Ch 7 Fetal complications of pregnancy Flashcards

1
Q

fetus < 10th percentile are sga

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2
Q

fetuses whose efw > 90th% are lga

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3
Q

sga fetuses are described as either symmetric or asymmetric.
symmetric means fetus is proportionally small
asymmetric imples certain organs of fetus are disproportionately small

asymmetric infant will have wasting of torso and extremities while preserving the brain.

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4
Q

sga infants do better than infants with the same weight delivered at earlier gestational ages.

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5
Q

congential abnormalities account for approximately 10-15% of SGA infants. Trisomy 21 ( down syndrome), trisomy 18, and trisomy 13 all lead to SGA babies. Turner syndrome, 45xo, leads to a decrease in birth weight.

many intrauterine infections - cytomegalovirus and rubella lead to SGA.

exposure to tertogens, most chemotherapeutic agents, and other drugs during pregnancy can also lead to decreased growth potential .

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6
Q

asymmetric growth is presumably caused by decreased nutrition and oxygen being transmitted across the placenta, when is then shunted to the fetal brain. 2/3 of the tim growth restriction is asymmetric and can be identified by increased head-to-abdominal measurement

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7
Q

maternal risk factors for sga:
HTN, anemia, chronic renal disease, antiphospholipid antibody syndrome, systemic lupus erythematosus, and severe malnutrition

severe diabetes with extensive vascular disease may also lead to IUGR.
placental factors leading to diminished placental blood flow may lead to IUGR
placenta previa, velamentous and marginal cord insertion, placental thrombosis with or without infaction.

multiple gestations lead to lower birth weights because of earlier delivery and SGA infants.

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8
Q

a fetus with decreased growth potential will start small and stay small, wherease one with IUGR will progressively fall off the growth curve. another test to differentiate IUGR fetuses is

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Doppler investigation of umbilical artery.
normal flow through umbilical artery is higher during systole and decreases only 50% to 80% during diastole. flow during diastole should never be absent or reversed.

in setting of increased placental resistance, which can be seen with thrombosed or calcified placenta, diastolic flow decreases or even becomes absent or reversed. reversed diastolic flow is particularly concerning and is associated with high risk of intrauterine fetal demise

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9
Q

SGA fetus with normal doppler value is often expectantly managed to term, whereas those with abnormal dopper values are often delivered early.

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10
Q

treatment for patients with hx of SGA:

underlying etiology should be explored

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if malnutrition or drugs like alcohol / cigarettes these should be dealt with at each prenatal visitl.

pt with hx of placenta insufficiency, preeclampsia, collagen vacscular disorders, or vascular disease are often treated with low dose aspirin.

pt with prior placental thrombosis, thrombopilias, or antiphospholipid antibody syndrome have been treated with heparin and corticosteroids as well, with mixed results

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11
Q

polyhydramnios, afi > 20-25, present in 2-3 % of pregnancies. fetal structural and chromosomal abnormalities are more common in polyhydramnios. it is associated with maternal diabetes and malformations such as neural tube defects, obstruction of fetal alimentary canal, fetal hydrops; however, majority of cases of polyhydramnios have no associated diagnosis or cause

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12
Q

polyhydramnios is not as ominous a sign as oligohydramnios

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13
Q

polyhydramnios is associated with increase in congenital anomalies

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14
Q

associated with diabetes, hydrops, multiple gestation. an obstruction of gastrointestinal tract (e.g. tracheoesophageal fistula, duodenal atresia) may render fetus unable to swallow the amniotic fluid.

increased levels of circulating glucose can act as osmotic diuretic in the fetus, leading to polyhydramnios.

monozygotic multiple gestation can lead to twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome with polyhydramnios around one fetus and oligohydramnios around the other.

polyhydramnios has been associated with stillbirth and preeclampsia

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15
Q

polyhydramniso are at risk for malprsentation and should be carefully evaluated during labor. there is an increased risk of cord prolapse with polyhydramnis. rom should be performed in controlled setting if possible and only if head is truly engaged in pelvis.

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16
Q

if woman RH negative, fetus is RH positive either in previous or current pregnancy, shemay become sensitized to RH antigen

may also become sensitized from blood transfusion and develop anti RH antibodies.

these IgG antibodies cross the placenta and cause HEMOLYSIS OF FETAL RBC WHO IS RH POSITIVE.

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17
Q

if patient is RH negative but has NEGATIVE antibody screen, the goal during pregnancfy is to keep her from becoming sensitized. any tim during the pregnancy, if there is apossibility that a patient may be exposed to fetal blood, such as amniocentesis, miscarriage, vaginal bleeding, abruption and delivery she should be given rhoGAM, an antiD immunoglobulin (rh IgG). rhogam should be administered at 28 weeks and postpartum if the neonate is Rh positive.

rhogam 0.3mg of Rh IgG will eradicate 15ml of fetal RBC. (adequate for routine pregnancy)
however, in the setting of placental abruption or any antepartum bleeding, a kleihauer-betke test for the amount of fetal RBCs in maternal circulation can be sent. if amt of fetal rbcs more than what we eliminated by single rhogam, additional dosages can be given

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18
Q

there are a variety of other rbc antigens including

ABO blood type

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19
Q

sensitized patients are managed similar to rh-negative patients with:

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antibody titers
MCA doppler measuremetns
pubs
transfusions

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20
Q

when there is no explanation for a fetal demise, it is usually attributed to a “cord accident”
a retained iufd > 3-4 weeks can lead to hypofibrinogenemia secondary to release of thromboplastic substances from decomposing fetus. full-blown disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) can result

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21
Q

tests for cuases of fetal death include screening for
collagen vascular disease or hypercoagulable state
fetal karyotype
TORCH TITERS (toxoplasmosis, rapid plasma reagin (rpr), cmv, herpes simplex virus (hsv)

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22
Q

cells if IUFD will often not growh to obtain karyotype., recent studies have examined performing __

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microarray of fetal / placental genome to look for aneuploidy and other genetic abnormalities such as copy # variants

get autopsy of fetus.

despite extensive battery of tests, etiology fo fetal demise will likely remain unknown in majority of cases

23
Q

cells if IUFD will often not growh to obtain karyotype., recent studies have examined performing __

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microarray of fetal / placental genome to look for aneuploidy and other genetic abnormalities such as copy # variants

get autopsy of fetus.

despite extensive battery of tests, etiology of fetal demise will likely remain unknown in majority of cases

24
Q

post term pregnancy , beyond 42 weeks gestational age or greater

many women are induced at 41 weeks of gestation, this gestation is occasionally labeled as “postdates” but term is not consistently used

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25
Q

postterm risk:
increased risk of macrosomic infants, oligohydramnios, meconium aspiration, intrauterine fetal death, dysmaturity syndrome

also greater risk to mother because of a greater rate of cesarean section (doubled), and delivery of large infants.

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26
Q

most common reason for diagnosis of postterm pregnancy is inaccurate datingt

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27
Q

oligohydramnios is a marker for worsening placental function and would likely be seen prior to an abnormal NST it may improve sensitivity for fetuses at risk for IUFD.

many practitioners use modified bpp (an nst and AFI ) for fetal testing at each visit past the due date

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28
Q

induction of labor at 41 weeks to avoid c/s

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29
Q

if fertilized ovum divides into two separate ova, monozygotic , or “identical” twins results.

if ovulation produces two ova and both are fertilized, dizygotic twins result.

1:80 twin pregnancies
30% monozygotic.

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30
Q

iugr infants commonly born to women with systemic diseases, leading to poor placental blood flowt

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31
Q

4,000 and 4,500 both have been used as threshold for fetal macrosomia

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32
Q

gbs group b streptococcus cultures are collected around 35-36 weeks of gestation or sooner if preterm birth is suspected. intrauterine infection can lead to SGA fetuses

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33
Q

toxoplasmosis is aquired through infected undercooked meat or through contact with infected cat feces.

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34
Q

toxoplasmosis infection: iugr, microcephaly, chorioretinitis, intracranial calcifications, hearing loss, mental retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, ascites, periventricular calcifications, ventriculomegaly, seizures

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35
Q

fetal rubella infection depends on gestational age and is worse if aquired early in gestation.
fetal growth retardation is most common effect, followed by sensorineural hearing loss, cardiac lesions, eye defects.

these findings generally seen only in fetuses infected in first 12 weeks of gestation.

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36
Q

cytomegalo virus complicates 0.7-4% of pregnancies results in
mental regardation, microcephaly, chorioretinitis, and cerebral calcifications
( most common congenital infection in pregnancy)

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37
Q

congenital herpes viru is rare and associated with
growth restriction, eye disease, microcephaly, hydranencephaly.
amnio can be performed to evaluate fetal chromosomal abnormalities / intrauterine infection.

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38
Q

tobacco reduces uterine blood flow to placenta and impairs fetal oxygenation.

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39
Q

fetal testing with nst or bpp suggests a compromised intrauterine environment when testing indicates acidemia.

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reactive nst with 2 accelerations in 20 mins reassures the provider that fetus is not acidotic.

abnormal bpp can help predict pH in IUGR baby.

40
Q

doppler velocimetryis valuable tool to try to predict placental dysfunction. decreased oxygen delivery to fetus can trigger changes in vascular smooth muscle tone of the fetus. changes in flow resistance through umbilical artery can be measured and used to predict fetal well being and placental dysfunction

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41
Q

late signs of dysfunction such as:

reversed end diastolic flow suggest fetal acidemia, and delivery is warranted.

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42
Q

macrosomic neonates are most at risk for neonatal jaundice, hypoglycemia, birth trauma, hypocalcemia, and childhood cancers such as leukemia, osteosarcoma, wilms tumor

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43
Q

even with reasonable control, women with GDM are at increased risk of having fetus with macrosomia

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44
Q

postpartum, perform 2 hour glucose tolerance test
women who develop gdm are at increased risk of developing type 2 diabetes later in life.

all women with GDM should have 2 hour glucose challenge test at or around 6 week postpartum visit.
it is best to actually give patient laboratory slip to obtain the test prior to 6 week f/u visit so results can be discussed at the visit.

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45
Q

for women with gestational diabetes, all medications are stopped. not standard of care to continue gdm patients on antihyperglycemic medications unless there is a suspicion for type 2 diabetes or they have a diagnostic 2 hr glucose tolerance test

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46
Q

gdma patient returns to your clinic 2 years later, what test would you recommend?

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early glucose tolerance test to evaluate for type 2 diabetes.

early diagnosis improves outcomes because patients can be educated on diet and started on insulin-lowering medications if indicated

47
Q

if patient has elevated blood glucose that suggest type 2 diabetes, then

  1. preeclampsia panel (creatinine, AST, BUN, platelets, uric acid)
    labcorp: Alanine aminotransferase (ALT); aspartate aminotransferase (AST); complete blood count with differential and platelets (CBC); lactic acid dehydrogenase (LD); random urine albumin:creatinine ratio; serum creatinine; serum urea nitrogen (BUN); serum uric acid (SUA)
  2. 24 hour urine protein collection
  3. referral for eye exam to evaluate for reinopathy
  4. hemoglobin a1c
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if patient has elevated blood glucose that suggest type 2 diabetes, then

  1. preeclampsia panel (creatinine, AST, BUN, platelets, uric acid)
  2. 24 hour urine protein collection
  3. referral for eye exam to evaluate for reinopathy
  4. hemoglobin a1c
48
Q

twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) is characterized by one twin who is the donor and the other who is the recipient. the placenta has shared vascular connections between monochorionic twins, and in some gestations, these connections are markedly unequal and result in one twin receinvg more blood flow than the other. donor twin is smaller, anemic , and less amniotic fluid which can leadn to hypovolemia, growth restriction, and oligohydramnios.

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49
Q

recipient twin is generally larger, polycythemic, and occasionally hydropic as the result of hypervolemia. cardiomegaly and glomerulotubal hypertrophy, edema, and ascites result.

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50
Q

15% of monochorionic twins will develop TTTS

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51
Q

oligohydramnios, macrosomia, meconium aspiration, and intrauterine fetal demise are risks associated with postterm pregnancy

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52
Q

kick counts: involve women resting in a quiet room and counting fetal movements over time.
in general 6 movements in first hour, or 10 movements in 2 hours suggest reassuring fetal status.

at 41 2/7 weeks even if fetal testing were reassuring, it would be reasonable to recommend induction of labor in this setting

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