Chap 15 and 16 Flashcards by Danton Dye

Structures and products that immune cells detect and respond to are called

a. prostaglandins
b. NODs
c. PAMPS
d. TLRs

c. PAMPS

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Which of the following proteins are part of the first line of defense against microbial invasion?

a. TLRs
b. Interferons
c. Defensins
d. NOD proteins

C. defensins

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Which of the following contributes to protecting the eyes from microbial invasion?

a. tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes
b. tears mechanically flush particles from the eyes.
c. a mucus layer traps and removes microbes

A. tears contain lysozyme and salt and mechanically flush particles from the eyes.

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Which cell becomes a macrophage when leaving the blood stream?

a. monocyte
b. eosinophil
c. basophil
d. neutrophil
e. lymphocyte

A. monocyte

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Mucus and sweat contain ____ which damage and kill bacteria.

a. Nod proteins
b. antimicrobial peptides
c. complement fragments
d. salts
e. antibodies

b. antimicrobial peptides

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Which of the following statements about eosinophil function is true?

a. They identify and spare normal cells
b. they produce defensins
c. they secrete toxins onto virally infected cells.
d. they attach to the surface of parasitic helminths and produce toxins that kill the parasite.

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TLRs are

a. non specific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
b. phagocyte receptors that detect PAMPs
c. present in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc.
d. the coatings of pathogens by complement

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Which of the following are phagocytic cells found in the epidermis?

a. dendritic cells
b. natural killer lymphocytes
c. wandering macrophages
d. microglia

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Which of the following characteristics is shared by the skin and mucous membranes?

a. lysozyme are always present.
b. serums may be present
c. They are both constantly shedding and replacing cells.
d. they both have cilia

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Which of the following cells increase in number during a helminth infection?

a. lymphocytes
b. neutrophils
c. eosinophils
d. basophils

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Which of the following cells can use nonphagocytic means to kill bacteria?

a. eosinophils
b. neutrophils
c. natural killer cells
d. both a and b

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Opsonization is

a. the sticking of monocytes to the wall of the bloodvessels at the site of infection
b. nonspecific leukocyte secretion of toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells.
c. damage resulting in cells lysis.
d. the coating of a pathogen by complement to facilitate phagocytosis

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How does aspirin act to decrease the symptoms of inflammation?

a. it prevents complement activation.
b. it blocks the release of histamine.
c. it is an antioxoid for most microbial toxins.
d. it acts as an antiprostaglandin

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Response to specific pathogens that can improve with subsequent exposure is

a. innate immunity
b. the first line of defense.
c. the second line of defense.
d. the third line of defense.

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Protection from infection known as species resistance is a result of

a. the presence of phagocytes in the tissues
b. the absence of receptors required for microbial attachment.
c. the salty acidic condition of normal skin
d. both the absence of necessary receptors and lack of suitable environment in the body

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Which of the following is the best definition of “microbial antagonism”?

a. the presence of normal microbiota that can become pathogens under certain conditions
b. the ability of microbiota to mutate into pathogens
c. the presence of normal microbiota that protect the body by competing with pathogens in a variety of ways to prevent pathogens from invading from invading the body
d. the presence of resident bacteria on the surface of the body and in cavities that connect to the surface

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Which of the following leukocytes have granules in their cytoplasm that stain blue with methylene blue?

a. eosinophils
b. basophils
c. lymphocytes
d. monocytes

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Which of the following areas of the body have mucous membranes?

a. mouth, nasal cavity, and urinary system
b. mouth
c. urinary system
d. mouth and nasal cavity

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Which of the following substances stimulates the phagocytic activity of phagocytes?

a. antiviral proteins
b. beta interferons
c. alpha interferons
d. gamma interferons

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Which of the following statements regarding the surface of the skin is FALSE?

a. it is salty
b. it is acidic
c. it has normal microbiota
d. it has goblet cells

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Receptors known as NOD proteins detect molecules associated with microbes

a. in the extracellular fluid
b. in the phagolysosome
c. in they cytoplasm
d. in the cytoplasmic membrane.

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The phenomenon known as chemotaxis is defined as

a. the coating of a pathogen by complement .
b. the squeezing of cells through the lining of capillaries.
c. an increase in allergies and helminth infection.
d. the movement of a cell toward or away from chemical stimulus

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First line of defense may be described as

a. the release of prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes.
b. damage resulting in cell lysis
c. intact skin, mucous membranes, sebum, tears, and so forth.
d. the coating of pathogen by complement

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Which of the following is the key difference in the roles of the classical and alternative pathways of the complement system?

a. the range of microbe types that can be targeted
b. triggering inflammation
c. the effectiveness in killing gram- bacteria
d. production of chemotactic factors

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Fever is beneficial during viral infection because the higher temperature a. prevents viral infection of fibroblast b. denatures viral proteins c. results in virus being shed in sweat d. increases the effectiveness of interferons.

Which of the following are among the activities of neutrophils? a. phagocytosis b. formation of neutrophil extracellular traps c. formation of neutrophil extracellular traps, phagocytosis d. formation of neutrophil extracellular traps, phagocytosis, and production of nitric oxide

Which of the following statements concerning the alternative complement system is true? a. it works best on gram+ bacteria b. its activation is independent of antibodies. c. it is not useful in the early stages of fungal infection. d. it is more efficient than the classical pathway.

Mucous membranes are quite thin and fragile. How can such delicate tissue provide defense against microbial invaders? a. the mucus contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals and molecules b. the mucus secreted by the mucous membrane physically traps microbes. c. both the mucus and the outer layer of cells are shed frequently d. the mucus physically traps microbes, contains a variety of antimicrobial chemicals, and shed constantly, along with the outermost layer of cells.

Which of the following pairs is mismatched? a. microglial cells; spleen b. alveolar macrophage; lungs c. dendritic cells; epidermis d. macrophages; lymph nodes

Which of the following iron-binding proteins is NOT part of the body's iron storage and transport systems? a. gastroferritin b. ferritin c. lactoferrin d. siderophores

Which of the following statements regarding phagocyte recognition of pathogens is true? a. lectins on the surface of microbes are born by chemokine receptors. b. NOD proteins on the surface of microbes are detected by TLRs c. MACs on the surface of microbes are detected by NOD proteins. d. TLRs in the phagocyte cytoplasmic membrane bind surface structures of microbes

Which of the following statements is true of eosinophils? a. they release prostaglandins and leukotrienes in response to microbes. b. they secrete toxins onto the surface of helminth parasites. c. they are in intact skin, sebum, tears, etc d. they decline during allergic reaction

Which of the following are chemotactic factors for phagocytes? a. interferons b. chemokine and peptide fragments from complement c. chemokines d. interferons and chemokine

The ____ play a role in preventing neoplastic cells from progressing to cancer. a. eosinophils b. NK cells c. Mast cells d. basophils

The complement cascade and its by-products contribute to a. attracting phagocytes to sites of infection b. triggering inflammation c. triggering the release of interferons. d. both triggering inflammation and attracting phagocytes to sites of infection.

Wandering macrophages recognize microorganisms by means of a. TLRs b. NOD proteins c. lectins d. both TLRs and NOD proteins

Lectins specific for mannose can lead to an attack on fungi by a. macrophages b. neutrophils c. complement d. NK cells

Which of the following leukocyte functions do macrophages carry out? a. secretion of leukotrienes b. phagocytosis of pathogens and debris c. phagocytosis of pathogens and production of NETs d. phagocytosis of pathogens and secretion of alpha interferons and leukotrienes

Which of the following substances is responsible for the edema associated with inflammation? a. leukotrienes b. interferon c. histamine d. both leukotrienes and histamine

Which of the following is NOT an example of a walled-off site of infection that contains a fluid made of dead and dying tissue cells, leukocytes, and pathogens? A. tumor b. boil c. pustule d. abscess

The first and second lines of defense against microbial invasion are part of a. species resistance b. innate immunity c. microbial antagonism d. adaptive immunity

The leukocytes called natural killer lymphocytes a. increase in allergies and helminth infection. b. are nonspecific leukocytes that secrete toxins onto the surface of virally infected cells. c. respond to the coating of a pathogen by complement d. are specialists in killing bacteria

Alpha and beta interferons a. produce no adverse effects in the body. b. help protect virus-infected cells from the effects of the pathogen c. are produced by infected fibroblasts and macrophages d. protect the cells that secrete them from being invaded by a virus

The components of the second line of defense against microbes may be characterized as a. detecting the unique features of specific pathogens. b. passive barriers c. mechanisms to strengthen the first line of defense d. responders to invasion

Which complement protein is the key to activating the alternative pathway of complement activation? a. c1 b. c2 c. c3 d. c4

True/False | Histamine and prostaglandins are involved in inflammatory reactions?

True

True/False | Neutrophils can kill bacteria by nonphagocytic mechanisms.

True

True/False | The various phagocytic cells of the second line of defense target specific microbes by structures.

False

True/False | Interferons alpha and beta are effective against viruses

True

True/False | Sweat can cause damage to bacteria because it contains salt and lysozyme

True

True/False | The resident microbiota have no role in defense against pathogen invasion.

False

True/False | The growth of some microbes is inhibited by elevated body temperature.

True

True/False | Some toll-like receptors (TLRs) are found on the surface of host cells and recognize specific microbial molecules

True

True/False | The alternative pathway for complement activation is more effective than the classical pathway

False

True/False Inflammation is an important part of the body's first line of defense, and it involves migration of phagocytes to the area.

False

The immunological synapse refers to the a. interaction between lymphocytes and foreign antigens to produce memory cells b. interaction of the many cytokines produced by different immunological cells. c. activation of a B cell to become a plasma cell. d. interaction between a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell to produce a specialized contact area for communication between these cells.

You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the... a. Spleen b. Lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla) c. Lymph nodes of the groin d. Lymph nodes of the neck (cervical) e. appendix

The perforin-granzyme pathway involves a. binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis. b. the production of fever, which kills the pathogen. c. the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen d. the synthesis of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells.

Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE? a. Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its VCR b. they are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen. c. Scientist estimate that each person forms at least 10^11 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs. D. they are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites.

The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because ____ a. the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs. b. complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs c. red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen. d. RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents.

Which of the following is true of chemokines? a. They are chemotactic factors for leukocytes. b. They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate c. They ensure production of enough leukocytes. d. They are substances used to signal between leukocytes

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease? a. naturally acquired passive immunity b. artificially acquired passive immunity c. artificially acquired active immunity d. naturally acquired active immunity

Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC II antigens and helps stabilize the binding of epitopes to T cell receptors? a. CCR5 b. CD26 c. CCR3 d. CD4

Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in the body? a. the bone marrow b. the liver c. the spleen e. both bone marrow and the spleen

Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces ____ immunity. a. natural passive b. natural active c. artifcial active d. artificial passive

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name? a. they become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific. b. activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity an function. c. lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed. d. activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body

Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT? a. the appendix b. the spleen c. lymphoid tissue in the small intestine d. lymphoid tissue in the respiratory tract

Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is TRUE? a. cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target. b. cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated. c. a single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells d. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide.

How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented? a. Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses. b. T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion. c. T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated. d. Clonal deletion of t cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE? a. B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope. b. lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized c. once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs. e. lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes

A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer test. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation? a. the child has neither b. the child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections c. the child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV d. the results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion

Which of the following is correct concerning interleukin 4 (IL-4)? a. it is a chemotactic factor for leukocytes. b. it stimulates phagocytes c. virally infected cells produce it d. it is needed for B lymphocyte activation and differention.

What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it? a. display of epitope-MHC 1 complexes on the surface of the cell b. activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell c. suppression of the immune response to the microbe d. display of microbial epitope- MHC II complexes on the cell surface

Antigens are ... a. proteins the body produces against invading substances. b. specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign. c. enzymes secreted to destroy a pathogens cell wall. d. cells that protect the body against invaders.

Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is true? a. the antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for years. b. they can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis c. they live for many years and function as memory cells d. they are descended from activated T cells.

Which of the following is the function of gamma interferon? a. causes basophils and eosinophils to degranulate b. stimulates phagocytes c. activates and differentiates B lymphocytes d. ensures production of enough leukocytes

Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is False? a. antibodies have two long peptide chains known as heavy chains. b. antibodies have two short peptide chains known as ligt chains c. antibodies are formed of four polypeptide chains d. the heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.

Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they a. have unique light chains. b. are Y-shaped molecules c. are present in the plasma d. are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers.

Which of the following statements concerning specific immunity is FALSE? a. it is the body's ability to respond to specific invading pathogens b. it changes little with repeated exposure to the same pathogen c. it is the third line of defense d. it has memory

Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as ______ responses. a. primary b. autoimmune c. allergic d. memory

Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies? a. they are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the intial phases of an immune response. b. they can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity c. they interact with phagocytes and NK cells d. they can cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate

Which of the following is an exogenous antigen? a. a bacterium inside a cell b. a bacterium outside a cell c. a virus inside a cell d. a noninfected human cell

The antibody immune response is attributed to the action of a. monocytes b. neutrophils c. B lymphocytes d. T lymphocytes

the Fc portion of an antibody is formed by a. the one heavy chain b. the light chains only c. portions of both of the heavy chains only d. the variable regions of the light chains

Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE? a. They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx). b. they can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes. c. they can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens. d. they can prevent virus attachment to host cells.

Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE? a. T lymphocytes directly attack cells and produce the cell-mediated immune response. b. T lymphocytes have TCRs that recognize antigen only if it is bound to MHC c. they are three types of T lymphocytes d. T lymphocytes produce antibody molecules

What is the role of interleukins? a. signaling between leukocytes b. complement activation c. ensuring production of enough leukocytes d. chemotaxis of leukocytes

Class II MHC are found on a. Cytoplasmic membranes of nucleated cells. b. professional antigen-presenting cells c. the skin d. muscle

Which of the following cytokines helps regulate inflammation? a. IL-12 b. IL-4 c. chemokines d. tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are a. NK lymphocytes and neutrophils b. B lymphocytes and T lymphocyte c. Macrophages and neutrophils d. macrophages and eosinophils

Large accumulations of unactivated self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for specific antigenic determinants are found in a. the MALT and lymph nodes b. the MALT, lymph nodes, and thymus c. lymph nodes d. the MALT

What types of antigens are bound to class I MHC proteins? a. autoantigens b. endogenous antigens c. exogenous antigens d. both autoantigens and enogenous antigens

IgE antibodies are best described as a. the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response b. the antibodies found in body secretions c. a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation d. the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC)

The most prevalent type of antibody in the blood is a. IgD b. IgM c. IgE d. IgG e. IgA

Major histocompatibility antigens are a. antigens attached to foreign invaders. b. antigens that provoke allergic reactions c. not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign antigens d. glycoproteins found in the cytoplasmic membranes of most vertebrate animal cells

Which of the following function in agglutination? a. IgE antibodies b. IgG antibodies c. IgA antibodies d. IgD antibodies e. Ig A and IgG antibodies

Which of the following molecules would contain T-independent antigens? a. phospholipids b. Lipoproteins c. polysaccharides d. steroids

Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes? a. growth factors b. interleukins c. chemokines d. interferons

True/False A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants.

False

True/False | Some plasma cells persist long after an infection and contribute to secondary immune responses.

False

True/False | When a T cell's CD95L binds to the CD95 on a target cell, antibodies are formed.

False

True/False | Molecules with a molecular mass less than 5000 daltons can become antigens when they bind to carrier molecules.

True

True/False | Immature B lymphocytes undergo clonal deletion in the bone marrow.

True

True/False | During an infection with Listeria, an intracellular bacterium, APCs will present antigen on MHC II molecules

False

True/False | Large molecules such as polymers make good antigens

False

True/False | The MALT lacks the tough outer capsule of a lymph node but functions in the same way.

True

True/False | IgG antibodies have a variety of mechanisms for acting on antigens.

True

True/False Cytokines are soluble regulatory proteins that act as intercellular signals and include substances such as interleukins, interferon, and growth factors

True

Chap 15 and 16 Flashcards

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