Chapt 2 part 2 Flashcards
(98 cards)
1
Q
A
2
Q
What are the two types of rescue hoists? What are their variable speeds?
A
Breeze-Eastern – 0-215fpm
Lucas-Western – 0-250fpm
3
Q
What weights are the rescue hoist brake, boom, and hook rated to?
A
brake = 600 lbs.
boom = 1000 lbs.
hook = 3000 lbs.
4
Q
How many feet of useable cable does the rescue hoist have? What is different about the first and last 20’ of cable?
A
the hoist contains 200’ of useable cable
the first and last 20’ are bright orange to warn of end approaching
5
Q
From the cockpit, the pilots can control the rescue hoist at a fixed speed of what?
A
100 fpm
6
Q
In backup control power, the hoist is controlled at a fixed speed of what? What do you lose in backup control?
A
85 fpm
the limit switches are inoperative in backup control
7
Q
What function do the limit switches for the rescue hoist serve?
A
whenever the hoist issuing raised or lowered at a speed exceeding 50 fpm, it will automatically decelerate to 50 fpm approx. 10’ from full-up or 5’ from full-down
8
Q
On the scratchpad, the burn rate in lbs./hr is an average of over how much time?
A
the burn rate over the last 6 minutes
9
Q
Where does the IFF transponder pull current altitude from?
A
the backup altimeter
10
Q
The SO station receives the LAWS tone based on which pilot’s DH setting?
A
the right seat pilot
11
Q
What does the shimmy damper do?
A
causes both the tail gear wheels to rotate at the same rate
preventing aircraft tail oscillations during taxi, takeoff, and running landings
12
Q
What may occur during a single-EGI failure in a coupled hover?
A
altitude changes of +/- 40’ from what is selected on the HVR ALT potentiometer may occur
13
Q
ADHEELS system operation
A
Advanced Helicopter Emergency Egress Lighting System provides lighting to the upper half of the cabin door and SO window.
activated by crash/inversion sensor by any of the following:
- fresh or saltwater immersion
- impact force of 11-13 G’s or greater
- attitude change of 100 +/- 5 deg or greater (pitch or roll)
will remain illuminated for 45 minutes
14
Q
IHEELS system operation
A
Individual Helicopter Emergency Egress Lighting System provides lighting of both the cabin door and SO window jettison handles.
activated by crash/inversion sensor by any of the following:
- fresh or saltwater immersion
- attitude changes of 100 +/- 5 deg or greater (pitch or roll)
15
Q
How many aircrewman safety belt anchor points are located in the cabin?
A
5
one above the SO seat, two aft of the xmsn access cover, one above the sonobuoy launcher, and one in the tunnel
16
Q
All Stores Jettison function
A
completed within 7 seconds
jettisons all external stores (excluding CMDS) and launches each sonobuoy in sequence (if pressurized)
17
Q
HYD LEAK TEST requirements
“BRAAW”
A
“BRAAW”
- Backup Pump AUTO
- Rotors engaged
- AC power on
- All reservoirs fulL
- Weight on Wheels
18
Q
Automatic Backup Pump ON initiated when:
A
[#1 HYD PUMP]
[#2 HYD PUMP]
[#1 RSVR LOW]
[#1 TAIL SERVO ON]
19
Q
Name the 10 lights/cautions associated with the HYD LEAK TEST
A
1 RSVR LO
#2 RSVR LO
BACKUP RSVR LO
SAS
BOOST SERVO OFF
AFCS DEGRADEd
#1 TAIL RTR SERVO
#2 TAIL RTR SERVO ON
BACKUP PUMP ON
MASTER CAUTION
20
Q
What type of fuel system do we have?
A
crashworthy, suction-type system
21
Q
What portion of the main tank is self-sealing?
A
the lower 1/3
22
Q
What is the capacity of the main tank?
A
590 gallons or 4,012lbs. of JP-5
23
Q
What is the interconnect level for the left and right tank?
A
270-600lbs.
24
Q
How is the fuel weighed?
A
each tank has a fuel probe that is a capacitance-type sensor that employs fuel as a dialectic to measure the fuel weight
25
What creates the required suction to draw fuel from the cells?
the engine driven boost pump
26
Describe the fuel flow.
main tanks -- fuel selector levers -- engine driven boost pump -- pressure sensor -- fuel filter -- HMU -- fuel/oil heat exchanger -- ODV -- engine for combustion
27
What are the four main functions of the ODV?
1. Provides main fuel flow to the 12 fuel injectors.
2. Purges fuel overboard after shutdown to prevent coking in the injectors.
3. Traps fuel upstream in the fuel/oil heat exchanger so that system priming is not required prior to the next start.
4. Returns fuel back to the HMU if the Np overspeed protection is energized or the EDECU hot start prevention is activated.
28
The external fuel tanks are ______ and _______ hardened.
crashworthy and ballistically
29
What is the capacity of the external fuel tank?
113 or 120 gallons
30
What two sensors does the external fuel tank have?
the low-level thermistor sensor and an overflow thermistor sensor if there is fuel in the external tank vent line
31
What is the rate at which fuel is dumped?
minimum of 800lbs/min.
32
How do you dump fuel from the aux tanks?
TRANSFER and MANUAL OVRD then press L / R INBD and select fuel dump
33
True/False: The fuel dump system is protected by weight on wheels.
FALSE.
34
Single-point pressure refueling has a standard psi of ____.
55psi
35
With power on the aircraft, what order will the tanks fill?
main, right external, left external
36
During gravity refueling, what order are the tanks filled?
any order
37
At what pressure differential will fuel flow stop during HIFR?
20psi
38
What will happen if your left tank vent valve is malfunctioning during HIFR?
uneven filling of the main tank may occur due to trapped air in the left fuel cell causing the fuel level to remain below the high level sensors.
the fuel flow will not be shutoff and the cell will over pressurize and possibly rupture.
If the right cell fills faster than the left, monitor and stop refueling before the right cell is full (1700lbs)
39
When can you initiate an unmonitored manual transfer?
3,200lbs
40
In order to minimize crew desensitization when fuel washes on and off the sensors, the master caution will be displayed when a fuel low condition is detected for a period greater than ________. This condition is deactivated when the condition is not detected for a period of ________.
5 seconds, 20 seconds
41
Describe the difference between [PUMP/VALVE FAIL] and [AUTO FUEL XFER FAULT].
PUMP/VALVE FAULT: single XFER/shutoff valve or XFER/dump pump fail, in which case the alternate supplies fuel
AUTO FUEL XFER FAULT: lack of fuel XFER from the aux to the mains. This may be caused by a failed closed XFER valve, both XFER/dump pumps inoperative, FMCP control failure, or blockage in the fuel lines
42
When should you check manual fuel transfer operation?
When the main tank has depleted 300lbs
43
When is ALL STORES JETT inhibited for the aux tanks?
<40 gal (272 lbs.)
Use SEL JETT when the aux tank is <300 lbs. because the aux tanks only report in 50 lb. Increments
44
Describe the function of the FMCP mode switch ‘AUTO’
The fuel management logic is not initiated until the main tank <2640lbs.
45
Describe the FMCP mode switch ‘MANUAL OVRD’
Both XFER valves are open, both XFER/dump pumps are on and external fuel is transferred to the main tanks until the high level sensor is reached or the aux tanks are empty.
46
The main gear box has what type of design?
a modular design with a 3 degree forward tilt
47
When will the chip detector/temperature sensor in the wet sump trip an [MAIN XMSN OIL HOT] advisory?
if temperature > 105C
48
How is the xmsn oil cooled?
via an air/oil cooler that uses a blower driven by the rotor drive shaft
49
What advisories/cautions will the _pressure sensor_ in the MGB illuminate and when?
[MAIN XMSN PRESS HI] caution = psi > 130
[MAIN XMSN PRESS HI] advisory = 65-130psi on VIDS
[MAIN XMSN PRESS LO] advisory = when < or equal to 30psi with Nr > 25%
50
When will the [MAIN XMSN OIL HOT] caution illuminate? Where is the sensor located?
caution illuminates when temperature > 117C
located in the MGB at the air/oil cooler input to the MGB where the oil should be the coolest.
51
What do the input modules provide? What do they contain?
The input modules provide the first stage of gear reduction and house the freewheeling unit.
52
What is the purpose of the diaphragm coupling?
allows for slight angular or axial misalignment of the output shaft in the input module during normal ops.
if a whining noise occurs during rotor engagement, this could be indicative of a diaphragm coupling failure and the aircraft must be shutdown immediately.
53
What is the purpose of the accessory modules?
to provide mounting and drive for the AC generators and hydraulic pumps
54
What sensors are located on the #1 and #2 accessory modules?
Right accessory module — Nr sensor for the vertical instruments
Left accessory module — Nr sensor for TDI colocated with the main transmission low oil px sensor
55
Where is the [MAIN XMSN PRESS LO] caution sensor located and when will it illuminate?
in the #1 accessory module, illuminates if pressure < 14psi
56
When are the [IGB OIL HOT] or [TGB OIL HOT] cautions illuminated?
when temperature > 140C
57
What is the difference between a steady, low xmsn oil pressure vs. a continually decreasing pressure?
a steady low pressure may indicate a single pump failure in the wet sump
a decreasing pressure may indicate a leak
58
How many sections is the tail drive shaft and how is it suspended?
The tail drive shaft has 6 sections, is ballistically tolerant, and is suspended at 4 points by viscous-damped bearings.
59
What feature do the IGB, TGB, and main transmission chip detectors provide?
Burn off feature — eliminates false warnings by fuzz and minute particles. This feature is deactivated when oil > 140C because that is the oil flashpoint
60
Automatic Preflight Checks (requirements)
"BREWS"
on AFCS ground check we check SAS 1 for 10 seconds to ensure the rate gyros are functioning properly.
following conditions must be present (BREWS):
1. both EGI attitudes valid
2. rotor brake on
3. engine torque < 10%
4. WOW
5. SAS 1 engaged
61
What is the primary purpose of the stab?
to provide AOA stability by maintaining a level attitude in forward flight and eliminating undesirable nose-up attitudes caused by rotor downwash at low airspeeds
62
Name the four control inputs required to position the stab.
“CLAP”
1. Collective postion
2. Lateral acceleration
3. Airspeed
4. Pitch rate
63
How many degrees is the stab limited to if it's failed full-down? Full-up?
```
full-down = restricted to 35 degrees
full-up = restricted to 30 degrees
```
64
The stab indicator is powered by what system? The ability to slew the stab?
stab indicator = AC powered
slew the stab = DC powered
65
Name the four types of mechanical compensation (control mixing) and the one type of electrical compensation.
Collective to yaw
Collective to lateral
Collective to longitudinal
Yaw to longitudinal
Collective / airspeed to yaw
66
Collective to yaw (control mixing)
main rotor torque causes the nose of the aircraft to yaw to the right with increased collective
to compensate, the tail rotor thrust is increased
67
Collective to lateral (control mixing)
the tractor tail rotor causes the helo to drift right with increased collective
to compensate, the rotor disc is tilted to the left
68
Collective to longitudinal (control mixing)
rotor downwash on the stabilator causes the nose to pitch up and the helo to drift aft with increased collective
to compensate, the rotor disc is tilted forward
69
Yaw to longitudinal (control mixing)
the tail rotors 2.5% lift factor causes the nose to pitch down and the helo to drift forward when left pedal is applied
to compensate, the rotor disc is tilted aft
70
Collective / airspeed to yaw (control mixing)
because the tail pylon is a vertical airfoil, the nose will tend to yaw to the left as airspeed increases which means that less anti-torque is required
the trim will compensate by washing out pedal requirements as airspeed increases
71
How are the cyclic, collective, and pedal flight control inputs routed to the rotor system?
routed aft and outboard of each pilot seat, vertically up each side of the aircraft, and are combined for each axis at the overhead torque shafts in the hydraulics bay.
the overhead torque shafts transfer inputs through the pilot assist servos and the mixing unit.
from the mixing unit, the FAL inputs are transferred to the swashplate assembly via the primary servos and the bridge assembly.
from the swashplate, the inputs move upward through the pitch control rods to the pitch change horns
72
Explain the spring tension and centering spring feature in the tail rotor.
there are two spring cylinders connected to the quadrant that provide tension to the tail rotor cables.
the spring tension feature allows for a fail safe if one cable breaks whereas the centering spring allows for present spring-loaded position of the tail rotor in the event both cables fail.
either failure will trigger the [TAIL ROTOR QUADRANT] caution
73
Explain the fly home capability of the tail rotor system.
if both tail rotor cables fail, the fixed tail rotor setting provides a fly home capability of balanced flight to a 19,500 lb. aircraft on a standard day at sea level at 25 or 145 kts.
74
What type of engine do we have?
T700-GE-401C front drive turboshaft engine
75
What type of compressor do we have?
5-stage axial, single-stage centrifugal
76
What type of combustion chamber do we have? How many ignitors and fuel injectors?
flow-through annular combustion chamber with 2 igniter, 12 fuel injectors, and 1 exciter
77
What type of turbines do we have?
dual stage coaxial turbines (Np lives inside Ng)
78
Where is TGT measured?
between the Ng and Np turbines using 7 thermocouples
79
What does the Ng turbine drive?
the compressor and the accessory gear box
80
What does the Np turbine drive?
the power turbine drive shaft
The power turbine drive shaft extends through the front of the engine and connects to the high speed shaft which connects to the input modules
81
Explain the breakdown of airflow in the engine. (Think %)
```
30% of the total airflow through the engine is used for combustion
```
```
70% is used for:
compressor inlet air temperature (T2)
compressor discharge air pressure (P3)
combustion and turbine cooling
engine oil seal pressurization
```
82
Name the functions of the HMU. (RANFAN)
- R - rapid engine transient response through collective compensation. (LDS)
- A - automatic fuel scheduling for engine start (PAS)
- N - Ng overspeed protection (110+/-2%)
- F - flameout and compressor stall protection (variable geometry vane)
- A - acceleration limiting
- N - Ng governing (T2, P3, Ng to sked fuel flow)
83
What does the variable geometry vane servo do?
using fuel tapped from the HMU, the servo opens the anti-ice / start bleed valve preventing compressor instability
the valve opens at 88% Ng and closes at 90% or 94% with OAT > 15C
84
What is the relationship between the torque motor servo and the metering valve?
the metering valve schedules engine fuel flow commensurate to the current power demand
the torque motor servo trims fuel flow by the the metering valve in response to the EDECU
85
What does the linear variable displacement transducer (LVDT) do?
provides a feedback signal to the EDECU to null the torque motor servo input therefore stabilizing the metering valve and preventing engine oscillation/hunting
86
What does EDECU stand for?
enhanced digital electronic control unit
87
Np overspeed protection
when Np > 120%, a signal is sent from EDECU to ODV, diverting fuel to the inlet of the HMU therefore causing a flameout
88
Contingency power: Manual, Auto, Dual-Eng
Manual - switch allows TGT up to 903C, max contingency range power limiter will prevent further fuel flow at 891+/-10C
Automatic - enabled in OEI conditions when torque of one engine < 50%, TGT limit reset from 866+/-10C to 891+/-10C (light will not illuminate)
Dual-engine auto - TGT up to 891+/-10C if the following exists: 1) Np < 96% 2) >3% droop between reference and actual Np 3) >5%/sec. Np droop with Np < Np reference
89
TGT limiting
fuel flow stopped at 866+/-10C so that TGT does not exceed 878C.
Np/Nr will droop and Ng governing will be sacrificed to protect against an overtemp.
90
EDECU lockout (what do you lose and retain?)
Np and Ng with PAS and LDS positions only, torque motor servo is disabled (loss of TGT limiting, Np governing, and load sharing)
Np overspeed protection retained
91
Name the four main functions of the ODV.
"Provides, Purges, Traps, Returns"
1. Provides main fuel flow to the 12 fuel injectors during engine start and operation.
2. Purges the main fuel manifold overboard, after engine shutdown, to prevent coking of the fuel injectors.
3. Traps fuel upstream, which keeps the fuel/oil heat exchanger full, so that system priming is not required prior to the next start.
4. Returns fuel back to the HMU if the Np overspeed is energized or if the EDECU hot start preventer is activated.
92
What are the three ways to anti-ice the engine?
1. vent bleed air into the engine swirl vanes and inlet guide vanes by the engine anti-ice / start bleed valve
2. vent bleed air into the airframe engine inlet by the engine inlet anti-ice valve
3. continuously pump engine oil through the scroll vanes
93
What type of valves are used for anti-ice operation?
solenoid-operated air valves
they are held closed electrically. de-energized the valves are opened
94
What does the engine anti-ice / start bleed valve do?
provides 5th stage bleed air to the engine swirl vanes and inlet guide vanes with anti-ice selected ON and opens during engine starts
95
When does the engine anti-ice / start bleed valve open during starts? When does it close?
the valve remains open below 80.5% Ng to prevent compressor instability during starts
above 96.5% Ng, the valve closes, unless anti-ice is selected on, or the aircraft experiences a loss of electrical power
the range of acceptable Ng speeds at which the valve opens and closes is depended on OAT
96
Name the three indications of a malfunctioning anti-ice start / bleed valve.
1. Appearance or disappearance of the ENG ANTI-ICE ON advisory when outside of the range specified in the chart in Chapter 22.
2. No illumination of [ENG ANTI-ICE ON] advisory when ENG ANTI-ICE switch is ON.
3. No rise in TGT when ENG ANTI-ICE switch is selected ON.
97
What is the indication of a malfunctioning engine inlet anti-ice valve?
[INLET ANTI-ICE ON] advisory when OAT > 13C
the resultant loss of torque could be a maximum of 49% when the anti-ice valves are open.
98
What is the difference between main and tail rotor de-icing?
the main rotor blades are de-iced in cycles and the rotor blades are de-iced simultaneously
main rotor blades are de-iced in cycles to reduce power requirements, to de-ice in cycles the main rotor blades have a blade de-ice distributor
