Ch. 9 Electrodiagnostic medicine I: Fundamental Principles Flashcards

(106 cards)

1
Q

What is saltatory conduction?

A

Action potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What kind of voltage-gated channels do myelinated nerves lack and contain?

A

Voltage-gated potassium channels

Only contain voltage-gated Na channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the differences in nerve AP b/w men and women?

A

Women have inc antidromic sensory nerve amp in median and ulnar nerves
Women have great NCV for upper and lower limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How is SNAP affected by age?

A

CV declines 1-2m/s per decade
Duration 10-15% longer in 40-60 yo and 20% longer in 70-88 yo
Amp 1/2 in 40-60 yo and 1/3 in 70-88 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Newborn’s motor NCV are ___ that of adults

A

1/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

When do children’s NCV reach that of adults?

A

3-5 yo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What happens to NCV after 50 yo?

A

Fastest motor fibers decline by 1-2m/s per decade
Inc in distal motor latency
Dec in motor amp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How does height affect NCV?

A

Slower lower limb NCV in taller patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most influencing factors on NCV?

A

Temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does temperature affect NCV?

A

As temp lowers the amount of current required to generate an AP inc and reduces NCV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How does temperature affect CMAP and SNAP?

A

Inc Amp, duration, rise time and area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

With every __ drop in temperature there is a ___ decrease in conduction velocity

A

1 deg C temp dec 2.4 m/s dec in CV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What should the minimum temperature of limbs be when doing NCS?

A

32 deg C in upper

30 deg C in lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is an antidromic technique?

A

Induced neural impulse propagates along the nerve in a direction opposite to its physiologic direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is an orthodromic technique?

A

Impulses propagate in direction along the nerve in physiologic direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is a mixed nerve repsonse?

A

Component of both othrodromic and antidromic responses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the shape of a SNAP waveform?

A

Biphasic negative-positive potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can distance b/w active and recording electrodes change SNAP?

A

Distance <40 mm amp dec and peak latency shortens

Distance > 40 mm neg peak amp will not grow but terminal + phase will change configuration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is normal insertional activity?

A

Inserting needle into muscle results in brief bursts of electrical potentials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is decreased insertional activity?

A

Few or no electrical waveforms when needle inserted in fibrous or electrically inexcitable tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is increased insertional activity?

A

Insertional activity persists after needle movememnet cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is a miniature end-plate potential?

A

Waveform is short duration (0.5-2 ms), small (10-50uV), irregularly occuring (1/~5 sec per axon terminal) monophasic negative waveform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What do miniature end-plate potential represent?

A

Random release of Ach vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What doe miniature end plate potentials (MEPPs) sound like?

A

Seashell murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What is an end-plate spike?
Short duration (3-4 ms) of moderate amp (100-200uV) irregularly firing and biphasic with initial negative deflection when needle placed near the end-plate region
26
How can one differentiate a PSW from an end-plate spike?
PSW and fibs have a regular firing rate and slowly trail off | End-plate spikes are irregular
27
What is a motor unit?
One anterior horn cell, its axon and the single musce fibers supplied by that nerve
28
What is a motor unit action potential (MUAP)?
Electrical activity from all muslce fibers summates together
29
What is the MUAP amplitude?
maximum peak to peak CRT trace displacement
30
What is the rise time of a MUAP?
Temporal aspect of a potential's peak
31
What is the duration of a MUAP?
Depature from and return to baseline
32
What are phases of MUAP?
Number of baseline crossings plus one
33
What is peak-to-peak MUAP amp arised from?
<12 single muscle fibers located w/in 0.5 mm of needle electrode
34
What is the shape of a MUAP?
Triphasic: positive-negative-positive
35
What are polyphasic potentials?
MUAPs with 5 or more phases
36
What are satellite potentials?
Late waves linked to the rest of the waveform
37
What is collateral sprouting?
Denervated muscle fibers induce nearby terminal axons of intact nerves to send out neural projections to reinnervate orphaned muscle fibers
38
What do neurogenic diseased MUAPS look like?
Larger amplitude, longer-duration and highly polyphasic MUAPs
39
What do myopathic MUAP's look like?
Shorter-duration, highly polyphasic, low-amplitude
40
Where is a muscle's end-plate or motor point located?
Midway b/w muscles origin and insertion where active electrode is placed to record a CMAP
41
Where is the reference electrode placed to record a CMAP?
On or distal to the tendinous insertion of the muscle
42
What does a positive deflection preceding the negative phase of a CMAP mean?
The active electrode is off of the motor point
43
What are fibrillation potentials?
Regularly firing spontaneous depolarization of denervated a single muscle fiber
44
What do fibrillation potentials look like?
<5 ms duration <1 mV amp Fire b/w 1-15 Hz
45
What do fibrillation potentials sound like?
Rain on a tin roof
46
What are PSW?
Waveforms recorded from a single muscle fiber w/ unstable resting membrane potential secondary to denervation or intrinsic muscle disease
47
What does a PSW look like?
Large primary sharp deflection followed by a small neg potential Duration of 100 ms or longer
48
What doe PSW sound like?
Regular firing rate (1-15Hz) and a dull thud sound
49
Where can transient runs of "PSW appearing potentials" be found?
Paraspinal, hand and foot intrinsic muscles
50
What is a complex repetitive discharge?
Spontaneously firing group of action potentials that stop abruptly
51
What do complex repetitive discharges look like?
Continuous run of simple or complex spike patterns that repeat at 0.3-150 Hz
52
What doe complex repetitive discharges sound like?
Heavy machinery or idling motorcycle
53
What cannot effect CRDs?
Curare or nerve blocks
54
What do CRD's indicate?
Chronic process of a group of muscle fibers becoming separated from their NMJ's
55
What is myotonia?
Delayed muscle relaxation after muscle contraction
56
What is percussion myotonia?
Delayed muscle relaxation after activation with a reflex hammer
57
What does "warm up" do to myotonia?
Continued muscle contraction lessens myotonia
58
What is a fasciculation?
Visible contraction of a portion of a muscle
59
What is a fasciculation potential?
Electrically summated voltage of depolarzing muscle fibers belonging to all or part of one motor unit
60
Describe fasciculation potentials
Discharge 1Hz to many/min Irregular and random No under voluntary control Influenced by mild contraction of agonist or antagonist muscles
61
Fasciculation potentials occur in ___
``` Normal foot intrisics or gastrosoleus muscles Motor neuron disorders Radiculopathies Entrapment neuropathies Cervical spondylotic myelopathy Metabolic disturbances ```
62
What is myokymia?
Rippling movement or "bag of worms" movement of the skin
63
What is a myokymic discharge?
Bursts of normal appearing group of motor units with interburst intervals of electrical silence
64
Describe myokymic discharges
Firing rate 0.1-10 Hz in semirhythmic pattern
65
What do myokymic discharges sound like?
Sputtering of a low-powered motorboat engine
66
What can facial myokimc potentials be seen in?
Multiple sclerosis | Brainstem neoplasm
67
What can segmental myokymic discharges be seen in?
Syringomyelia | Radiculopathies
68
What can generalized myokymic discharges be seen in?
Uremia Thyrotoxicosis Inflammatory polyradiculoneuropathy Issac's syndrome
69
What can limb myokymic discharges be seen in?
Radiation plexopathy | Chronic compressive neuropathies
70
What is seen on EMG in stiff man syndrome?
Normal MUAPs producing a sustained discharge pattern in agonist and antagonist muscles
71
What can induce cramps?
Hyponatremia Hypocalcemia Vitamin deficiency Peripheral neuropathies
72
How can cramps be induced in the calf muscles of normal patients?
Exercises Abnormal positioning maintained fixed position for a prolonged period
73
What is seen on EMG in a cramped muscle?
Multiple motor units firing b/w 40-60 Hz up to 20-300 Hz
74
What is tetany?
Spontaneous muscle twitiching, cramps and carpopedal spasm
75
What is Chvostek's sign?
Inducing tetany by tapping the facial nerve
76
What is the peroneal sign?
Inducing tetany by tapping the peroneal nerve at the fibular head
77
What is Trousseau's sign?
Placing BP cuff around arm for 3 minutes inducing hand tetany
78
Describe a motor unit potential in tetany
Fires rapidly with inderdischarge interval of 2-20 ms Doublet: fires twice Triplet: fires 3 times Multiplet: fires >3 times
79
How does Seddon classify nerve injury?
Combo of functional status and histologic appearance
80
How is neurapraxia?
Mild degree of neural insult that results in conduction block of impulse across the affected segment
81
Describe EMG in neurapraxia
No fibs should be seen as axon is intact and muscle innervation maintained
82
What is axontmesis?
Only axon is disrupted w/ preserved perineurium and epineurium causes wallerian degeneration
83
What is the prognosis of axontmesis?
Good with axonal regeneration
84
What is neurotmesis?
Complete disruption of axon and all supporting CT structures.
85
What is the prognosis of neurotmesis?
Poor prognosis for complete recovery and requires surgery
86
How does Sunderland classify nerve injury?
Trauma with respect to the axon and supporting CT
87
What does compression neuropathy cause?
Thinning of myelin and widening of nodes of Ranvier, causing slowing of latency and velocity on NCS
88
What are the two types of electrodes used in EMG/NS?
Surface and needle
89
Describe a monopolar needle
Solid, stainless steel shaft coated in Teflon except bare metal tip which acts as the recording surface
90
Describe a concentric needle
Hollow, stainless steel hypodermic needle with central platinum or Nichrome-silver wire surrounded by expoxy resin
91
Where are the ground and reference in the monopolar needle?
Separate from needle
92
Where are the ground and reference in the concentric needle?
Ground is separate and reference in cannula
93
Describe pros and cons of the monopolar needle
Wider recording territory Distant reference makes recording "noisy" Teflon coating dec patient discomfort
94
Describe pros and cons of the concentric needle
Active and reference electrodes close together making them quieter More discomfort
95
Describe motor units found with concentric needles compared to monopolar
Smaller amp Fewer phases Comparable duration Less distant motor unit activity
96
Describe a single-fiber electrode
Modified modified concentric needle with small 25 um recording port opposite of electrodes bevel
97
What is an amplifier?
Device w/ ability to magnify wanted signals and minimize unwanted signals or noise
98
Which amplifier is connected to the active electrode?
Noninverting amplifer
99
Which amplifier is connected to the reference electrode?
Inverting amplifier
100
What does a high-frequency filter do?
Eliminates frequencies higher than its numeric designation and permits lower frequencies to pass
101
What does a low-frequency filter do?
Eliminates frequencies lower than its numeric designation and permits higher frequencies to pass
102
Is the stimulating cathode negative or positive?
Negative
103
Is the stimulating anode negative or positive?
Positive
104
Describe the optimal condition of the patients skin during EMG/NCS
Dry without perspiration, lotion, make up or other surface conductors
105
Where should the ground electrode be placed?
Between active and reference electrodes
106
What is the most effective what to reduce stimulus artifact?
Rotate anode about cathode