Chapter 1 Flashcards

(98 cards)

1
Q

Meaning of CDC

A

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

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2
Q

Meaning of OSHA

A

Occupational Safety and Health

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3
Q

Meaning of CLSI

A

Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute

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4
Q

Types of Safety Hazards

A

Biological

Sharps

Chemical

Radioactive

Electrical

Fire/Explosive

Physical

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5
Q

All health-care facilities have developed

procedures to control and monitor infections occurring within their facilities. This is referred to as

A

Infection control

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6
Q

It is the place where the infectious agent can live and

possible multiply.

A

Reservoir

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7
Q

Equipment and other soiled inanimate objects

that can serve as reservoirs

A

Fomites

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8
Q

the unprotected host touches the patient,

specimen, or a contaminated object (reservoir)

A

Direct contact

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9
Q

inhalation of dried aerosol particles circulating

on air currents or attached to dust particles

A

Airborne

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10
Q

the host inhales material from the reservoir (e.g.,

aerosol droplets from a patient or an uncapped centrifuge tube, or when specimens are aliquoted or spilled)

A

Droplet

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11
Q

ingestion of a contaminated substance (e.g., food,

water, specimen)

A

Vehicle

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12
Q

from an animal or insect bite

A

Vector

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13
Q

In the clinical laboratory, the most direct contact with a

source of infection is through contact with

A

Patient Specimen

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14
Q

When did CDC instituted Universal Precaution

A

1987

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15
Q

Under this precaution all patients are considered to be possible carriers of blood- borne pathogens. The guideline recommends wearing gloves

when collecting or handling blood and body fluids contaminated with blood and wearing face shields when there is danger of blood splashing on mucous membranes and when disposing of all needles and sharp objects in puncture-resistant containers.

excluded urine and body fluids not visibly

contaminated by blood

A

Universal Precaution

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16
Q

guidelines are not limited to blood-borne pathogens; they consider all body fluids and moist body substances to be potentially infectious.

personnel should wear gloves at

all times when encountering moist body substances.

A major disadvantage is that they do not recommend handwashing after removing gloves unless visual contamination is present.

A

Body Substance Isolation

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17
Q

Potentially harmful microorganisms o Frequently present in specimens in the lab

A

Biologic

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18
Q

shows disease transmission cycle

A

Chain of Infection

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19
Q

shows disease transmission cycle

A

Chain of Infection

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20
Q

Chain of Infection happens when there is a continuous link between

A
Infectious agent
▪ Reservoir
▪ Portal of exit
▪ Means/Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
▪ Susceptible host
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21
Q

Percentage of risk of acquiring HBV thru needlestick injury

A

6-30%

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22
Q

risk of acquiring HIV thru needlestick injury

A

<1%

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23
Q

risk of acquiring HIV thru direct skin contact

A

<0.1%

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24
Q

risk of acquiring HIV human bite

A

0.1-1%

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25
Major disadvantage of BSI
does not recommend handwashing after | removing gloves
26
when was standard precaution instituted
1996
27
if hands are VISIBLY SOILED
hand-washing
28
if hands NOT visibly soiled
hand-rubbing
29
for suspected Mycobacterium exposure use
N95 respirator
30
sequence of donning
gown, mask, eye protection, gloves
31
sequence of doffing
gown and gloves, eye protection, mask
32
PRIMARY method of infection transmission
Hand Contact
33
All biologic waste, except urine, must be placed in | appropriate containers labeled with the
biohazard symbol
34
decontaminated following institutional policy
Incineration Autoclaving Pick-up by certified hazard waste company
35
Urine is discarded by
POURING it into a LABORATORY SINK
36
disinfection of sink is done daily using
1:5 or 1:10 dilution of sodium hypochlorite (NaClO)
37
When skin contact occurs: | BEST FIRST AID is
Flush the area with large amounts of | water(running water)
38
at least how many minutes should area that is affected by chemicals flushed
at least 15 mins
39
proper way of mixing acid and water
Acid to Water
40
Hazardous chemicals must be labelled w/ a description of their particular hazard:
``` Poisonous Corrosive Flammable Explosive Teratogenic Carcinogenic ```
41
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) | Diamond color for health hazard
Blue
42
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) | Diamond color for fire hazard
Red
43
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) | Diamond color for reactivity
Yellow
44
National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) | Diamond color for specific hazard
White
45
when a fire is discovered what should one do
RACE
46
Steps in operating a fire extinguisher
PASS
47
ordinary combustibles: paper, cloth, rubbish, plastic, wood
Type A
48
Flammable liquids: grease, gasoline, paint, oil
TYPE b
49
Electrical Equipment and Motor switches
Type C
50
Flammable metals: mercury, magnesium, sodium, lithium
type d
51
detonation (arsenal fire)
type e
52
cooking media: grease, oils fats
type k
53
goal of total quality management
Improved Patient Outcomes
54
Overall process of guaranteeing quality patient care
Quality Management (QM)
55
All of a laboratories processes, procedures, and resources needed to achieve quality testing
Quality Management System (QMS)
56
“TAT” or “Turnaround Time” : time required from
Test is requested by a healthcare provide to Result is reported to the healthcare provider
57
Urine should be transported to the laboratory within
2 hours after collection
58
documentation tool* → helps the director to gather info to determine the root cause analysis and develop a preventive or corrective action plan
Internal laboratory quality improvement form
59
Type of water for reagent and control preparation must be specified
distilled water, deionized water, clinical laboratory reagent water
60
Reagent strips should be checked against known negative and positive control solutions whether:
* each shift * once-a-day * whenever a new bottle is opened
61
Most frequently encountered equipment or instruments in UA laboratory
refractometer • osmometer • automated reagent strip readers
61
Most frequently encountered equipment or instruments in UA laboratory
refractometer • osmometer • automated reagent strip readers
62
when should professional cleaning of microscope be done
annually
63
Refractometer: : calibrated daily or when used against deionized water SG
1.000
64
 Refractometer: | : calibrated daily or when used against 3% NaCl SG
1.015 ± 0.001
65
 Refractometer: | : calibrated daily or when used against 5% saline
1.022 ± 0.001
66
Refractometer: | : calibrated daily or when used against 9% sucrose
1.034 ± 0.001
67
product oriented all about detection you try to find defects and correct them while making used to verify the quality of a product
Quality Control
68
process oriented you plan to avoid the defect in the first place all about prevention involves processes managing quality
Quality Assurance
69
closeness of a result to the actual value
closeness of a result to the actual value
70
closeness of results (of the same specimen) to one another
Precision (of values
71
ability to produce or obtain the expected result
Accuracy (of a test)
72
ability to obtain he same results on the same specimen
Precision (of a test)
73
a substance that has an exact known value that can | produce a solution of an exact concentration
Standards (Calibrators)
74
to correlate readings of an instrument with those of a standard in order to check the instrument’s accuracy
Calibrate
75
material or solution with known/established concentrations* that are similar to the patient samples (viscosity, turbidity, color, composition)
Controls
76
freeze-dried/dehydrated into powder
lyophilized
77
most common animal source of control
bovine (cow)
78
Average of all data points
Mean/Control Mean
79
Average distance of each data point in a normal distribution from the mean
Standard Deviation (SD)
80
relative measure of dispersion that is used to determine the variability of data. Should be less than 5%
Coefficient of Variation (CV)
81
gradual change in one direction increase or decrease over a period of 6 consecutive days PASS OVER the mean
Trend
82
rule in trend
7T rule violation
83
cause of trend
deterioration of reagent
84
abrupt change | 6 or more values on ONE SIDE of the mean, but maintain a constant level
Shift
85
rule in trend
12x rule violation
86
cause of shift
deterioration of standard and improper calibration of instrument
87
Consists of internal monitoring systems (built in to the test system)
INTERNAL QUALITY CONTROL
88
INTERNAL QUALITY CONTROL can also be called as
“Internal Control” or “Procedural Control”
89
Use mechanical or electrical device in place of a liquid QC | specimen/control
ELECTRONIC CONTROLS
90
→Involves testing of unknown specimens received from an outside agency →Provides unbiased validation of the quality of patient test results
PROFICIENCY TESTING (External Quality Assessment)
91
Alternative CLIA QC option →Provides equivalent quality testing for moderate- and high-complexity tests and provider-performed microscopy procedures (PPMP) tests →ADVANTAGE: the lab can determine the frequency of QC testing based on information about the test, the risk assessment, and the accreditation agencies’ requirements
Individualized Quality Control Plan (IQCP)
92
For reporting STATtest results and critical values
Telephone (Verbal) Results
93
Quality management/assessment procedure which compares patient’s test results with the previous ones
DELTA CHECK
94
Automated comparison of patient results
Autoverification
95
test results that are significantly lower or higher than the normal reference range can be LIFE-THREATENING; must be relayed to healthcare provider immediately
Critical Results
96
lowest level of an analyte that a test can detect
SENSITIVITY
97
the likelihood of measuring the analyte desired
SPECIFICITY