Chapter 06 - Cytokines Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The ability of a single cytokine to alter the expression of several genes is called
    a. redundancy.
    b. pleiotropy.
    c. autocrine stimulation.
    d. endocrine effect.
A
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2
Q
  1. Which of the following effects can be attributed to IL-1?
    a. Mediation of the innate immune response
    b. Differentiation of stem cells
    c. Halted growth of virally infected cells
    d. Stimulation of mast cells
A
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3
Q
  1. Which of the following precursors are target cells for IL-3?
    a. Myeloid precursors
    b. Lymphoid precursors
    c. Erythroid precursors
    d. All of the above
A
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4
Q
  1. A lack of IL-4 may result in which of the following effects?
    a. Inability to fight off viral infections
    b. Increased risk of tumors
    c. Lack of IgM
    d. Decreased eosinophil count
A
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5
Q
  1. Which of the following cytokines is also known as the T-cell growth factor?
    a. IFN-γ
    b. IL-12
    c. IL-2
    d. IL-10
A
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6
Q
  1. Which of the following represents an autocrine effect of IL-2?
    a. Increased IL-2 receptor expression by the Th cell producing it
    b. Macrophages signaled to the area of antigen
    stimulation
    c. Proliferation of antigen-stimulated B cells
    d. Increased synthesis of acute-phase proteins
    throughout the body
A
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7
Q
  1. IFN-α and IFN-β differ in which way from
    IFN-gamma?
    a. IFN-α and IFN-β are called immune interferons, and IFN-gamma is not.
    b. IFN-α and IFN-β primarily activate macrophages, whereas IFN-gamma halts viral activity.
    c. IFN-α and IFN-β are made primarily by
    activated T cells, whereas IFN-gamma is made
    by fibroblasts.
    d. IFN-α and IFN-β inhibit cell proliferation, whereas IFN-gamma stimulates antigen presentation by
    class II MHC molecules.
A
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8
Q
  1. A patient in septic shock caused by a gram-negative bacterial infection exhibits the following symptoms: high fever, very low blood pressure, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Which cytokine is the most likely contributor to these symptoms?
    a. IL-2
    b. TNF
    c. IL-12
    d. IL-7
A
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9
Q
  1. IL-10 acts as an antagonist to what cytokine?
    a. IL-4
    b. TNF-α
    c. IFN-gamma
    d. TGF-β
A
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10
Q
  1. Which would be the best assay to measure a specific cytokine?
    a. Blast formation
    b. T-cell proliferation
    c. Measurement of leukocyte chemotaxis
    d. ELISA testing
A
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11
Q
  1. Selective destruction of Th cells by the human immunodeficiency virus contributes to immune
    suppression by which means?
    a. Decrease in IL-1
    b. Decrease in IL-2
    c. Decrease in IL-8
    d. Decrease in IL-10
A
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12
Q
  1. Why might a colony stimulating factor be given to a cancer patient?
    a. Stimulate activity of NK cells
    b. Increase production of certain types of leukocytes
    c. Decrease the production of TNF
    d. Increase production of mast cells
A
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13
Q
  1. Which of the following would result from a
    lack of TNF?
    a. Decreased ability to fight gram-negative bacterial infections
    b. Increased expression of class II MHC molecules
    c. Decreased survival of cancer cells
    d. Increased risk of septic shock
A
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14
Q
  1. Which cytokine acts to promote differentiation of T cells to the Th1 subclass?
    a. IL-4
    b. IFN-α
    c. IL-12
    d. IL-10
A
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15
Q
  1. What is the major function of T regulatory cells?
    a. Suppression of the immune response by
    producing TNF
    b. Suppression of the immune response by
    inducing IL-10
    c. Proliferation of the immune response by
    producing IL-2
    d. Proliferation of the immune response by
    inducing IL-4
A
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16
Q
  1. Th17 cells affect the innate immune response by inducing production of which cytokines?
    a. IFN-γ and IL-2
    b. IL-4 and IL-10
    c. IL-2 and IL-4
    d. TNF-α and IL-6
A