Ch3: Normal Procedures

Question 1

What much each flight crew carry on each flight?

Answer 1

● Flight crew licence including medical validity certificate
● Passport (international only)
● Visas as required
● Identity card

Question 2

During normal cockpit preparation, the activation of some systems may create a
hazard outside the aircraft. Flight crew shall ensure that any such system is clear,
prior to (3):

Answer 2

● resetting CBs
● starting the APU
● connecting electrical power to the aircraft.

Question 3

CAUTION: Prior to taxi, a ground clearance shall be obtained before operating which systems (4):

Answer 3

– any hydraulic system is pressurised
– any wing flap or slat is moved
– an engine start
– any reverse lever is actuated.

Question 4

When two systems are fitted, their use should be ________.

Answer 4

alternated

Question 5

Assumed temperature reduced-thrust take-offs are not permitted towards _______.

Answer 5

runway WIP in which personnel or equipment are within the runway strip

Question 6

The take-off briefing is required before every take-off. It shall consist of three
components.

Answer 6

1. emergency briefing
2. departure briefing (T-CTWO)
3. performance briefing

Question 7

A preparation phase is required prior to the briefing being delivered. The preparation
for departure requires that (5):

Answer 7

● FCOM procedures are complete
● FMC has been loaded and checked
● navigation aids are set
● each pilot has read the departure airport’s Route Guide pages
● any questions about the preparation phase have been resolved.

Question 8

When do TC-TWO?

Answer 8

After preparation phase

Question 9

WARNING: In the event of an emergency when the aircraft is moving during
pushback or pull-forward, either the flight crew or Headset Operator shall identify the requirement to immediately stop the
aircraft as follows:

Answer 9

Flight crew or Headset Operator, “STOP! STOP! STOP!”

Question 10

During engine start, words used for unscheduled shut down?

Answer 10

“Cut Cut Cut”

Question 11

After disconnect, the Headset Operator will stand clear within view of the flight
deck and signal that it is safe to taxi the aircraft. Flight crew will acknowledge this
clearance (day / night):

Answer 11

● by day, with a thumbs-up signal from the appropriate side
● by night or in conditions of low visibility, by flashing an appropriate external
light once (eg taxi or runway turn-off light).

Question 12

To recall the Headset Operator after disconnect, flash an appropriate external light _____ times.

Answer 12

three

Question 13

At all times when manoeuvring on the ground the PF and PM must have access to an ________.

Answer 13

airport chart

Question 14

When taxiing at high gross weight, or for a long distance, speed should be restricted
to _____kt or less.

Answer 14

20

Question 15

When turning on a wet taxiway, or when making a sharp turn under any conditions,
speed should not exceed ____ kt.

Answer 15

10

Question 16

Taxi speed shall never exceed _____ kt.

Answer 16

30

Question 17

Unless circumstances permit, a “Ready” for take-off call should not be made, or
runway entry and line-up clearance accepted, until the _____ has been received. Take-off will not commence until a _______ has been received.

Answer 17

cabin clearance

cabin clearance

Question 18

Prior to crossing a runway (2):

Answer 18

● pilots shall check and state:
– receipt of a crossing clearance
– stop-bar lights (where installed) are extinguished
– runway and final approach are clear of traffic
● select strobe lights ON and consider using other exterior lights, such as runway
turn‒off lights, until crossing is complete.

Question 19

When an aircraft is manoeuvring under its own power to a gate, an approved _________ must be used.

Answer 19

guidance system (either a visual docking system or ground marshaller)

Question 20

If the actual or forecast wind is greater than ______ kts, the parking brake shall remain set, unless in consultation with ground personnel operational conditions, (eg high brake temps) require the parking brake be released.

Answer 20

25

Question 21

When a known condition that could endanger ground crew exists (eg hot brakes), the aircraft _____ will be left on as a warning not to approach the aircraft, except to establish contact via service interphone and determine subsequent action.

Answer 21

rotating beacon

Question 22

What type of departure is preferred?

Answer 22

An RNAV based procedure

Question 23

Can a visual departure be flown?

Answer 23

Yes, when conditions permit

Question 24

Before take-off, pilots shall check (5):

Answer 24

● take-off performance data is valid for the runway and take-off position
● commanded thrust is valid
● WXR/TERR set as required
● relationship between the FMC position and runway position is reasonable on
the EHSI/ND
● FMAs are correct.

Question 25

Distractions during the line-up phase are a leading cause of runway incursions. To mitigate these distractions, only the items listed shall be carried out whilst entering a runway (4):

Answer 25

● confirm runway and final approach are clear of traffic ● stop-bar lights (where installed) are extinguished ● select strobe lights ON ● select/verify transponder TA/RA.

Question 26

Select _______ ON after take-off clearance received.

Answer 26

landing lights

Question 27

No turns shall be commenced below _____ ft AAL, except as required by departure or emergency procedures.

Answer 27

500

Question 28

Aircraft shall be operated at a maximum of ______ kt, or minimum clean speed if greater, when below _____ feet to mitigate the effect of bird-strike damage.

Answer 28

250kts | 5000 ft

Question 29

The pilot of an EDTO operation shall ensure the _______ for enroute alternates appearing in the despatch release confirm the availability of those alternates prior to the __________.

Answer 29

weather and NOTAMs | EDTO entry point

Question 30

On international flights a fuel log is to be maintained. At each reporting point throughout the cruise, fuel remaining versus flight-planned fuel required is to be recorded in the CFP. For flights having multiple short waypoint spacing, CFP entries shall be made at ATC boundary changes and at intervals not exceeding ______ minutes.

Answer 30

30

Question 31

When, having committed to land at a specific aerodrome, it is calculated that any change to the existing clearance to that aerodrome may result in landing with less than planned fixed fuel reserve (30 minutes holding fuel) the PIC shall declare _______.

Answer 31

“MINIMUM FUEL”

Question 32

If the predicted fuel reserves available upon landing at the nearest aerodrome where a safe landing can be made will be less than the fixed fuel reserve (30 minutes holding fuel), the PIC shall declare _________ .

Answer 32

a fuel emergency “MAYDAY MAYDAY | MAYDAY FUEL”

Question 33

The approach briefing should be completed prior to _____ but not later than _____ ft.

Answer 33

TOD | 20,000ft

Question 34

A preparation phase is required prior to the briefing being delivered. The preparation for arrival requires that (6):

Answer 34

● FCOM procedures are complete ● FMC has been loaded and checked ● navigation aids are set ● each pilot has read the destination airport’s Route Guide pages ● the touchdown zone limits should be discussed ● any questions about the preparation phase have been resolved.

Question 35

Cabin Clearance | At or above 20,000 ft flight crew will (2):

Answer 35

● generate a single chime and ensure the seat belt sign is illuminated ● make the announcement: “Flight attendants, prepare the cabin for landing”.

Question 36

Cabin Clearance | At or above 10,000 ft flight crew will (1):

Answer 36

● generate a double chime. This is the indication to the flight attendants that the aircraft is about to enter a critical phase of flight.

Question 37

If a cabin clearance for landing is not received by the appropriate time, flight crew shall make a PA instructing the flight attendants to _____________.

Answer 37

immediately take their seats for landing

Question 38

Visual Approaches | To facilitate a possible change to an instrument approach procedure, the crew shall (2):

Answer 38

● tune appropriate approach aids | ● set inbound course (as applicable).

Question 39

A landing performance calculation shall be completed for all landings where landing distance is expected to be significantly increased as a result of (4):

Answer 39

● environmental conditions ● aircraft weight ● aircraft configuration ● elevation

Question 40

Regardless, a landing performance calculation shall be completed for all landings at runways with a LDA less than ______ m.

Answer 40

2500m

Question 41

Flap extension should not normally be commenced until at or near __________.

Answer 41

the minimum | speed for the current flap configuration

Question 42

With autothrottle disengaged, or during non-normal flap operation, it is recommended that the crew delay setting the new command speed until the flaps reach the ________ .

Answer 42

selected position

Question 43

On approach with autopilot engaged the PF shall guard the thrust levers and primary flight controls from at least _____ft AAL.

Answer 43

1000

Question 44

when the visibility is less than 800 m shall be flown: – by the _______, unless command training is being carried out – with a maximum crosswind component of kts – _______ when equipment permits – to an ________ where possible.

Answer 44

PIC as PF 15kts autocoupled autoland

Question 45

Autolands may only be carried out at _______ airfields. Refer to Route Guide.

Answer 45

company-approved

Question 46

All ILS/GLS approaches planned to terminate in an autoland shall follow _____ procedures.

Answer 46

LMO

Question 47

Before any RNAV(GNSS) approach is flown, or VNAV mode is used to fly an NPA promulgated on a ground-based aid the ________ shall be carried out.

Answer 47

Approach Integrity Check

Question 48

Except for approaches specified in the Route Guide, circling approaches are to be flown not lower than published MDA or _____ ft AAL, whichever is the higher. Visibility shall be the greater of _____m or published minimum visibility.

Answer 48

1000ft | 5000m

Question 49

When visual reference has been established on a circling approach, descent below published MDA or 1000 ft AAL (whichever is the higher) is at the discretion of the PIC, provided that (3):

Answer 49

● visual reference can be maintained throughout the circling approach; and ● the landing threshold or approach lights or other marking identifiable with the approach end of the runway are visible; and ● the aircraft can make a continuous descent to land using normal rates of descent and normal manoeuvres.

Question 50

Stable gate configuration requirements (3)

Answer 50

● gear selected down by 2,000 ft AAL ● landing flap selected by 1,500 ft AAL ● landing checklist complete by 1,000 ft AAL

Question 51

Stable gate height?

Answer 51

1000ft AAL

Question 52

An approach is considered stabilised when all of the following criteria are met: ● the aircraft is established on the correct _______ ● the aircraft speed is not more than __ kt above, or __ kt below, target airspeed. Target airspeed is the commanded airspeed for the existing flap setting. ● the aircraft is in the correct landing _________ ● sink rate is no greater than ft per minute; if an approach requires a sink rate greater than ______ft per minute, a special briefing should be conducted. ● thrust setting is appropriate for the aircraft configuration (not ______ ).

Answer 52

flight path 10 above / 5kt below target airspeed landing configuration 1,000ft per minute not idle

Question 53

An _____ shall be filed for any unstable approach.

Answer 53

OSR

Question 54

Pilots should aim to touch down between ___ m and ___m from the landing threshold.

Answer 54

300-450m

Question 55

Touchdown shall occur within the ______.

Answer 55

touchdown zone

Question 56

A _______ shall be carried out if a landing will not be achieved within the _______ .

Answer 56

go-around | touchdown zone

Question 57

The touchdown zone commences ____m beyond the landing threshold and ends at the lesser of (3):

Answer 57

150m ● 900 m from the landing threshold, or ● the end of the first third of the landing distance available, or ● touchdown zone limit markings or lights

Question 58

During the landing roll: ● ________ should be used ● the primary method of disarming the autobrakes is via the ● more than reverse ____ thrust shall be used until landing performance is assured ● Reversers shall not be stowed until engines have stabilized at reverse _____ ● speedbrakes shall not be stowed above ________

Answer 58

``` autobrakes toe brakes idle idle taxi speed ```

Question 59

It is company policy that aircraft complete a sucessful autoland at least once every ___ days.

Answer 59

30

Question 60

Take-off and landing of company aircraft is NOT permitted if: ● _________, ________ or is falling at the airport ● braking action is reported as worse than ______ .

Answer 60

moderate or heavy freezing rain, heavy freezing drizzle, or heavy sleet POOR

Question 61

The PIC must, when in doubt about the aerodynamic cleanliness of the aircraft within _____ minutes of take-off, either have a carried out or request a further __________.

Answer 61

five minutes | contamination check or further de-icing/anti-icing treatment

Question 62

Operational responsibility, with regard to de-icing/anti-icing, transfers from the certifying engineer or authorised person to the PIC at the moment _______.

Answer 62

the aircraft starts moving by its own power

Question 63

Company aircraft shall not take off or land when the following adverse weather conditions exist in the vicinity of the airport and cannot be avoided: ● ______ of a severity that, if encountered, would exceed the performance capability of the aircraft type, and/or ● _______ activity, and/or ● Severe ______ conditions, and/or ● __________ conditions

Answer 63

Wind shear Heavy thunderstorm frontal Line-squall

Question 64

If the turbulence is assessed as severe, the crew must contact _________ as soon as practical.

Answer 64

Maintenance Operations Centre (MOC)

Question 65

All wake turbulence encounters are to be reported by _____ as soon as practicable.

Answer 65

OSR

Question 66

Lightning strikes generally occur in cloud or below the anvil of a thunderstorm from ______ ft above the freezing level to _____ ft below the freezing level (-10°C to 5°C).

Answer 66

5000ft | 2500ft

Question 67

When a lightning strike occurs, crew shall complete (3):

Answer 67

● A Technical Log/eLog ● An OSR. Include the Technical Log/eLog number. ● A Lightning Strike Event Questionnaire

Question 68

A high-visibility vest and ear protection is provided on each aircraft and ______ be worn by flight crew at all airports when carrying out exterior checks.

Answer 68

must