Ch13- Commercial Insurance Carriers Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

What is a rejected claim?
a. A claim that has passed through the payer’s initial claim processing and was determined not to be a covered service based on coverage criteria.
b. A claim that does not contain the necessary information for adjudication.
c. Both A & B
d. None of the above

A

b. A claim that does not contain the necessary information for adjudication.

Rationale: A rejected claim is a claim that does not contain the necessary information for adjudication.

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2
Q

Which modifier is used to indicate that an E/M service is unrelated to the global service?
a. 24
b. 25
c. 59
d. 79

A

a. 24

Rationale: Modifier 24 is an Unrelated Evaluation and Management Service by the Same Physician or Other Qualified Healthcare Professional During a Postoperative Period.

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3
Q

Which denial occurs when the claim is a liability case and was submitted to the health insurance?
a. Coordination of Benefits
b. Request for medical records
c. Claim not covered by insurer
d. Claim covered by other insurer

A

d. Claim covered by other insurer

Rationale: Similar to a coordination of benefits denial, a claim covered by other insurer denial occurs when the claim is a liability case such as auto or work-related accident.

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4
Q

Significant, separately identifiable evaluation and management service by the same physician or other qualified healthcare professional on the same day of the procedure or other service is which modifier?
a. 50
b. 25
c. 33
d. 24

A

b. 25

Rationale: Modifier 25—Significant, Separately Identifiable Evaluation and Management Service by the Same Physician or Other Qualified Healthcare Professional on the Same Day of the Procedure or Other Service.

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5
Q

Which of the following denials is one of the leading reasons a claim is denied and can be prevented by accurate intake information being collected every time?
a. Medical necessity
b. Coordination of Benefits
c. Request for medical records not received
d. Incorrect patient information

A

d. incorrect patient information
Rationale: Submitting incorrect patient demographic information to the insurance payer is one of the leading reasons a claim is rejected. Accurate intake information is imperative to avoid typographical errors.

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6
Q

For Aetna, how long does a provider have to file a reconsideration?
a. 60 calendar days from the date of service
b. 180 calendar days from the date of service
c. 60 calendar days from the date of the initial claim decision
d. 180 calendar days from the date of the initial claim decision

A

d. 180 calendar days from the date of the initial claim decision

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7
Q

According to the policy above, if a denial is received on a UnitedHealthcare claim, a reconsideration must be submitted within what time frame of the date of the EOB or PRA?
a. 12 months
b.180 days
c. 90 days
d. 60 days

A

a. 12 months

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8
Q

When submitting an appeal to Cigna for timely filing, which of the following is NOT required?
a. Original EOB.
b. Completed appeal form.
c. Documentation to justify reversal of the decision.
d. The patient’s complete medical chart.

A

d. The patient’s complete medical chart.

Rationale: To file an appeal to Cigna, submit the original EOB, a completed appeal form, and documentation that justifies why the decision should be reversed. Multiple forms can be found on Cigna’s website for billing dispute resolutions, appeal requests, and provider payment reviews. Some states have specific forms, so it is always best to check your provider contract for the proper process.

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9
Q

Which of the following includes provisions for the appeals process?
a. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
b. Peer Review Improvement Act
c. Omnibus Budget
Reconciliation Act
d. Federal Claims Collection Act

A

a. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

Rationale: The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (ACA) provides provisions for the appeals process. Under Section 2719, a health insurer offering group or individual coverage has to implement an effective appeals process for appeals of coverage determinations and claims.

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10
Q

If a provider wishes to submit for a single level provider payment review from Cigna, what is the timeframe for this type of dispute?

A.60 days
B.90 days
C.180 days
D.365 days

A

C. 180 days

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11
Q

Under what Federal Act must insurance companies implement effective appeals processes?

A. The Health Insurance Policies Act
B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
C. The Federal Records Act
D. The Social Security Act

A

B. The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

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12
Q

Which of the following can be appealed regarding a claim?

A. Timely filing
B. Request for medical records
C. Missing patient information
D. Termination of coverage

A

A. Timely filing

Rationale: Claims with missing patient information and termination of coverage are rejections and cannot be appealed. A request for medical records is the right of the payer when request for payment is made by a provider.

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13
Q

What is one way to assist in lowering denials for non-covered services?
A. Appeal all non-covered service denials
B. Call insurance companies before any services are rendered
C. Be aware of the most common exclusions in the office’s major plans
D. Keep every payer policy on file

A

C. Be aware of the most common exclusions in the office’s major plans

Rationale: A biller cannot be expected to know every exclusion that each plan carries but should be aware of the most common exclusions in the major plans that their office contracts with to ensure avoidance of this issue, when possible. Appeals for non-covered services are futile.

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14
Q

According to Aetna’s published guidelines, what is the timeframe for filing an appeal?
A. Within 60 calendar days of the initial claim decision
B. Within 180 calendar days of the initial claim decision
C. Within 60 calendar days of the previous decision
D. Within 30 calendar days of the previous decision

A

C. Within 60 calendar days of the previous decision

Rationale: According to Aetna’s timeframe for submission and response to reconsiderations and appeals, appeals must be filed within 60 calendar days of the previous decision.

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15
Q

What will happen if a claim for a service that the payer requires prior authorization for is sent without the prior authorization?
A. The payer will call regarding the authorization
B. It will be denied
C. It will still be paid
D. It will be paid at a reduced rate

A

B. It will be denied

Rationale: A claim will be denied if prior authorization or precertification data is not obtained or is missing on the claim.

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16
Q

If a claim is denied, investigated, and found to be denied in error, what should a biller do?
A. Refile the claim
B. Write the claim off
C. Balance bill the patient
D. Appeal the claim

A

D. Appeal the claim

Rationale: If a claim is denied, investigated, and found to be denied in error, an appeal should be filed. A biller needs to have a solid knowledge of each plan they appeal to, including filing deadlines.

17
Q

CPT codes 11400 and 12031 were reported on a claim. The insurance carrier denied 12031 as bundled with 11400. According to CPT® guidelines for Excision for Benign Lesions what action should the biller take?
A. Appeal the claim
B. Add modifier 59 to 12031 and submit a corrected claim
C. Add modifier 51 to 12031 and submit a corrected claim
D. Write-off 12031 as repairs are included in excisions

A

A. Appeal the claim

Rationale: According to the CPT guidelines, intermediate and complex repairs may be reported separately, in addition to, an excision. CPT® code 12031 is for an intermediate repair. The biller should appeal the decision.

18
Q

What is the process of determining which of two or more insurance policies will have the primary responsibility of processing a claim?
A. Participation
B. Authorization
C. Covered services
D. Coordination of benefits

A

D. Coordination of benefits

Rationale: Coordination of benefits is the process of determining which of two or more insurance policies will have the primary responsibility of processing a claim and the extent to which the other policies will contribute.

19
Q

Which regulations require a health insurer offering group or individual coverage to implement an effective appeal process for appeals of coverage determinations and claims?
A. False Claims Act
B. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act
C. Prompt Payment Act
D. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act

A

B. Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act

Rationale: The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act provides provisions for the appeals process. Under Section 2719, a health insurer offering group or individual coverage has to implement an effective appeal process for appeals of coverage determinations and claims.

20
Q

What should be done when a denial is received that states there is a global surgery package bundling issue?
A. Write it off
B. Appeal
C. Look at RBRVS only
D. Check RBRVS, CPT, and the payer’s policies

A

D. Check RBRVS, CPT, and the payer’s policies

Rationale: For bundled service and global surgery denials, RBRVS and CPT guidelines should be reviewed to determine if the services are bundled. Some payers do not follow RBRVS, so payer-specific contracts or policies may need to be reviewed for this information.

21
Q

An initial denial is received in the office from Aetna. The denial is investigated and the office considers that the payment was not according to their contract. According to Aetna’s policy, what must the biller do?
A. Refile the claim
B. Submit a Reconsideration
C. Submit a Level 2 appeal
D. Submit a Level 1 appeal

A

B. Submit a Reconsideration

Rationale: According to Aetna’s appeals process, a Reconsideration is a formal review of a claim’s reimbursements. If a provider believes that they were paid at an incorrect rate, paid not according to their contract, and/or invalid or incorrect coding decisions; they may ask for reconsideration on the claim. Claims that require reprocessing may require additional documentation, if necessary.

22
Q

What are some ways to avoid missing/invalid code denials on submitted claims?
I. QA coding staff
II. Code the same way all the time
III. Offer education to coding staff
IV. Use current year coding books

A. I, III
B. I, III, IV
C. I, IV
D. I, II, III

A

B. I, III, IV

Rationale: Current coding materials (books, software, encoders, etc.) should always be used to ensure that the most current codes are assigned on a claim. A biller needs to understand when other codes are required by a payer, such as HCPCS Level II codes by Medicare or other carriers, and Category III codes versus unlisted or other CPT® codes. QA of coding should be performed on a routine basis for all staff that assign codes. Education should be offered on coding and billing so staff can keep up with the latest methodologies and guidelines.

23
Q

A patient is involved in an accident at work and their commercial insurance is billed. What type of denial will be received?
A. Non-covered service
B. Coordination of benefits issue
C. Prior authorization issue
D. Other Coverage issue

A

D. Other Coverage issue

Rationale: Similar to a coordination of benefits issue, this denial is seen when the claim is a liability case. When a patient has had an auto or work-related accident, the commercial insurance plan will deny coverage until the workers’ compensation, auto insurance, or other liability carrier has been billed.

24
Q

Claim rejections are due to what?
A. Claims that do not contain necessary information for adjudication
B. Claims that do not meet coverage criteria
C. Claims that require medical record documentation
D. Claims that are already adjudicated

A

A. Claims that do not contain necessary information for adjudication

Rationale: A rejected claim is a claim that does not contain the necessary information for adjudication. Once the claim is resubmitted correctly, the claim will be processed.

25
A denial is received in the office indicating that a service was billed and denied due to bundling issues. The medical record is obtained, and upon review, it is documented that the second procedure is a staged procedure that was planned at the time of the initial procedure. When the claim is reviewed, no modifier was attached to the codes on the claim. What should be done to resolve the claim? A. Add modifier 58 to the procedure and follow the payer’s guidelines for appeals B. Write the claim off C. Refile the claim D. Balance bill the patient for the claim amount
A. Add modifier 58 to the procedure and follow the payer’s guidelines for appeals ## Footnote Rationale: Modifier 58 is used to indicate a procedure is staged/related to another procedure during a postoperative period. Since the claim was denied, the payer’s guidelines on filing appeals must be followed after modifier 58 is added to the procedure.
26
What is the limit called that payers allow to submit a claim or appeal? A. Liability limit B. Exclusion time C. Adjudication time D. Timely filing
D. Timely filing ## Footnote Rationale: Each payer has a timely filing limit that is published making all providers aware of the time that is granted to submit a claim for payment.
27
Which type of denial is more likely to happen when the patient is insured through an HMO? A. No referral B. Patient not eligible C. Not medically necessary D. Timely filing
A. No referral ## Footnote Rationale: A no referral or no authorization denial may frequently occur with HMO patients. Enrolled members may need services that require an authorization and referral from the member’s primary care provider (PCP). If that authorization is not given or not entered on the claim, a denial will be received.
28
A claim reported with ICD-10-CM code S31.40 is denied for an invalid ICD-10-CM code. What action should the biller take? A. S31.40 is for an injury and is not covered. B. S31.40 requires an additional character, pull the medical record or query the provider for the correct code. Submit the claim with the appropriate six-character code. C. Call the insurance carrier, S31.40 is a valid ICD-10-CM code. D. S31.40 requires an additional character, pull the medical record or query the provider for the correct code. Submit the claim with the appropriate seven-character code.
D. S31.40 requires an additional character, pull the medical record or query the provider for the correct code. Submit the claim with the appropriate seven-character code. ## Footnote Rationale: ICD-10-CM codes must be reported to the highest level of specificity. If a code requires seven characters, seven characters must be reported. Look in the ICD-10-CM Tabular List, notice S31.40 has an icon indicating seven characters are required. Because the code is only five characters, an X placeholder must be used in the sixth position to keep the seventh character in the seventh position.
29
What are two ways that non-covered service denials can be decreased in a practice? I. Require payment up front for all services II. Verify coverage before a major service III. Understand policies of largest payer contracts IV. Appeal all non-covered service denials A. II, III B. II, IV C. III, IV D. I, II
A. II, III ## Footnote Rationale: A biller cannot be expected to know every exclusion that each plan carries but should be aware of the most common exclusions in the major plans that their office contracts with to ensure avoidance of this issue, when possible. Whenever a major service is going to be performed, it is advisable for staff to verify coverage. If the payer is correct that the service is non-covered under the contract, an appeal will be futile.
30
Services that are appropriate to the evaluation and treatment of a disease, condition, illness or injury and consistent with the applicable standard of care are considered what? A. Non-covered B. Medically necessary C. Special services D. Coordination of benefits
B. Medically necessary ## Footnote Rationale: Medically necessary services are those healthcare services/products provided by healthcare entities, appropriate to the evaluation and treatment of a disease, condition, illness or injury and consistent with the applicable standard of care.
31
What can be done in the practice to ensure that liability denials will not be received? A. Always bill the patient’s commercial insurance first B. Send all injury claims to a patient’s employer C. Perform thorough intakes on patients that present with injuries D. Require patients to pay upfront when they present with an injury
C. Perform thorough intakes on patients that present with injuries ## Footnote Rationale: Liability issues can be avoided with a thorough intake of the patient at the time of the visit. It should not be assumed that just because there is a commercial insurance card on file that it should always be billed. Nor, should it be assumed that a patient was injured at work, the practice should always bill the employer.
32
According to Cigna’s appeals process, how many levels of internal appeals are offered? A. Four B. One C. Three D. Two
B. One ## Footnote Rationale: Cigna offers a single-level appeal before going into arbitration.
33
Which of the following is a coordination of benefits issue? A. Submitting a claim without medical records B. Submitting a claim for a known non-covered service C. Submitting a claim to commercial insurance for a work injury D. Submitting a secondary claim without a primary insurance EOB
D. Submitting a secondary claim without a primary insurance EOB ## Footnote Rationale: Coordination of benefit denials may be related to the fact that a claim was submitted to a secondary insurance without the primary insurance explanation of benefits (EOB) information. The denial may be related to the fact that a secondary insurance was billed as a primary insurance by mistake.
34
Which of the following modifiers will appropriately bypass the NCCI bundling edits? I. Modifier 25 II. Modifier 52 III. Modifier 62 IV. Modifier 58 A. I, II, & IV B. I, IV C. I, II, & III D. II & IV
B. I, IV ## Footnote Rationale: The modifiers that may be used to bypass the NCCI edits include: 24, 25, 27, 57, 58, 59, 78, 79, and 91.
35
When the Cigna appeals process has been exhausted, what happens if the provider still disagrees with the decision? A. The claim goes into arbitration. B. There is no way to dispute a single-level appeal C. The claim is sent to a second level of appeal. D. The provider must send a letter of explanation to the appeal board.
A. The claim goes into arbitration. ## Footnote Rationale: A single-level provider payment review must be initiated within 180 calendar days from the date of the initial payment or denial decision from Cigna. Times may differ by provider agreement. The appeal will be performed by a reviewer not involved in the initial decision. The reviewer will make a decision based on the provider’s agreement terms and/or the patient’s benefit plan within 60 days. After exhausting the internal appeals process, the healthcare provider may go through arbitration.