Chapter 11-15 Flashcards

(102 cards)

1
Q

Which of the following terms involves a random effect of ionizing radiation?
a. Early tissue reactions
b. Change in white blood cell count
c. Reddening of the skin
d. Stochastic event

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Upper boundary radiation exposure limits for occupationally exposed persons are associated with risks that are similar to those
encountered by employees in other industries that are generally considered to be reasonably safe. These industries include
1. manufacturing.
2. trade.
3. government.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following agencies was previously known as the Atomic Energy Commission?
a. FDA
b. ICRP
c. NCRP
d. NRC

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following are functions and/or responsibilities of the United States Occupational Safety and Health Administration
(OSHA)?
1. Functions as a monitoring agency in places of employment, predominantly in industry
2. Regulates occupational exposure to radiation through Part 1910 of Title 29 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations (29 CFR
1910)
3. Responsible for regulations concerning an employee’s “right to know” with regard to hazards in the workplace
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following groups is run by the government of Japan, primarily to study Japanese atomic bomb survivors?
a. National Research Council Committee on the Biological Effects of Ionizing
Radiation
b. International Commission on Radiological Protection
c. Radiation Effects Research Foundation
d. Nuclear Regulatory Commission

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Epidemiologic studies of atomic bomb survivors exposed in utero have provided conclusive evidence of a dose-dependent increase
in the incidence of severe intellectual disability for fetal doses greater than approximately
a. 0.1 Sv.
b. 0.2 Sv.
c. 0.3 Sv.
d. 0.4 Sv.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Determine the cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) limit to the whole body of an occupationally exposed person who is 46 years
old.
a. 4.6 mSv
b. 46 mSv
c. 460 mSv
d. 4600 mSv

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Revised concepts of radiation exposure and risk have brought about more recent changes in NCRP recommendations for limits on
exposure to ionizing radiation. Because many conflicting views exist on assessing the risk of cancer induction from low-level
radiation exposure, the trend has been to
a. create more rigorous radiation protection standards.
b. reduce rigorous radiation protection standards.
c. eliminate radiation protection standards.
d. leave radiation protection standards the same as they have been for the last 20
years.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The main function of the Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) is to
1. inspect imaging facilities.
2. oversee the nuclear energy industry.
3. regulate imaging facilities.
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The effective dose (EfD) limiting system supersedes
a. all Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) regulations.
b. all Nuclear Regulatory Commission (NRC) regulations.
c. the maximum permissible dose (MPD) system.
d. the Consumer-Patient Radiation Health and Safety Act of 1981.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The ALARA concept adopts an extremely conservative model with respect to the relationship between
a. health care education and radiation research.
b. ionizing and nonionizing radiation.
c. ionizing radiation and potential risk.
d. radiation dose and health care spending.

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If a certain dose of radiation produces a skin burn, a higher dose of radiation will cause the skin burn to be more severe; however, a
dose below the threshold level for skin burn will
a. demonstrate this effect to a much greater degree.
b. demonstrate this effect to moderate degree.
c. demonstrate this effect to a lesser degree.
d. not demonstrate the effect.

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The United Nations Scientific Committee on the Effects of Atomic Radiation (UNSCEAR) evaluates human and environmental
ionizing radiation exposures from a variety of sources, including
1. radioactive materials
2. radiation-producing machines
3. radiation accidents
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following are responsibilities of a health care facility’s radiation safety committee (RSC)?
1. Delegate operational funds in the budget for the radiation safety program
2. Provide guidance for the radiation safety program
3. Facilitate the ongoing operation of the radiation safety program
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The essential concept underlying radiation protection is that
a. any organ in the human body is vulnerable to damage from exposure to ionizing
radiation.
b. only critical organs in the human body are vulnerable to damage from exposure to
ionizing radiation.
c. only the reproductive organs in male and female humans are vulnerable to
damage from exposure to ionizing radiation.
d. no organ in the human body is vulnerable to damage from exposure to ionizing
radiation.

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The cumulative effective dose (CumEfD) limit does not include
1. exposure acquired as a consequence of a radiation worker undergoing medical imaging procedures.
2. radiation exposure from natural background radiation.
3. radiation exposure received while radiographers perform imaging procedures on patients.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
a. Medical imaging personnel almost always receive equivalent doses that are close
to the annual occupational effective dose limit.
b. Medical imaging personnel always receive equivalent doses that are close to the
annual occupational effective dose limit.
c. Medical imaging personnel hardly ever receive equivalent doses that are close to
the annual occupational effective dose limit.
d. Medical imaging personnel absolutely never receive equivalent doses that are
close to the annual occupational effective dose limit

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Occasional exposure for the purpose of education and training is permitted, provided that special care is taken to ensure that the
annual effective dose limit of ____________ is not exceeded for persons under the age of 18 years.
a. 0.5 mSv annually
b. 1 mSv annually
c. 2 mSv annually
d. 3 mSv annually

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The effective dose (EfD) limit for the lens of the eye is
a. 5 mSv.
b. 15 mSv.
c. 50 mSv.
d. 150 mSv.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The responsibility for maintaining radiation monitoring records for all personnel and for providing counseling for individuals who
receive monitor readings in excess of allowable limits belongs to the
a. director of human resources of a health care facility.
b. designated radiation safety officer of a health care facility.
c. hospital administrator.
d. radiologic technologist in charge of quality control.

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

To provide a low-exposure cut-off level so that regulatory agencies may consider a level of effective dose as being of negligible
risk, an annual negligible individual dose (NID) of ________________ per source or practice has been set.
a. 0.001 mSv/year
b. 0.01 mSv/year
c. 0.1 mSv/year
d. 1.0 mSv/year

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A radiation safety officer in a health care facility must have sufficient authority, organizational freedom, and management
prerogative to
1. identify radiation safety problems.
2. initiate, recommend, or provide corrective action.
3. stop unsafe operations involving by-product material.
4. verify implementation of corrective actions.
a. 1, 2, and 3 only
b. 1, 3, and 4 only
c. 2, 3, and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3, and 4

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To define ALARA, health care facilities usually adopt investigation levels, defined as level I and level II. In the United States,
these levels are traditionally _______ to ______ the applicable regulatory standards.
a. one twentieth; one tenth
b. one tenth; three tenths
c. three tenths; one half
d. one half; seven tenths

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Working in conjunction with their partners in other agencies, the FDA intends to take action to
1. promote safe use of medical imaging devices.
2. support informed clinical decision.
3. increase patient awareness.
a. 1 and 2 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Effective dose (EfD) limits may be specified for 1. whole-body exposure. 2. partial-body exposure. 3. exposure of individual organs. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D
26
Which of the following is not an x-ray beam limitation device? a. Cone b. Collimator c. Filter d. Extension cylinder
C
27
The protective tube housing serves as a shield against _____________________ entering the x-ray tube, thereby preventing electric shock while also facilitating cooling of the x-ray tube. a. the high voltage b. the low voltage c. lose inherent filter particles d. collimator components
A
28
If the luminance of the collimator light source is adequate, the localizing light beam will satisfactorily outline the margins of the radiographic beam on the area of clinical interest on a. infants only. b. children only. c. teenagers and adults only. d. all patients.
D
29
When using digital fluoroscopy systems, making use of the last image hold feature can a. be an effective dose reduction technique. b. eliminate the need to collimate the primary beam. c. eliminate the need for body or part immobilization. d. lead to a 50% reduction of technical exposure factors.
A
30
What is the purpose of radiographic beam filtration? a. To reduce exposure to the patient's skin and superficial tissues by absorbing most of the higher-energy photons from the heterogeneous beam. b. To reduce exposure to the patient's skin and superficial tissues by absorbing most of the lower-energy photons from the heterogeneous beam. c. To reduce exposure to the patient's skin and superficial tissues by absorbing all of the higher-energy photons from the homogeneous beam. d. To reduce exposure to the patient's skin and superficial tissues by removing all the lower-energy photons from the homogeneous beam.
B
31
Depending on the area of the body being examined with a fluoroscopic image intensification system, a range of ___________ kVp is generally used for adult patients. a. 30 to 60 b. 60 to 75 c. 75 to 110 d. 110 to 140
C
32
When performing a mobile radiographic procedure, to reduce the radiation exposure to the patient, the radiographer must use a minimal source-skin distance of a. 15 cm. b. 30 cm. c. 38 cm. d. 45 cm.
B
33
When a fluoroscopic image is electronically amplified by the use of an image intensification system, which of the following benefits results? 1. Increased image brightness 2. Saving of time for the radiologist 3. Patient dose reduction a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D
34
Current federal standards limit entrance skin exposure rates of general-purpose intensified fluoroscopic units with maximum technique factors engaged to a maximum of ________________, as measured at tabletop, with the image intensifier entrance surface at a prescribed 30 cm above the tabletop. a. 100 mGya/min b. 300 mGya/min c. 500 mGya/min d. 600 mGya/min
A
35
During a fluoroscopic examination, a resettable cumulative timing device measures the x-ray beam-on time and sounds an audible alarm or in some cases temporarily interrupts the exposure after the fluoroscope has been activated for what length of time? a. 1 minute b. 3 minutes c. 5 minutes d. 10 minutes
C
36
To visualize smaller and lower contrast objects during interventional procedures, high level control fluoroscopy uses exposure rates that are ____________ those normally used in routine fluoroscopy. a. higher than b. lower than c. the same as d. None of the above, because smaller and lower contrast objects cannot be visualized by fluoroscopy during interventional procedures.
A
37
When obtaining a dorsoplantar projection of a foot, which of the following types of filters should be used to provide a greater uniform density of the anatomy? a. Bilateral wedge filter b. Trough filter c. Thoraeus filter d. Wedge filter
D
38
Digital radiography systems offer several advantages over computed radiography. Some of these include 1. lower dose. 2. ease of use. 3. immediate imaging results. 4. manipulation of the image. a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 1, 2, and 4 only c. 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D
39
Total filtration of _______________________ for fixed x-ray units operating above 70 kVp is the regulatory standard. a. 1.0-mm aluminum equivalent b. 1.5-mm aluminum equivalent c. 2.0-mm aluminum equivalent d. 2.5-mm aluminum equivalent
D
40
In digital radiography the number of different shades of gray that can be stored in memory and displayed on a computer monitor is termed a. contrast matrix. b. grayscale. c. shadows. d. pixels.
B
41
In standard image intensification fluoroscopy, an x-ray beam half-value-layer (HVL) of 3 to 4.5 mm aluminum is considered acceptable when kVp ranges from a. 50 to 60. b. 60 to 70. c. 70 to 80. d. 80 to 100.
D
42
Digital radiography images can be accessed a. at only one workstation at a time, thereby decreasing convenience for physicians providing patient care. b. at no more than two workstations at a time, thereby decreasing convenience for physicians providing patient care. c. at several workstations at the same time, thus making image viewing very convenient for physicians providing patient care. d. digital images cannot be accessed at any workstations by physicians
C
43
When an exposed computed radiography imaging plate is ready to be processed, an imaging reading unit is used to scan the photostimulable phosphor imaging plate with a helium-neon laser beam. This process results in the emission of violet light that is changed into an electronic signal by a device called a a. charge-coupled device array. b. photodiode. c. photomultiplier tube. d. scintillator.
C
44
Computed radiography, because of its higher exposure latitude, makes grid use on the pediatric population a. absolutely necessary for all radiographic examinations. b. less necessary than was previously believed. c. necessary only for extremity examinations. d. unnecessary for any examination.
B
45
Fluoroscopic devices are capable of subjecting the patient, the equipment operator, and other personnel near the fluoroscopic equipment to substantial doses of ionizing radiation. These devices include 1. C-arm fluoroscopes. 2. fluoroscopes on stationary equipment with HLC mode used for interventional procedures. 3. biplane interventional fluoroscopic systems. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D
46
Of the following procedures, which involve extended fluoroscopic time? 1. Biliary drainage 2. Stent and filter placement 3. Urinary or biliary stone removal a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D
47
Luminance is determined by measuring the concentration of light a. at only one particular point on the field of view. b. over a particular field of view. c. at only one particular point on the field of view and then squaring the number. d. over a particular field of view and then squaring the number.
B
48
When generator settings are changed from one mA and time combination to another, the most that linearity can vary is a. 0%. b. 10%. c. 20%. d. 50%.
B
49
The control panel, where technical exposure factors are selected and visually displayed for the equipment operator, must be located a. at the foot end of the radiographic examining table. b. at the head end of the radiographic examining table. c. behind a suitable protective barrier that has a radiation-absorbent window that permits observation of the patient during any procedure. d. behind any regular wall that has a regular glass window that permits observation of the patient during any procedure.
C
50
Which of the following materials is commonly used in the tabletop of a radiographic examination table to make the tabletop as radiolucent as possible so that it will absorb only a minimal amount of radiation, thereby reducing the patient's radiation dose? a. Carbon fiber material b. Formica c. Granite d. Slate
A
51
Any image that must be performed more than once because of human or mechanical error during the production of the initial image is considered to be a repeat image. What effect does a repeat image have on the radiation dose received by the patient? a. The patient receives no additional radiation dose. b. The patient's skin and possibly the gonads, if they were in the included imaged area, receive a double radiation dose. c. The patient's critical organs receive a radiation dose that is 10 times greater than the initial radiation dose. d. The patient's superficial tissues only receive a radiation dose that is four times as great as that of the original radiation dose.
B
52
During a radiographic examination, which of the following combinations of technical exposure factors reduce patient radiation dose? a. Lower kVp, higher mAs b. Higher kVp, lower mAs c. Higher kVp, higher mAs d. Lower kVp, lower mAs
B
53
When a pregnant patient must undergo a radiographic procedure, which of the following practices will minimize radiation exposure? a. Selecting technical exposure factors that are appropriate for the part of the body to be radiographed b. Opening the x-ray beam collimator shutters as wide as possible to ensure complete coverage of the image receptor c. Precisely collimating the radiographic beam to include only the anatomic area of interest and shielding the lower abdomen and pelvis when this area does not need to be included in the area to be irradiated d. A and C
D
54
According to the American College of Radiology (ACR), abdominal radiologic examinations that have been requested after full consideration of the clinical status of a patient, including the possibility of pregnancy, need a. not be postponed or selectively scheduled. b. to be postponed or selectively scheduled. c. to be postponed and scheduled at least 10 days after the start of the next menstrual period. d. to be postponed and scheduled 10 days before the end of the next menstrual period.
A
55
Which of the following types of gonadal shielding provide maximal gonadal protection for a male patient when AP, oblique, and lateral projections are obtained? a. Flat contact shield containing 1 mm of lead b. Shadow shield c. Shaped contact shield containing 1 mm of lead d. None of the above, because gonadal shielding is unnecessary for male patients of any age.
C
56
Specific area shielding may be selectively used during some x-ray procedures to protect which of the following? 1. Lens of the eye 2. Breast 3. Upper extremities 4. Lower extremities a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 3 and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
A
57
________________________ are the sensing devices most often used to measure skin dose directly. a. Thermoluminescent dosimeters b. A sequence of aluminum equivalent filters of varying thicknesses c. Lead-impregnated filters d. Molybdenum and rhodium filters
A
58
Which of the following are considered to be benefits of an aggressive repeat analysis program? 1. Increased awareness among staff and student radiographers of the need to produce optimal quality recorded images from the start. 2. Radiographers become more careful in producing radiographic images because they are aware that images are being reviewed. 3. When the repeat analysis program identifies problems or concerns, in-service education programs covering these specific topics may be designed for imaging personnel. a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D
59
According to the U.S. Public Health Service, the genetically significant dose (GSD) for the population of the United States is approximately a. 1.00 mSv. b. 0.80 mSv. c. 0.40 mSv. d. 0.20 mSv.
D
60
Which of the following must always be the first step in protection of the reproductive organs? a. Adequate and precise collimation of the radiographic beam to include only the anatomy of interest b. Use of gonadal shielding c. Use of a mobile protective shielding device d. Use of digital imaging equipment
A
61
Motion controlled by will is classified as voluntary motion. Lack of such control may be attributed to which of the following? 1. The patient's age 2. Breathing patterns or problems 3. Physical discomfort 4. Fear of the examination 5. Mental instability a. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only b. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only c. 1, 3, 4, and 5 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
D
62
When a properly calibrated automatic exposure control (AEC) is not employed to obtain a uniform selection of technical x-ray exposure factors, well-managed imaging departments a. estimate technical exposure factors for all radiographic examinations. b. have the radiologist determine and set up all technical exposure factor charts. c. use technique charts borrowed from another imaging facility. d. make use of standardized technique charts that have been established for each x-ray unit in that facility.
D
63
Neglecting to use standardized technique charts necessitates estimating the technical exposure factors, which may result in 1. poor-quality images. 2. repeat examinations. 3. additional and unnecessary exposure of the patient. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D
64
Reducing the field size to the anatomic features of interest not only reduces patient exposure, but also a. increases recorded image quality by decreasing scatter. b. decreases recorded image quality by increasing scatter. c. increases recorded image quality by increasing scatter. d. decreases recorded image quality by decreasing scatter.
A
65
Because multiple bony areas span the entire body, the radiation dose absorbed by the organ called bone marrow a. can be accurately measured by a direct method. b. cannot be measured by a direct method; it can only be estimated. c. is not of concern during any diagnostic radiography examinations. d. can only be measured to a small degree by a direct method
B
66
Which of the following are reasons for unacceptable images? 1. Patient mispositioning 2. Incorrect centering of the radiographic beam 3. Patient motion during the radiographic exposure 4. Incorrect collimation of the radiographic beam a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 2, 3, and 4 only c. 1, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D
67
Which of the following are areas of the body that should be shielded from the useful beam whenever possible? 1. Lens of the eye 2. Breasts 3. Thyroid gland 4. Reproductive organs 5. All muscle tissues a. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only b. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only c. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
C
68
Radiographers must limit the patient's exposure to ionizing radiation by 1. employing appropriate radiation reduction techniques. 2. using protective devices that minimize radiation exposure. 3. selecting radiographic exposures factors that only use low kVp and high mAs a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
A
69
Which of the following are involuntary motions that cannot be willingly controlled? 1. Chills 2. Tremors 3. Muscle spasms 4. Pain 5. Active withdrawal a. 1, 2, 3, and 5 only b. 2, 3, 4, and 5 only c. 1, 2, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5
D
70
Which of the following is frequently a problem in diagnostic pediatric radiography? a. Lack of availability of appropriate pediatric immobilization devices b. Lack of cooperation of parents or guardian c. Finding imaging equipment that can accommodate pediatric imaging d. Patient motion
D
71
In the event that a pregnant patient is inadvertently irradiated a. the radiographer performing the examination should perform the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose. b. the imaging department manager should perform the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose. c. the radiation safety officer or the medical physicist should perform the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose. d. the administrator of the hospital or imaging facility should perform the calculations necessary to determine fetal dose.
C
72
Studies of groups such as the atomic bomb survivors of Hiroshima have shown that damage to the newborn is unlikely for doses below a. 5 Gy. b. 2 Gy. c. 0.5 Gy. d. 0.2 Gy.
D
73
Essentially all diagnostic medical procedures result in fetal exposures a. greater than 5 Gy, the risk of abnormality is large. b. greater than 1 Gy, the risk of abnormality is large. c. of less than 0.5 Gy but greater than 0.01 Gy, the risk of abnormality is small. d. of less than 0.01 Gy, the risk of abnormality is very small.
D
74
Essentially all diagnostic medical procedures result in fetal exposures a. greater than 5 Gy, the risk of abnormality is large. b. greater than 1 Gy, the risk of abnormality is large. c. of less than 0.5 Gy but greater than 0.01 Gy, the risk of abnormality is small. d. of less than 0.01 Gy, the risk of abnormality is very small.
D
75
Of the following radiologic procedures, which is (are) considered nonessential? 1. A chest x-ray examination automatically scheduled on admission to the hospital 2. Lumbar spine x-ray examination as part of a preemployment physical 3. Whole-body computed tomography (CT) screening a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D
76
Analysis of an imaging department's repeats rate 1. provides valuable information for process improvement. 2. helps minimize patient exposure. 3. improves overall performance of the department. a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D
77
With higher radiation exposure to the patient during a computed tomography examination, there is a. a decreased associated cancer risk because the radiation is more penetrating. b. an increased associated cancer risk. c. a negligible associated cancer risk because the radiation is less penetrating. d. an extremely large cancer risk.
B
78
Which of the following is not typically used during a CT scan? 1. A tightly collimated x-ray beam 2. Direct patient shielding 3. Filtered back projection a. 1 only b. 2 only c. 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
B
79
In CT because of higher effective energy of the x-ray beam, both ____________ and _______________ interactions contribute substantially to the image. a. coherent; photodisintegration b. classical; pair production c. photoelectric; Compton d. Compton; photodisintegration
C
80
Which of the following are relevant dose parameters in CT? 1. CT dose index (CTDI) 2. CTDIw 3. CTDIVOL 4. Dose length product (DLP) a. 1, 2, and 3 only b. 2, 3, and 4 only c. 1, 3, and 4 only d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
D
81
DLP represents the product of the CTDIVOL and the irradiated scan length. In what unit of measure is it usually expressed? a. mGy-cm b. mSv-cm c. mGy-mSv d. mSv-mRa
A
82
Which of the following terms are synonymous? 1. Automatic exposure control 2. Iterative reconstruction 3. Tube current modulation a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
B
83
A miscentering of ________ can produce as much as __________% increase in patient dose. a. 2 cm; 50 b. 2 cm; 25 c. 1 cm; 75 d. 1 cm; 60
B
84
Which of the following terms are synonymous in relation to computed tomography? 1. Diagonal 2. Helical 3. Spiral a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
C
85
For routine head and body computed tomography examinations, effective doses fall into which of the following effective dose ranges? a. 1 to 10 mSv b. 20 to 30 mSv c. 40 to 50 mSv d. 60 to 70 mSv
A
86
For mammography molybdenum filters allow a (an) _________________ than rhodium filters. a. higher energy window b. lower energy window c. equal energy window d. comparable energy window
B
87
The entrance exposure from a CT examination may be compared with the entrance exposure received during which of the following procedures? a. Screening mammography b. A routine radiographic series of the lumbar spine with five projections c. A routine radiographic series of the paranasal sinuses with four projections d. A routine fluoroscopic examination
D
88
Tube current modulation in CT scanning can a. increase patient dose significantly. b. increase patient dose only slightly. c. help to reduce patient dose. d. not affect patient dose.
C
89
Verifying that the center of the patient coincides with the center of the CT gantry is a significant part of dose reduction strategies that is under the control of the a. CT technologist. b. hospital or imaging facility administrator. c. ordering physician. d. patient.
A
90
Filtering refers to changing the projection data before doing the back projections to remove the a. blurriness. b. contrast. c. grayness. d. scattered radiation.
C
91
In mammography maintaining and enhancing subject contrast is a. not important. b. minimally important. c. of paramount importance for all patients. d. only important for patients with dense breasts
C
92
Digital mammography units with the ability to enhance contrast with image gray-level manipulation offer a. substantial improvement for patients with small breasts. b. substantial improvement for patients with microcalcifications in small breasts. c. substantial improvement for patients with dense breasts. d. poor quality images for patients with dense breasts and microcalcifications
C
93
During mammography, axillary projections should be done only on request of the a. ordering physician. b. patient. c. radiologist. d. technologist performing the examination
C
94
In CT when a series of adjacent slices is obtained, some radiation will also scatter from the slice being made into the adjacent slices. What is this radiation called? a. Forward scatter b. Backscatter c. Interslice scatter d. Side scatter
C
95
In spiral image acquisition, the patient table moves during the acquisition so that a a. single-dimension image is obtained. b. three-dimensional data set is obtained. c. four-dimensional data set is obtained. d. six-dimensional data set is obtained.
B
96
Lower tube current is used in anatomic regions where there is ____________ attenuation because the anatomy is ____________ or _________ dense. a. increased; thicker; more b. decreased; thicker; more c. increased; thinner; less d. decreased; thinner; less
D
97
In the early 2000s various publications calculated individual and population risks of cancer from CT based upon risk estimates from studies of which of the following groups of people? a. Atomic bomb survivors b. Early radiologists and radiographers c. Patients undergoing treatment for thyroid cancer d. The general public who were exposed to natural background radiation
A
98
In computed tomography the dose at the edge of a beam does not decrease to _________ immediately. a. 15 cGy b. 10 cGy c. 5 cGy d. 0 (zero)
D
99
__ is the relationship between the movement or advancement of the patient couch and the x-ray beam collimator dimension. a. Dose distribution b. Iterative reconstruction c. Pitch d. Tube current modulation
C
100
The movement or advancement of the patient couch is known as a. optimization. b. iterative reconstruction. c. tube current modulation. d. table increment.
D
101
Which of the following groups advocate annual mammography screening or mammography screening at least every other year? 1. American College of Radiology 2. American Cancer Society 3. American Medical Association a. 1 and 2 only b. 1 and 3 only c. 2 and 3 only d. 1, 2, and 3
D
102