Chapter 11 quiz Flashcards
0
Q
When should the EMT use the pulse oximeter?
A) Only if the patient has a history of lung disease
B) Only on patients complaining of shortness of breath
C) Routinely on all patients with a medical or trauma complaint
D) On any and all patients 1 year of age and older
A
C) Routinely on all patients with a medical or trauma complaint
1
Q
Which one of the following statements concerning assessment of the pulse is correct?
A) “A brachial pulse should be felt first in any patient under 6 years of age.”
B) “The heart rate can be determined by doubling the number of beats counted in 30 seconds.”
C) “To get the most accurate rate, the EMT should place a stethoscope over the pulse site and count the number of beats in 1 minute.”
D) “After much experience, an EMT can estimate the pulse rate by just feeling it for a few seconds.”
A
B) “The heart rate can be determined by doubling the number of beats counted in 30 seconds.”
2
Q
During the primary assessment of a geriatric patient complaining of shortness of breath and fever, you quickly locate the radial pulse. What should you do next?
A) Determine the rate and quality of the pulse.
B) Assess the patient’s breathing.
C) Obtain a blood pressure.
D) Establish the patient’s level of consciousness.
A
A) Determine the rate and quality of the pulse.
3
Q
A mother has called 911 because her 2-year-old daughter is fussy and not eating. When assessing the toddler, which one of the following is the best indication of her perfusion status? A) Skin color and temperature B) Auscultation of breath sounds C) Heart rate D) Palpated blood pressure
A
A) Skin color and temperature
4
Q
When evaluating a patient’s skin color, the EMT should:
A) examine the skin color of the face and compare it with the color of the arms.
B) observe the nail beds and/or mucous membranes inside the eyelids.
C) look at the skin on the upper chest and feel it for warmth.
D) examine the change in skin color when applying then releasing pressure to the nail beds.
A
B) observe the nail beds and/or mucous membranes inside the eyelids.
5
Q
When assessing a patient’s pulse, you can locate the right radial pulse, but not the left. Which one of the following is the most likely explanation for this finding?
A) There is a problem with the patient’s veins.
B) The left radial artery may be occluded.
C) The patient is in the early stage of cardiac arrest.
D) The left radial artery is extremely large.
A
B) The left radial artery may be occluded.
6
Q
The EMT recognizes which one of the following heart rates (beats per minute) as normal for a 24-year-old male? A) 54 B) 110 C) 62 D) 124
A
C) 62
7
Q
The EMT understands the primary reason to obtain a medical history using the SAMPLE mnemonic when he states:
A) “It is important to use the SAMPLE mnemonic because the emergency department will need the information.”
B) “The SAMPLE mnemonic helps EMTs to diagnose a patient’s medical problem.”
C) “After performing the primary assessment, the SAMPLE mnemonic helps guide the EMT in further assessment and care.”
D) “The SAMPLE mnemonic is important because it will give the EMT the patient’s exact chief complaint.”
A
C) “After performing the primary assessment, the SAMPLE mnemonic helps guide the EMT in further assessment and care.”
8
Q
Correctly assessing orthostatic vital signs involves:
A) determining if the patient’s respirations and heart rate are within normal limits.
B) taking the blood pressure and heart rate three times, 2 minutes apart.
C) determining if the patient’s pulse disappears during deep inspiration.
D) taking the blood pressure in the supine, seated, and standing positions.
A
D) taking the blood pressure in the supine, seated, and standing positions.
9
Q
You are unable to auscultate a blood pressure in a patient’s right arm. Which one of the following will allow you to obtain the most accurate baseline assessment of the patient’s vital signs?
A) Use an automatic blood pressure monitor.
B) Palpate the blood pressure in the right arm.
C) Auscultate the blood pressure in the left arm.
D) Move the blood pressure cuff down to the forearm.
A
C) Auscultate the blood pressure in the left arm.
10
Q
When obtaining blood pressure on a patient in a standing position, the patient states that he suddenly feels weak and is going to pass out. Your immediate action should be to:
A) determine the blood pressure by palpation.
B) ask the patient if he is having chest pain.
C) place the patient back into bed.
D) hold the patient upright until the blood pressure is obtained.
A
C) place the patient back into bed.
11
Q
An 86-year-old female has called 911 for rectal bleeding. There is a large amount of dark red blood and clots in the toilet and on the patient’s clothing. The Emergency Medical Responder reports a blood pressure of 84/68 mmHg with a heart rate of 124 beats per minute. Given this information, the EMT should recognize:
A) diastolic hypertension and risk for stroke.
B) normal blood pressure since the patient is alert and oriented.
C) narrowed pulse pressure and possible shock.
D) normal heart rate given the patient’s age.
A
C) narrowed pulse pressure and possible shock.
12
Q
Which one of the following blood pressures represents diastolic hypertension in an adult patient? A) 240/88 mmHg B) 246/Palpation C) 136/92 mmHg D) 158/44 mmHg
A
C) 136/92 mmHg
13
Q
Which one of the following patients should the EMT recognize as tachycardic?
A) 37-year-old male with a complaint of fatigue and a heart rate of 104
B) 24-year-old female with diabetic complications and a heart rate of 54
C) 3-year-old female with vomiting and a heart rate of 116
D) 86-year-old male with chest pain and a heart rate of 96
A
A) 37-year-old male with a complaint of fatigue and a heart rate of 104
14
Q
You are caring for a 5-year-old male with the complaint of difficulty breathing. Your assessment indicates that the patient is tachypneic with labored breathing. To get more information about the patient's respiratory function, which one of the following findings would you recognize as most important? A) Nasal congestion and runny nose B) Systolic blood pressure of 92 mmHg C) Skin that is hot and dry D) Retractions between the ribs
A
D) Retractions between the ribs
15
Q
Which one of the following indicates the correct documentation of a pulse oximetry reading on the prehospital care report? A) 97% SpO2 B) 97% O2 C) 97% PO D) 97% PO2
A
A) 97% SpO2
16
Q
You notice that your partner routinely only takes one set of vitals when treating and transporting patients. When asked, he states that he only gets baseline vitals since they are most important as they provide information related to the patient’s clinical status at the time of the EMS call. How would you respond?
A) “Comparing several sets of vital signs is the only way you will know if the patient is improving or deteriorating.”
B) “Examining several sets of vital signs can indicate the effectiveness of your treatment.”
C) “You must get at least two sets of vital signs because that is what the national standard calls for.”
D) “You must at least get a pulse rate every 15 minutes since this is the most important vital sign.”
A
B) “Examining several sets of vital signs can indicate the effectiveness of your treatment.”
17
Q
You are assessing a 49-year-old male complaining of lower back pain. Which one of the following would be pertinent medical information related to the back pain that the EMT will obtain using the SAMPLE mnemonic?
A) Arthritis in the spine and pelvis
B) Heart rate of 48 and cool clammy skin
C) Last tetanus shot five years ago
D) Childhood case of measles
A
A) Arthritis in the spine and pelvis
18
Q
Where would the EMT palpate for a popliteal pulse? A) Behind the knee B) Upper arm C) Top of foot D) Posterior ankle
A
A) Behind the knee
19
Q
You are trying to get a pulse oximeter reading on an 18-month-old child with difficulty breathing. Every time you place the sensor on the finger, he becomes upset and removes it. The EMT’s best course of action would be to:
A) place the sensor on the child’s toe.
B) place the sensor on the other hand.
C) restrain the child until a reading is obtained.
D) attach the sensor to his neck.
A
A) place the sensor on the child’s toe.
20
Q
For which one of the following conditions would the EMT most likely get an inaccurate pulse oximeter reading despite proper application of the sensor? A) Increased heart rate B) Low blood pressure C) Unresponsiveness D) Elevated body temperature
A
B) Low blood pressure
21
Q
A pulse oximetry reading is considered normal when it is: A) greater than 90 percent. B) greater than 97 percent. C) greater than 75 percent. D) 100 percent.
A
B) greater than 97 percent.
22
Q
When using a pulse oximeter on an adult patient, the EMT knows that the sensor is most often attached to the patient's: A) finger. B) chest. C) ear. D) forehead.
A
A) finger.
23
Q
To test a patient’s capillary refill, the EMT will:
A) examine the inside lining of one or both eyelids.
B) apply pressure and then release that pressure from the arm.
C) apply gentle pressure to the radial pulse and watch color changes to the hand.
D) firmly compress and then release pressure on the nail bed.
A
D) firmly compress and then release pressure on the nail bed.
24
You have arrived by the side of a cyanotic patient who is responsive only to painful stimuli and exhibiting stridorous respirations. Which one of the following would be most appropriate?
A) Attempt to determine what happened to the patient or any existing medical problems.
B) Obtain a full set of vital signs excluding the patient's temperature.
C) Provide positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen.
D) Prepare and apply the pulse oximeter before administering oxygen.
C) Provide positive pressure ventilation with supplemental oxygen.
25
A female patient with a history of asthma called 911 with a complaint of shortness of breath. On scene, you assisted her with the administration of her metered dose inhaler containing albuterol. Which one of the following interventions will you use to best determine if the patient is improving or not?
A) Obtain pulse oximetry readings every 3 minutes.
B) Ask the patient if she finds it easier to breathe.
C) Inquire if she feels the need for another dose of albuterol.
D) Re-obtain a SAMPLE history and look for new information.
A) Obtain pulse oximetry readings every 3 minutes.
26
A patient states that he is short of breath, light-headed, and has chest pain that worsens when he takes a deep breath. Assessment reveals an open airway, adequate breathing, and a rapid pulse of 120 beats per minute. His skin is hot to the touch, and he has a blood pressure of 116/84 mmHg. The patient informs you that he was diagnosed with pneumonia three days ago and has not been taking the prescribed antibiotics. Which one of these assessment findings would the EMT best recognize as a sign related to the patient's chief complaint?
A) Blood pressure of 116/84 mmHg
B) Recent diagnosis of pneumonia
C) Chest pain that worsens with inspiration
D) Complaint of light-headedness
A) Blood pressure of 116/84 mmHg
27
You have assisted the patient in taking one of his nitroglycerin tablets. Five minutes later, you note the blood pressure is 108/74 mmHg. To determine if the nitroglycerin has affected the blood pressure, the EMT should:
A) retake the blood pressure and compare it to a normal BP of 120/80 mmHg.
B) compare to the baseline blood pressure.
C) ask the patient if he feels his blood pressure has changed.
D) take another blood pressure in five minutes.
B) compare to the baseline blood pressure.
28
The EMT is correct when he identifies baseline vital signs as:
A) the first set of vital signs obtained.
B) the most important set of vital signs.
C) any change in two consecutive sets of vital signs.
D) a set of vital signs most close to normal.
A) the first set of vital signs obtained.
29
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A female patient who called 911 when she noticed blood in her stool is scared and anxious. Her pulse rate is 124 and her blood pressure is 88/60 mmHg. After you get her vital signs, she nervously asks you if they are normal. Given her anxiety, you should:
A) inform her of the vital signs.
B) reassure her that she is fine.
C) tell her they are normal.
D) change the subject.
```
A) inform her of the vital signs.
30
Which statement is true regarding vital signs obtained from a patient with nausea and vomiting?
A) If the vital signs are within normal limits, it is safe to let the patient refuse transport.
B) The vital signs will allow the EMT to diagnose the cause of the nausea and vomiting.
C) The vital signs will help to determine the relative stability or instability of the patient.
D) The patient's complaint will be significant only if accompanied by abnormal vital signs.
C) The vital signs will help to determine the relative stability or instability of the patient.
31
Which patient description contains only vital signs?
A) Chief complaint of dizziness, BP 110/76 mmHg, breath sounds clear and equal
B) Heart rate 88, respiratory rate 14, blood glucose level 98 mg/dL
C) Chief complaint of dizziness, skin cool and clammy, respiratory rate 16
D) Skin warm and dry, heart rate 74, pupils equal and reactive
D) Skin warm and dry, heart rate 74, pupils equal and reactive
32
```
Emergency Medical Responders inform you that a 27-year-old male with altered mental status has an open airway and is breathing 9 times every 30 seconds. His pulse rate is 40 beats per minute, and he has bruises to his chest. Based on this information, the EMT should recognize the:
A) heart rate as irregular.
B) respiratory rate as normal.
C) heart as beating adequately.
D) blood pressure as normal.
```
B) respiratory rate as normal.
33
```
You are assessing a 61-year-old male who is confused. During the primary assessment, you cannot locate a radial pulse. Your immediate action should be to:
A) start CPR.
B) check for a carotid pulse.
C) apply the AED.
D) call for ALS assistance.
```
B) check for a carotid pulse.
34
```
Which piece of equipment would the EMT need to obtain a patient's vital signs?
A) Stethoscope
B) Oxygen
C) Glucometer
D) Automated defibrillator
```
A) Stethoscope
35
The EMT is correctly calculating a patient's respiratory rate when he or she:
A) obtains a pulse oximetry reading and divides it by 3.
B) asks the patient to describe how he feels when he breathes.
C) assesses the patient for any sign of respiratory difficulty.
D) counts the number of breaths for 30 seconds and multiplies by 2.
D) counts the number of breaths for 30 seconds and multiplies by 2.
36
Which of the following signs related to breathing would be most concerning to the EMT?
A) Respiratory rate of 18, complaint of weakness
B) Respiratory rate of 22, chest expansion of 1 inch
C) Respiratory rate of 20, use of accessory muscles
D) Respiratory rate of 10, speaking without difficulty
C) Respiratory rate of 20, use of accessory muscles
37
Which statement made by your partner indicates that he understands assessment of a patient's breathing?
A) "As long as the patient is breathing over 20 times a minute, he is getting enough oxygen in his body."
B) "If the respiratory rate is normal, the patient is breathing adequately and getting enough oxygen."
C) "To determine if a patient is adequately breathing, the EMT must get a full set of vital signs."
D) "A rate less than 8 may allow adequate breathing, but requires further evaluation and assessment."
D) "A rate less than 8 may allow adequate breathing, but requires further evaluation and assessment."
38
A family has called you for a 41-year-old male they cannot wake up. They state he has been threatening to kill himself and believe that he may have intentionally overdosed on his pain medications. As you enter the patient's bedroom, you observe him supine on the floor with his eyes closed. As he breathes, you hear snoring respirations. As a knowledgeable EMT, you recognize which one of the following?
A) He will require immediate suctioning.
B) His tongue is partially blocking the airway.
C) His respiratory rate must be less than 10 per minute.
D) He is sleeping and has not overdosed.
B) His tongue is partially blocking the airway.
39
```
Which one of the pulses listed below is palpated in the groin area?
A) Carotid
B) Femoral
C) Pedal
D) Inguinal
```
B) Femoral
40
```
A young female patient has been stung by a bee and states that her "throat is closing up." She states that she is allergic to bee stings and the last time this happened, she had to have a "tube put into my windpipe." She is struggling to breathe and can only speak a few words at a time. Knowing that allergic reactions can cause swelling in the pharynx and at the level of the larynx, which one of the following respiratory sounds would indicate that the patient indeed has swelling in this area?
A) Wheezing
B) Gurgling
C) Stridor
D) Snoring
```
C) Stridor
41
The EMT is correctly using a noninvasive blood pressure monitor when she:
A) confirms each reading on the device by palpating a pressure in the opposite arm.
B) alternates arms for each blood pressure that is obtained with the device.
C) auscultates a blood pressure before applying and activating the device.
D) places the cuff of the noninvasive BP monitor on the patient's forearm.
C) auscultates a blood pressure before applying and activating the device.
42
An EMT is correctly assessing a patient's radial pulse when he:
A) uses his thumb to feel for the pulse on the patient's lower arm.
B) simultaneously checks for a heart rate on both sides of the neck.
C) uses his fingertips to feel for a pulse at the patient's wrist.
D) uses the palm of his hand to feel the pulse on the upper arm.
C) uses his fingertips to feel for a pulse at the patient's wrist.
43
A patient with chest pain informs you that the pain hurts more when he takes a deep breath. The EMT is using the active listening technique clarification when he responds by saying:
A) "I see. Can you describe what the pain feels like?"
B) "Hmmm. That really seems to hurt a lot."
C) "I understand it hurts, please go on."
D) "So what you are saying is that it hurts more when you breathe?"
A) "I see. Can you describe what the pain feels like?"
44
When applying the pulse oximeter sensor to a patient's finger, he asks you what it is for. Your response would be:
A) "It measures the amount of oxygen being carried by your blood cells."
B) "It tells us how well your heart is pumping blood."
C) "It allows us to monitor your blood pressure."
D) "It provides us with the most accurate measure of your heart rate."
A) "It measures the amount of oxygen being carried by your blood cells."
45
You are transporting a depressed patient who states that she is thinking of killing herself by taking a "whole bunch of pills." After giving this information, the patient has refused to speak and has been silent ever since. Which one of the following statements would be most appropriate at this time?
A) "I need you to talk to me. I cannot help you if you refuse to talk to me."
B) "I understand if you do not want to talk. I will be sitting here if you need anything."
C) "I don't understand why you won't talk. You called 911 for help, didn't you?"
D) "Has the cat got your tongue? If you talk to me I can help you."
B) "I understand if you do not want to talk. I will be sitting here if you need anything."
46
Which one of the following is necessary to obtain an accurate pulse oximetry measurement?
A) Elevate the patient's hand above his heart.
B) Remove nail polish from the patient's fingernail.
C) Secure the probe to the patient's finger with tape.
D) Administer oxygen before assessing the oxygen saturation.
B) Remove nail polish from the patient's fingernail.
47
The EMT is appropriately using the SAMPLE mnemonic when he asks which one of the following questions?
A) "Have you thought about stopping smoking?"
B) "Why did you call for the ambulance?"
C) "When did you eat last?"
D) "Who is your doctor?"
C) "When did you eat last?"
48
A patient who appears to be intoxicated has fallen and is complaining of pain to his right arm. He is loud and using profane language. Which one of the following should be your initial approach to the patient?
A) "Stop yelling or I will have to strap you to the stretcher."
B) "Let me put an ice pack on your wrist. It will help it feel better."
C) "I cannot help you if you keep yelling like that!"
D) "If you do not quiet down, I will call the police and they will arrest you."
B) "Let me put an ice pack on your wrist. It will help it feel better."
49
Which one of the following statements would the EMT regard as a symptom?
A) "He has a history of high blood pressure."
B) "There is a bruise to his left elbow."
C) "He slipped and fell down the stairs."
D) "The patient is sharp and is a 10 out of 10."
D) "The patient is sharp and is a 10 out of 10."
50
You cannot obtain a reading on the pulse oximeter after applying the sensor to the patient's finger. Which one of the following would be the most likely reason for this?
A) The patient's pulse is faster than 100 beats per minute.
B) The patient is hypertensive.
C) The patient's hands are cold.
D) The patient's oxygen saturation is below 90%.
C) The patient's hands are cold.
51
Which one of the following illustrates a question that would be asked when obtaining a medical history, using the SAMPLE mnemonic, for a female patient who is crying and complaining of dizziness?
A) "What were you doing when the dizziness started?"
B) "Who is your doctor and when was your last office visit?"
C) "You seem upset. Do you want to talk about it?"
D) "Why exactly did you call the ambulance today?"
A) "What were you doing when the dizziness started?"
52
An EMT has an accurate understanding of the diastolic blood pressure when she tells you that the diastolic pressure:
A) is the pressure in the arteries when the heart is not contracting.
B) can be easily obtained by palpating the blood pressure.
C) can be estimated as one-third of the systolic blood pressure.
D) should always be rounded to the nearest 10.
A) is the pressure in the arteries when the heart is not contracting.
53
The fire department has requested your assistance at a residence where the family's carbon monoxide (CO) detector has been going off. Of three patients, you first assess a 28-year-old female who states she has a sinus headache but otherwise feels fine. Her vital signs are: pulse 90, respirations 16, blood pressure 118/60 mmHg, and SpO2 100%. Given these assessment findings, you should immediately:
A) administer high-concentration oxygen.
B) inform her that the CO detector has malfunctioned.
C) recheck the oxygen saturation on the patient's opposite hand.
D) call for advanced life support assistance.
A) administer high-concentration oxygen.
54
Which one of the following pieces of information would be obtained when getting a history using the SAMPLE mnemonic?
A) Pulse 144, respiration 16, BP 132/88
B) Reason for calling for an ambulance
C) No life threats to the airway, breathing, or circulation
D) Sensation of dizziness prior to falling
D) Sensation of dizziness prior to falling
55
A blood pressure is reported as 116/68 mmHg. Which one of the following is true?
A) The systolic blood pressure is 116 mmHg.
B) The diastolic blood pressure is 116 mmHg.
C) The systolic pressure is determined by subtracting 68 from 116.
D) The top number reflects the diastolic blood pressure.
A) The systolic blood pressure is 116 mmHg.
56
```
When obtaining a blood pressure, the EMT listens for a pulse over what blood vessel?
A) Brachial artery
B) Radial artery
C) Carotid vessels
D) Antecubital vein
```
A) Brachial artery
57
```
Which one of the following questions would the EMT ask when using the OPQRST mnemonic?
A) "Have you ever had any surgeries?"
B) "Does the pain feel dull or sharp?"
C) "Do you have any medical conditions?"
D) "Did you take any medications today?"
```
B) "Does the pain feel dull or sharp?"
58
When assessing a patient who does not speak the same language as you or your partner, the best approach in the immediate care of the patient is to:
A) request that a family member act as an interpreter.
B) try to find a neighbor who speaks the patient's language.
C) contact medical direction to get physician input.
D) transport the patient to a hospital with interpreters for her language.
A) request that a family member act as an interpreter.
59
```
Which one of the following descriptions would be obtained when asking about the "A" component of the SAMPLE history?
A) Abdomen soft
B) Allergy to penicillin
C) Airway open
D) History of asthma
```
B) Allergy to penicillin
60
```
The EMT is correctly palpating a central pulse when he palpates which of the following?
A) Femoral pulse
B) Radial pulse
C) Posterior tibial pulse
D) Brachial pulse
```
A) Femoral pulse
61
```
When obtaining a medical history using the SAMPLE mnemonic, which one of the following statements relates to the "P" component?
A) "The pulse is 116 beats per minute."
B) "The pain is rated at 8/10."
C) "There is a history of pancreatitis."
D) "The physician is Dr. Coleman."
```
C) "There is a history of pancreatitis."
62
When using the OPQRST mnemonic, the EMT is getting information as it applies to the "P" category when she asks:
A) "What time did the symptoms start?"
B) "Do you feel more short of breath when you are lying down?"
C) "Does the chest pain spread to your back?"
D) "Can you rate the pain on a scale of 1 to 10?"
B) "Do you feel more short of breath when you are lying down?"
63
```
To assess a patient's blood pressure, the EMT will need a:
A) sphygmomanometer.
B) pair of gloves and stethoscope.
C) pulse oximeter and stethoscope.
D) pulse oximeter.
```
A) sphygmomanometer.
64
As you enter the scene of a medical emergency, the Emergency Medical Responder informs you that the patient is not breathing and has pupils that are fixed and dilated. Based on this description, which one of the following are you expecting to see when you reach the patient's side?
A) Both pupils are large and change shape to light.
B) Neither pupil will react when light is directed into the eyes.
C) The patient must wear corrective lenses.
D) The patient has a past medical history of blindness.
B) Neither pupil will react when light is directed into the eyes.
65
An EMT has an accurate understanding of the systolic blood pressure when he tells you that the systolic blood pressure is:
A) caused by constriction of the arteries.
B) produced when the heart contracts.
C) the pressure in the veins.
D) represented by the bottom number.
B) produced when the heart contracts.
66
```
Which one of the following is an indication to palpate the blood pressure?
A) Normal pulse rate
B) Non-life-threatening condition
C) Tachycardic pulse rate
D) Noisy environment
```
D) Noisy environment
67
The EMT is correct when he makes which one of the following statements about assessment of the pupils?
A) "Constricted pupils are less of a concern than are dilated pupils."
B) "Dilated pupils are less of a concern than pupils that are constricted."
C) "If a patient's pupils are dilated but react to light, the pupillary exam is considered normal."
D) "Some people naturally have unequal pupils, but both should react to light."
D) "Some people naturally have unequal pupils, but both should react to light."
68
When getting a blood pressure on a patient, the radial pulse disappears when the gauge reads 130 mmHg. When deflating the cuff, the EMT hears a pulse at 118 mmHg. The pulse disappears at 76 mmHg. Which one of the following is true?
A) The systolic blood pressure is 76 mmHg.
B) The diastolic blood pressure is 130 mmHg.
C) The diastolic blood pressure is 118 mmHg.
D) The systolic blood pressure is 118 mmHg.
D) The systolic blood pressure is 118 mmHg.
69
An EMT student asks you if it matters if the blood pressure cuff seems too small for a patient, even though a reading can still be obtained. You should respond:
A) "As long as the reading is obtained, it should be accurate."
B) "As long as the radial pulse remains intact, the cuff size is irrelevant."
C) "Using a cuff that is too small can cause damage to the blood vessels."
D) "Cuffs that are too small provide inaccurately high readings."
D) "Cuffs that are too small provide inaccurately high readings."
70
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Your partner states that he wants to palpate the blood pressure. What equipment would you hand him?
A) Blood pressure cuff
B) Stethoscope and pulse oximeter
C) Stethoscope
D) Blood pressure cuff and stethoscope
```
A) Blood pressure cuff
71
You have placed the blood pressure cuff on the arm of a patient who is short of breath. What is your next step?
A) Inflate the cuff to 300 mmHg, and then have the cuff inflated for 30 seconds prior to deflation.
B) Inflate the cuff to three times the patient's age and listen for a heartbeat.
C) Inflate the cuff to a reading of 300 mmHg, and then deflate the cuff slowly until you hear a pulse.
D) Inflate to a reading of 70 mmHg, check for a radial pulse, and continue inflation until the pulse is no longer felt.
D) Inflate to a reading of 70 mmHg, check for a radial pulse, and continue inflation until the pulse is no longer felt.
72
Your partner reports that a patient's blood pressure is 156/78 mmHg. From this reading, you realize:
A) The systolic blood pressure is 78 mmHg.
B) The diastolic blood pressure is 78 mmHg.
C) The constant pressure in the veins is 156 mmHg.
D) The pulse pressure is 224 mmHg.
B) The diastolic blood pressure is 78 mmHg.
73
A 69-year-old man is complaining of weakness to the left arm and leg. He also states that he is nauseated and has a headache. The patient's past medical history includes stroke and diabetes. In relation to this information, which one of the following is true?
A) The dizziness is a sign indicating the severity of the chief complaint.
B) The history of diabetes is a sign related to the chief complaint.
C) The headache is a symptom related to the chief complaint.
D) The history of diabetes is a contributing symptom of the chief complaint.
C) The headache is a symptom related to the chief complaint.
74
Which one of the statements listed below indicates an appropriate understanding of palpating a blood pressure?
A) "A palpated blood pressure is typically falsely lower than a blood pressure obtained by auscultation."
B) "It is best to determine a palpated blood pressure using a stethoscope and pulse oximeter."
C) "A palpated blood pressure is recorded when the brachial pulse returns as the BP cuff is deflated."
D) "Palpated blood pressures are the technique of choice when the patient has a cardiac complaint."
A) "A palpated blood pressure is typically falsely lower than a blood pressure obtained by auscultation."
75
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In the prehospital care report, the EMT should recognize that a blood pressure has been palpated when she sees:
A) 178 / P.
B) P / 118.
C) 118/178 (palpated).
D) Palp: 178/118 mmHg.
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A) 178 / P.
76
You observe your partner correctly obtaining a patient's blood pressure when he:
A) inflates the cuff maximally prior to slowly deflating and listening for a pulse.
B) places the stethoscope under the cuff and deflates it.
C) stops inflation and starts deflation as soon as the radial pulse disappears.
D) deflates the cuff 2 mmHg per second while listening with a stethoscope.
D) deflates the cuff 2 mmHg per second while listening with a stethoscope.
77
The purpose of the OPQRST mnemonic is to guide the EMT in which one of the following?
A) Determining the stability of vital signs
B) Establishing any allergies to medications
C) Exploring the patient's chief complaint
D) Getting a past medical history
C) Exploring the patient's chief complaint
78
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What pulse site is commonly used when the EMT elects to palpate a blood pressure?
A) Radial
B) Brachial
C) Carotid
D) Pedal
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A) Radial
79
```
You have been dispatched to a residence for a 14-year-old female complaining of abdominal pain. As you enter the living room, you see the conscious patient lying on a couch with her father and an Emergency Medical Responder at her side. Which one of the following actions would be most appropriate to perform first?
A) Determine the chief complaint.
B) Introduce yourself and your partner.
C) Ask her father to leave the room.
D) Get permission to treat the patient.
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B) Introduce yourself and your partner.
80
You have applied the pulse oximeter to a 73-year-old male complaining of weakness and heart palpitations. Your partner reports that the patient's breath sounds are clear and equal with a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute and skin that is warm but pale in color. He continues to state the following vital signs: pulse 92, blood pressure 168/70 mmHg, and SpO2 90% on room air. Given this information, which one of the following instructions would be most appropriate?
A) "Let's recheck the SpO2 in 2 minutes for any change."
B) "The SpO2 is probably normal for him since he is very pale."
C) "Let's give him high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather."
D) "The reading must be wrong since he displays no cyanosis."
C) "Let's give him high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather."
81
Which one of the following is an example of an open-ended question?
A) "Why did you call 911?"
B) "Did you take your medications today?"
C) "Are you dizzy?"
D) "Does your chest hurt?"
A) "Why did you call 911?"
82
Which one of the following indicates that the EMT has correctly positioned the blood pressure cuff on the patient's arm?
A) The cuff is centered over the top of the radial artery.
B) The cuff is placed over the antecubital space and elbow.
C) The cuff covers one-third of the patient's upper arm.
D) The cuff is on the same level as the patient's heart.
D) The cuff is on the same level as the patient's heart.
83
Your partner is having a difficult time determining what a normal and abnormal blood pressure is for a child. Which one of the following statements will help him most?
A) "Any systolic blood pressure of less than 100 mmHg in a child is an emergency."
B) "It is helpful to ask the parent or caregiver what is normal for the child and compare your reading to that."
C) "A normal systolic pressure can be estimated by doubling the child's age and adding it to 80."
D) "Since pediatric emergencies are less common than adult emergencies. It is best to call medical direction and ask what is normal."
C) "A normal systolic pressure can be estimated by doubling the child's age and adding it to 80."
84
When assessing a patient's pupils, the EMT should:
A) instruct the patient to blink several times and observe the size of the pupils.
B) cover one eye and shine a light in the other, watching for changes to the size of the pupil.
C) shine a light in one eye and watch for the pupil to dilate.
D) determine the size of the pupil and then look for a change in pupillary size as you shine a light in the eye.
D) determine the size of the pupil and then look for a change in pupillary size as you shine a light in the eye.
85
Assessment of a patient who is unresponsive reveals pupils that are both large at 8 millimeters and do not change size in response to light. The EMT would best document this finding as:
A) bilateral dilation of the pupils.
B) nonreactive pupils of decreased size.
C) midsize pupils that are reactive to light.
D) constricted pupils nonreactive to light.
A) bilateral dilation of the pupils.
86
Which one of the following indicates a normal pupillary exam?
A) The patient reflexively closes his eyes to light.
B) One pupil dilates and the other constricts to light.
C) Both pupils constrict when light is directed into the eye.
D) The pupils are equal and do not change shape to light.
C) Both pupils constrict when light is directed into the eye.
87
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A 41-year-old male patient reacts to painful stimuli by moaning. You shine a light at his right pupil. Which one of the following reactions would be normal?
A) Closure of both eyelids
B) Constriction of the left pupil
C) Dilation of the left pupil
D) Dilation of the right pupil
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B) Constriction of the left pupil
88
You are assessing a patient who is in bright sunlight after collapsing in the hot sun at a picnic. If you cannot immediately move the patient out of the sun, assessment of the pupils will be made more accurate by:
A) shading the patient's eyes.
B) hydrating the eyes with saline drops.
C) retracting the eyelid.
D) using a blue-tinged light.
A) shading the patient's eyes.
89
You are attempting to get a history from a 56-year-old female who is short of breath. When you ask questions, the daughter continually answers for the patient. To best handle this situation, you should:
A) contact medical direction for advisement.
B) explain to the daughter it is important for the patient to answer.
C) move the patient to the ambulance for the rest of the assessment.
D) have the Emergency Medical Responders remove the daughter.
B) explain to the daughter it is important for the patient to answer.
90
```
Friends called 911 for a 37-year-old female who intentionally overdosed on a narcotic drug. Which one of the following eye findings would reinforce that the patient did indeed take a narcotic?
A) Bloodshot eyes with large pupils
B) Nonreactive pupils that are unequal
C) Pupils that constrict to light
D) Pupils that are constricted
```
D) Pupils that are constricted
91
You have been dispatched to a residence for a female with unknown injuries. At the patient's side, you quickly become aware that the 43-year-old female was assaulted by her husband. The husband comes into the room and states, "Don't you touch her, or I will take care of you, too!" Which one of the following should be your immediate action?
A) Control any active bleeding, and then leave the house.
B) Stay with the patient and contact law enforcement.
C) Leave the house, taking the patient with you, if possible.
D) Restrain the husband so that you can care for the patient.
C) Leave the house, taking the patient with you, if possible.
92
A 43-year-old female has accidentally taken too much of her antidepressant medication and is now confused. Emergency Medical Responders are on scene and providing the patient with high-concentration oxygen. As you arrive at the patient's side, your first action should be to:
A) get a pulse oximeter reading.
B) obtain vital signs.
C) determine the type of medication taken.
D) perform a primary assessment.
D) perform a primary assessment.
93
When using the SAMPLE mnemonic, which of the following statements made by the patient would be categorized under the letter "M"?
A) "My doctor's name is Dr. Hansen."
B) "I was diagnosed and treated for breast cancer."
C) "I have never had a surgical procedure."
D) "I take Zocor, but I am not sure why."
D) "I take Zocor, but I am not sure why."
94
You have been called to a bar for a patient who was involved in an altercation and is complaining of abdominal pain. Law enforcement is present, the patient has been handcuffed, and he is sitting on the sidewalk. He has an odor of alcohol on his breath, his speech is slurred, and he is angrily yelling at the police officers. Which one of the following would be most appropriate when talking to the patient?
A) Stand above the patient to establish authority.
B) Maintain eye contact to establish a rapport.
C) Stand and communicate with the patient from four feet away.
D) Place your hand on his shoulder to keep him subdued.
B) Maintain eye contact to establish a rapport.
95
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An alert and oriented 87-year-old female has fallen and suffered a 3-cm laceration to the back of her head. According to the patient, her walker became caught in the carpet, causing her to trip. When obtaining a medical history, which one of the following sources should be asked first?
A) EMRs on scene
B) Patient
C) Patient's primary care doctor
D) Family members
```
B) Patient
