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EMT 1 > Ch 9, 37, 38, & 39 > Flashcards

Ch 9, 37, 38, & 39 Flashcards

1
Q

The term —— refers to the child from birth to 1 month of age

A

Neonate

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2
Q

The term —— refers to the child from 1 month to 1 year of age

A

Infant

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3
Q

At birth, the respiratory rate is —— breaths per min.

A

30-60 BPM

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4
Q

At birth, the heart rate is normally —— bpm.

A

140-160 bpm

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5
Q

At birth, the neonate normally weighs —— kg and the head accounts for —-% of the total body weight

A

-3.0-3.5kg
-25%

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6
Q

Infants also have special ——, or instantaneous and involuntary movements, that result from various stimuli at birth.

A

Reflexes

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7
Q

What are some reflexes that infants have?

A

-blinking
-startling
-sucking
-swallowing
-stepping
-gagging
-grasping

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8
Q

Babies are born with ——, or soft spots on the skull that allow the head to be compressed and pass through the birth canal during delivery.

A

Fontanelles

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9
Q

By 2 months of age, an infant can usually do the following:

A

-track objects with eyes
-focus on objects 8-12 inches away
-recognize familiar faces
-display primary emotions and facial expressions
-hear and recognize some familiar sounds and voices
-move in response to stimuli

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10
Q

By 6 months of age, an infant can usually do the following:

A

-sit upright
-make one syllable sounds
-raise and support upper body when on his stomach
-grasp and shake hand toys
-follow moving objects with eyes
-recognize familiar objects
-begin to Babble

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11
Q

By 12 months of age, an infant can usually do the following:

A

-walk with help
-know his own name
-sit without assistance
-crawl and creep
-put objects into containers
-respond to simple requests
-say mama or dada
-Finger feed himself

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12
Q

A —— is a child aged 1 to 2 years.

A

Toddler

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13
Q

A ——- is a child who is 3 to 5 years of age.

A

Preschooler

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14
Q

What is the typical heart rate of a toddler?

A

98-140 beats per min

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15
Q

What is the typical respiratory rate for a toddler?

A

22-37 breaths per min

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16
Q

What is the typical systolic pressure of a toddler?

A

86-106 mmHg

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17
Q

What is the typical temperature of a toddler?

A

98.6-99.6 F°

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18
Q

What is the typical heart rate of a preschooler?

A

80-120 beats per min

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19
Q

What is the typical respiratory rate for a preschooler?

A

20-28 breaths per min

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20
Q

What is the typical systolic blood pressure for a preschooler?

A

89-112 mmHg

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21
Q

What is the typical temperature of a preschooler?

A

98.6-99.6 F°

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22
Q

By the age of 3, children should be able to:

A

-walk alone and begin to run
-pull or carry several toys
-climb up and down furniture
-find hidden objects

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23
Q

By the age of 5, children should be able to:

A

-stand on one foot for more than 10 seconds
-hop, jump, swing, climb and do somersaults

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24
Q

A child from 6-11 years old is termed?

A

School aged child

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25
Q

What is the typical heart rate of a school aged child 6-11 years?

A

75-118 beats per min

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26
Q

What is the typical respiratory rate for a school aged child 6-11 years?

A

18-25 breaths per min

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27
Q

Although school aged children are able to control their bodily functions better, some still struggle with ——, or involuntary bed wetting at night, after the age of 10.

A

Nocturnal enuresis

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28
Q

An ——- is 12-15 years of age.

A

Adolescent

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29
Q

What is the typical heart rate for an adolescent?

A

60-100 beats per min

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30
Q

What is the typical respiratory rate for adolescents?

A

12-20 breaths per min

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31
Q

Adolescents go through ——, the period in which the sexual organs mature and reproductive maturity is reached.

A

Puberty

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32
Q

The ———, which is the theoretically longest period of time for an organism to live, is 120 years for a human being.

A

Maximum life span

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33
Q

An individuals —— is the average years of life remaining based on the individuals year of birth.

A

Life expectancy

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34
Q

The — are the female gonads or sex glands.

A

Ovaries

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35
Q

The mature egg that is released from the ovary each month is called the?

A

Ovum

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36
Q

The two ——, also known as uterine tubes, are thin flexible structures that extend from the uterus to the ovaries

A

Fallopian tubes

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37
Q

The —- is a pear shaped organ that contains the developing ——, the unborn infant?

A

-uterus
-fetus

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38
Q

The top portion of the uterus is the —-, the middle portion is the —-, and the narrow, tapered neck is the —-.

A

-fundus
-body or corpus
-cervix

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39
Q

Name the 3 layers of the uterine wall.

A

-endometrium (innermost)
-myometrium (middle; smooth muscle)
-perimetrium (outermost; partially covers corpus)

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40
Q

The expulsion of the plug signals the first stage of labor and is known as the —-.

A

Bloody show

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41
Q

The ——, also known as the “organ of pregnancy”, is a disk shaped inner lining of the uterus that begins to develop after the ovum is fertilized and attaches itself to the uterine wall.

A

Placenta

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42
Q

After the infant is born, the placenta separates from the uterine wall and is delivered as the —-.

A

Afterbirth

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43
Q

The —- is the unborn infants lifeline, attaching the fetus to the placenta.

A

Umbilical cord

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44
Q

The ——, sometimes referred to as the bag of waters, is filled with the amniotic fluid in which the infant floats, insulating and protecting it throughout the pregnancy.

A

Amniotic sac

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45
Q

The lower part of the birth canal is called the —-.

A

Vagina

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46
Q

Menstruation is marked by vaginal bleeding of approximately —- mL over 3-5 days.

A

60-80 mL

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47
Q

The first 14 days after conception are called the —-.

A

Pre-embryonic stage

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48
Q

The —— stage is from day 15 to 8 weeks during pregnancy

A

Embryonic stage

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49
Q

Pregnancy is also referred to as:

A

Gestation

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50
Q

Each 3 month period of the approx. 9 month pregnancy is referred to as a —-.

A

Trimester

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51
Q

—- is a common complaint during the third trimester of pregnancy.

A

Heartburn

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52
Q

——- emergencies are those that occur in the pregnant patient prior to the onset of labor.

A

Antepartum

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53
Q

What is the term for extreme morning sickness accompanied by severe nausea and vomiting during pregnancy known as?

A

Hyperemesis gravidarum

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54
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

-severe nausea
-severe vomiting
-headaches
-extreme fatigue

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55
Q

A —— , or spontaneous abortion, can occur for any number of reasons and is defined as delivery of the fetus and placenta before the 20th week of gestation.

A

Miscarriage

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56
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of a miscarriage?

A

-cramp like lower abdominal pain similar to labor
-moderate to severe vaginal bleeding, which might be bright or dark red
-passage of tissue or blood clots

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57
Q

——, one occurring outside the uterus, is a relatively rare occurrence and is a life threatening emergency

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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58
Q

——, is associated with abnormal implantation of the placenta over or near the opening of the cervix. Occurs in 0.3 to 0.5 percent of pregnancies, is a cause of third trimester vaginal bleeding

A

Placenta previa

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59
Q

What are the three types of placenta previa?

A

-total
-partial
-marginal

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60
Q

An ——, also known as a placental abruption, is the premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall prior to the birth of the baby.

A

Abruptio placentae

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61
Q

What are the two types of placental abruption?

A

-complete
-partial

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62
Q

——— (PIH) is defined as the blood pressure in a pregnant patient that is greater than 140/90 mmHg on two or more occasions at 6 hours apart.

A

Pregnancy induced hypertension

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63
Q

——-, previously known as toxemia during pregnancy, is a common condition, affecting approx. 12 percent of pregnancies.

A

Preeclampsia

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64
Q

—— is a more severe form of preeclampsia and includes an unexplained coma or new onset of generalized tonic clinic seizures in a patient with preeclampsia

A

Eclampsia

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65
Q

—— is typically a second or third trimester complication that occurs when the weight of the fetus compresses the inferior vena cava when the patient is in a supine position

A

Supine hypotensive syndrome

66
Q

Am emergency having to do with pregnancy or childbirth is termed?

A

Obstetrics

67
Q

—— refers to pregnancy.

A

Gravida

68
Q

When a Roman numeral is added after gravida, it indicates the number of pregnancies, what is this termed?

A

Primigravida

69
Q

—- refers to the number of times an individual has completed a pregnancy.

A

Para

70
Q

A —— is a mother who gave birth for the first time.

A

Primipara

71
Q

—— is the term used to describe the process of birth.

A

Labor

72
Q

What are the 3 stages of normal labor?

A

-dilation
-expulsion
-placental delivery

73
Q

During expulsion, the —- , the area of skin between the vagina and the anus, bulges significantly, a sign of impending birth

A

Perineum

74
Q

What is it termed when the top of the infants head appears at the vaginal opening?

A

Crowning

75
Q

At the time of birth is termed?

A

Newly born

76
Q

Within the first few hours of birth is termed?

A

Newborn

77
Q

What is it termed when the umbilical cord is around the infants neck?

A

Nuchal cord

78
Q

—— is a naturally occurring hormone that is released from the posterior pituitary gland.

A

Oxytocin

79
Q

An —— emergency is one that occurs during the period from the onset of labor to the actual delivery of the newborn.

A

Intrapartum

80
Q

After the amniotic sac ruptures, the umbilical cord, rather than the head, can be the first part presenting at the vaginal opening, what is this termed?

A

Prolapsed cord

81
Q

A —— birth is one in which the fetal buttocks or lower extremities are the presenting part and the first the be delivered.

A

Breech birth

82
Q

When crowning, a —- is when the face is the presenting part in the vaginal opening.

A

Face presentation

83
Q

A ——- is when the chin is the presenting part and a —— is when the eyebrows or an eyebrow is the presenting part in the vaginal opening.

A

-chin presentation
-brow presentation

84
Q

When one arm or one leg is the first to protrude from the birth canal, it is considered a ——.

A

Limb presentation

85
Q

When an arm or leg enters the birth canal and presents with the head or buttocks, it is termed a —-.

A

Compound presentation

86
Q

A ——- is when the fetal shoulders are larger than the fetal head.

A

Shoulder dystocia

87
Q

A —— delivery is one in which the birth of the fetus occurs after less than 3 hours of labor.

A

Precipitous delivery

88
Q

In a ——, each infant might have its own placenta or the infants might share a placenta.

A

Multiple birth

89
Q

The passing of a bowel movement in the amniotic fluid causing the normally clear fluid to turn greenish or brown yellow, this coloring is referred to as:

A

Meconium staining

90
Q

—— labor, also known as premature labor, occurs after the 20th but prior to the 37th week of gestation.

A

Preterm labor

91
Q

An infant weighing less than 5 pounds, or an infant born before its 37th week of development, is defined as a ——-

A

Preterm infant

92
Q

In a —— pregnancy the gestation of the fetus extends beyond 42 weeks.

A

Postterm pregnancy

93
Q

Postterm pregnancy causes ——-, a deterioration of conditions necessary to support the well being of the fetus.

A

Postmaturity syndrome

94
Q

——— (PROM) is the spontaneous premature rupture of the amniotic sac prior to the onset of true labor and before the end of the 37th week of gestation

A

Premature rupture of membranes

95
Q

The term —— refers to the period following delivery.

A

Postpartum

96
Q

——- is defined as the loss of greater than 500 mL of blood following delivery.

A

Postpartum hemorrhage

97
Q

What should the immediate intervention be when there are secretions or other substances in the nose or mouth that obstruct breathing in a neonate?

A

Suction with bulb syringe

98
Q

What is the immediate intervention when there is visible meconium in the nose and mouth of a neonate?

A

Suction with a bulb syringe

99
Q

What is the immediate intervention when a neonate is having apnea or gasping respirations?

A

Positive pressure ventilation

100
Q

What is the immediate intervention when a neonate is having labored breathing?

A

Blow by oxygen

101
Q

What is the immediate intervention when a neonate has an SpO2 below expected extrauterine level?

A

Blow by oxygen

102
Q

What is the immediate intervention when a neonate has a heart rate of < 100 bpm?

A

Positive pressure ventilation

103
Q

What is the immediate intervention if a neonate has a heart rate of < 60 bpm?

A

Chest compressions and positive pressure ventilation

104
Q

Patients with diabetes mellitus can develop partial or full vision loss from ——-, which occurs when the long term effects of their disease damage of small blood vessels of the eye.

A

Diabetic retinopathy

105
Q

With articulation disorders, caused by impairment of the tongue or other muscles needed for speech, called ——, the patient cannot pronounce words correctly.

A

Dysarthria

106
Q

Developmental disabilities are conditions that interfere with how a body part or a system operates, these are typical present at birth and are known as :

A

Birth defects

107
Q

———, also known as ——-, is a range of neurodevelopmental conditions that are characterized by impaired social interaction, verbal and nonverbal communication, and restricted and repetitive behavior.

A

-autism
-autism spectrum disorder

108
Q

—— is an umbrella term for motor impairments that result from brain abnormalities that arise early in development.

A

Cerebral palsy

109
Q

A patient with ——- displays paralysis from the waist down.

A

Paraplegia

110
Q

A patient with ——- is paralyzed in all four extremities

A

Quadriplegia

111
Q

—— is the branch of medicine that deals with the management of obese patients.

A

Bariatrics

112
Q

The use of —— has been increasing over the past decades with the advent of better portable devices for oxygen delivery as well as better diagnostic procedures for determining its need.

A

Medical oxygen

113
Q

An —— is designed to constantly monitor the patients breathing and emit a warning signal should breathing crease.

A

Apnea monitor

114
Q

The ——- is a medical monitoring adjunct that the EMT is already familiar with, can monitor oxygen saturation.

A

Pulse oximeter

115
Q

A ——- is performed when it becomes necessary to open a new airway in patients with certain medical or traumatic conditions, it is is surgical opening made through the neck and into the trachea.

A

Tracheostomy

116
Q

If the opening in a tracheostomy is to be permanent, it is referred to as a —-.

A

Stoma

117
Q

Both —— (CPAP) and —— (BiPAP) machines are designed to provide a therapeutic back pressure during respiration via an airway circuit attached to a mask that covers the mouth/nose.

A

Continuous positive airway pressure and bilevel positive airway pressure

118
Q

A —— is a medical device that is used when a patient needs ongoing intravenous medications.

A

Vascular access device

119
Q

A —— is placed while the patient is in the hospital and is designed to deliver medication into the central circulation of the body.

A

Central intravenous catheter

120
Q

Another type of vascular access device is the ——.

A

Central venous line

121
Q

You might also encounter ——— known also as a ——- (TIVAS), which is commonly referred to as an “implanted port”.

A

-surgically implanted medication delivery devices
-totally implantable venous access system

122
Q

A ——- (VNS) is an implanted device found in patients with a seizure disorder.

A

Vagus nerve stimulator

123
Q

——- (ARF) is said to occur when there is a rapid loss of renal function that results in decreased filtering, poor urine production, electrolyte disturbance, and fluid balance disturbance.

A

Acute renal failure

124
Q

——- also known as chronic kidney disease, occurs when there is a progressive loss of kidney function over a period of months to years.

A

Chronic renal failure

125
Q

——- is a medical procedure designed to support the lost function of the kidneys; although, total replacement of all renal functions is not possible.

A

Dialysis

126
Q

——- is a type of dialysis in which blood is extracted from the body through a membrane that also uses a dialysate fluid to help cleanse the blood.

A

Hemodialysis

127
Q

——- dialysis is done in the home or the extended care facility; where dialysate fluid introduced into a port that leads into the peritoneal cavity.

A

Peritoneal dialysis

128
Q

An — is used on short term hemodialysis patients or on patients who have recently started dialysis

A

AV shunt

129
Q

Either an —- or —- is used for long term dialysis

A

AV fistula or an AV graft

130
Q

Patients who receive their nourishment this way are said to be receiving ——, or tube feeding.

A

Enteral feeding

131
Q

The procedure that places a gastric tube into the abdomen is termed ——.

A

Gastrostomy

132
Q

Just as there are special tubes and procedures to ensure that the patient with a debilitating problem is nourished properly, there are also medical procedures that help to remove feces from the body by directing them through the abdominal wall and into a pouch or bag that is attached outside the body. These are referred to as —-.

A

Ostomy bags

133
Q

A —— is a device that diverts urine out of the bladder when there is some type of urinary tract dysfunction.

A

Urinary catheter

134
Q

When excess CSF accumulates in the brain, the patient has ——-.

A

Hydrocephalus

135
Q

To alleviate the rising intra cranial pressure, a long, hollow, tubelike device called an ——- is surgically placed.

A

Intraventricular shunt

136
Q

A —- is an artificial limb designed and specifically fitted to replace an amputated hand, arm, foot, or leg

A

Prosthetic

137
Q

An —- is a brace that is worn by the patient to restore function, or to stabilize that part of the body

A

Orthotic

138
Q

—— patients have a disease process that is realistically expected to result in death, despite current medical treatment designed to halt or reverse the condition.

A

Terminally Ill

139
Q

The term —— is used to describe medical interventions centered on reducing the severity of disease symptoms and providing comfort for patient

A

Palliative care or Hospice

140
Q

——- is a philosophy of care that is aimed at provided palliation of symptoms for the patients and support for their families.

A

Hospice

141
Q

A decreasing mental status with fever is a good indication of an intracranial infectious process. The infection is causing the fever and the associated increase in —— is causing the decrease in responsiveness.

A

Intracranial pressure

142
Q

Which type of stress develops from the extreme stress of combat?

A

PTSD

143
Q

—— are defined as an alteration in brain function or other brain pathology caused by an external force such as a concussion.

A

Traumatic brain injury

144
Q

You must assess a crying 7 month old baby who is vomiting. To best assess this patient, you should:

A

Allow the mother to hold the baby

145
Q

At what age bracket does cardiac output diminish?

A

Middle adulthood

146
Q

A common concern about the well being of a female patient in the 41-60 year old age group is:

A

Cancer

147
Q

Five minutes have passed since you have assisted in the delivery of a full term baby boy. Based on your knowledge of physiological changes in the neonate, which finding would be the most concerning?

A

Heart rate of 88 BPM

148
Q

An instantaneous and involuntary movement that results from a stimulus is called?

A

Reflex

149
Q

Until how many weeks of age is an infant considered to be primarily a nose breather?

A

Four weeks

150
Q

During a normal delivery, what is the first thing you should do as the head exits the vaginal canal?

A

Advise the patient to stop pushing

151
Q

Postpartum hemorrhage occurs when there is blood loss of more than —— following delivery.

A

500 mL

152
Q

If a neonates heart rate is less than 100 bpm but more than 60 bpm, what should you do?

A

Start positive pressure ventilations

153
Q

When taking the SpO2 of a neonate, where should you put the pulse oximeter?

A

The earlobe
The foot

154
Q

What are the signs to check when doing the apgar score chart?

A

-appearance (skin color)
-pulse rate (heart rate)
-grimace (reflexes)
-activity (muscle tone)
-respiration (breathing)

155
Q

A seizure caused by fever is called?

A

Febrile seizure

156
Q

What should one do whenever a pediatric patient or baby has a fever?

A

DO NOT let them “sweat it out”. Cool them down, minimal clothing, room temp water bath

157
Q

What is it called when a child has a “seal like bark”?

A

Croup; give warm, humidified air

158
Q

What should you do when you come across a mother with limb presentation?

A

-DO NOT touch the baby
-tell mother to not push
-put towels under the hips, legs to chest and transport

159
Q

What should you do when a mother has a prolapsed umbilical cord?

A

-determine how much of the cord is out
-determine if the cord has a pulse
-insert gloved hand into the vagina to lift the head off of the umbilical cord if there is no pulse

160
Q

What should you do when a mother is having a breech birth?

A

Insert a gloved hand into the vagina after the chest has been delivered. Make an air pocket near the baby’s nose and mouth for the baby to breath before the head is delivered.

161
Q

A person with renal failure, who has not received dialysis will appear with what?

A

-swelling
-toxin build up in the body
-hypertension
-edema

EMT 1 (3 decks)

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