicating artery
b. Recurrent artery of Heubner
c. A2 segment of the left ACA
d. A2 segment of the right ACA

A

a. Anterior communicating artery

45
Q

Which one of the following parameters affects the intracranial velocities at the level of the circle of Willis?

a. Turbulence
b. Cardiac output
c. Intracranial pressure
d. Infarction

A

a. Turbulence

46
Q

When performing a transcranial color Doppler (TCD) imaging examination, the best results are obtained using a _____ transducer.

a. 5 MHz
b. 7.5 MHz
c. 2 MHz
d. 10 kHz

A

c. 2 MHz

47
Q

A _____ Doppler transducer is used for TCD imaging examinations.

a. Mechanical
b. Continuous wave
c. Pulsed wave
d. Alternating

A

c. Pulsed wave

48
Q

Side-to-side differences that occur during a TCD imaging examination should be considered within normal limits if they are less than _____%.

a. 75
b. 25
c. 100
d. 50

A

b. 25

49
Q

Which one of the following parameters affects the intracranial velocities proximal to the circle of Willis?

a. Cardiac output
b. Infarction
c. Blood viscosity
d. Intracranial pressure

A

a. Cardiac output

50
Q

A(n) __________________ defect occurs when the endocardial cushion fails to fuse in the center of the heart.

a. atrioventricular septal
b. muscular
c. perimembranous
d. supracristal

A

a. atrioventricular septal

51
Q

In which one of the following conditions do the atria beat more than 400 beats per minute (bpm), whereas the ventricular rate is 120 to 200 bpm?

a. Atrioventricular block
b. Ventricular fibrillation
c. Atrial flutter
d. Atrial fibrillation

A

d. Atrial fibrillation

52
Q

In which of the following congenital heart lesions does only one great artery arise from the base of the heart?

a. A single ventricle
b. A single atrium
c. Transposition
d. Truncus arteriosus

A

d. Truncus arteriosus

53
Q

A disease of the myocardial muscle layer of the heart that causes the heart to dilate secondary to regurgitation and also affects cardiac function is which one of the following?

a. Critical aortic stenosis
b. Cardiomyopathy
c. Coarctation
d. Pericardial effusion

A

b. Cardiomyopathy

54
Q

A large ventricular and atrial septal defect with a single, undivided, free-floating leaflet that stretches across both ventricles is called a _________________________.

a. partial atrioventricular septal defect
b. cleft mitral valve
c. complete atrioventricular septal defect
d. muscular septal defect

A

c. complete atrioventricular septal defect

55
Q

A discrete or long-segment narrowing in the aortic arch, usually at the level of the left subclavian artery near the insertion of the ductus arteriosus, is called which one of the following?

a. Coarctation of the aorta
b. Hypoplasia of the aorta
c. Aortic atresia
d. Hypoplastic left heart

A

a. Coarctation of the aorta

56
Q

Which one of the following abnormalities is a fetal cardiac arrhythmia caused by extra systoles and ectopic beats?

a. Ventricular exstrophy
b. Premature atrial and ventricular contractions
c. Heart block
d. Bradycardia

A

b. Premature atrial and ventricular contractions

57
Q

Failure of the leaflets to close completely, allowing blood to leak backward into the left atrium, is called ___________ regurgitation.

a. tricuspid
b. aortic
c. pulmonic
d. mitral

A

d. mitral

58
Q

Which one of the following anomalies demonstrates an abnormal thickening and closure of the aortic leaflets, causing the left ventricle to “balloon” from increased pressure? It leads to heart failure and, if severe, fetal demise.

a. Critical aortic stenosis
b. Bicuspid aortic valve
c. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
d. Subvalvular aortic stenosis

A

a. Critical aortic stenosis

59
Q

A benign tumor of the heart associated with tuberous sclerosis is which one of the following?

a. Teratoma
b. Sarcoma
c. Rhabdomyoma
d. Myxoma

A

c. Rhabdomyoma

60
Q

Which one of the following conditions occurs when a membrane covers the left ventricular outflow tract?

a. Subvalvular aortic stenosis
b. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
c. Aortic stenosis
d. A bicuspid aortic valve

A

a. Subvalvular aortic stenosis

61
Q

Which one of the following congenital lesions of the heart is the most common?

a. Pulmonary stenosis
b. Ventricular septal defect
c. Coarctation of the aorta
d. Secundum atrial septal defect

A

b. Ventricular septal defect

62
Q

The highest rate of associated cardiac abnormalities is shown in fetuses with which one of the following chromosome anomalies?

a. Trisomy 13
b. Trisomy 18
c. Trisomy 21
d. Turner syndrome

A

b. Trisomy 18

63
Q

Congenital mitral stenosis is also called mitral _________________.

a. regurgitation
b. inflammation
c. atresia
d. coarctation

A

c. atresia

64
Q

Pericardial effusion is an abnormal collection of fluid surrounding the _______________ of the heart.

a. pericardial layer
b. epicardial layer
c. myocardial layer
d. pleura

A

b. epicardial layer

65
Q

A condition in which the heart is located in the right side of the chest and the cardiac apex points medially is which one of the following?

a. Mesoposition
b. Levoposition
c. Dextroposition
d. Sinus inversus

A

c. Dextroposition

66
Q

In which one of the following conditions does the inflow portion of the right ventricle fail to form?

a. Mitral atresia
b. Tricuspid atresia
c. Truncus arteriosus
d. Ebstein anomaly

A

b. Tricuspid atresia

67
Q

The most common form of cyanotic heart disease is which one of the following?

a. Pentalogy of Cantrell
b. Myocarditis
c. Single ventricle
d. Tetralogy of Fallot

A

d. Tetralogy of Fallot

68
Q

The prognosis for a fetus with tetralogy of Fallot is __________________ surgical intervention.

a. poor without
b. good without
c. very good with
d. poor even with

A

c. very good with

69
Q

The most common form of right ventricular outflow tract obstruction is which one of the following?

a. Pulmonic stenosis
b. Tricuspid stenosis
c. Mitral valve stenosis
d. Ventricular septal defect

A

a. Pulmonic stenosis

70
Q

A “parachute” deformity of the valve is demonstrated in the second variety of _______________________.

a. congenital tricuspid stenosis
b. congenital mitral stenosis
c. mitral atresia
d. pulmonic stenosis

A

b. congenital mitral stenosis

71
Q

The aorta is connected to the right ventricle and the pulmonary artery is connected to the left ventricle in which one of the following conditions?

a. Coarctation of the aorta
b. Interrupted aortic arch
c. Transposition of the great vessels
d. Ductal constriction

A

c. Transposition of the great vessels

72
Q

If a rhabdomyoma is suspected, the sonographer should look for associated mass abnormalities in the fetal head and in which one of the following structure(s)?

a. Diaphragm
b. Carotid arteries
c. Kidneys
d. Liver

A

c. Kidneys

73
Q

A congenital anomaly with two atria but only one ventricular chamber is known as ____________________.

a. Tetralogy of Fallot
b. single ventricle
c. cor triatriatum
d. ventricular septal defect

A

b. single ventricle

Ob/gyn (11 decks)

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