Chapter 11 - Therapeutic Medications Flashcards

(119 cards)

1
Q

What is the study of the movement of drugs through the body to produce the desired effects?

A

Pharmacokinetics

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2
Q

What are the five steps of moving a drug through the body?

A
  1. Administration
  2. Absorption
  3. Distribution
  4. Metabolism
  5. Excretion
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3
Q

What two factors affect bioavailibilty?

A
  1. route of drug administration
  2. absorption
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4
Q

T/F: Drugs that inhibit or block effects are called agonists.

A

False, agonists facilitate or produce a change

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5
Q

T/F: Drugs that inhibit or block effects are called antagonists.

A

True

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6
Q

What is the absorption rate?

A

The amount of time that it takes the drug to move into the tissues and produce a therapeutic effect

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7
Q

What are the three enteral routes?

A

oral, sublingual, rectal

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8
Q

What are medications combined with to facilitate entry into the body?

A

Vehicles

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9
Q

T/F: Enteric-coated preparations are drugs that are covered in acid-resistant materials to protect it from the acid and peptin in the stomach for absorbtion in the intestines.

A

True

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10
Q

T/F: Sustained-release perparations are capsules or tablets that are filled with tiny spheres designed to disolve at variable rates.

A

True

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11
Q

How long after taking it (on average) does an oral medication enter the bloodstream?

A

30 min

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12
Q

Why are sublingual medications absorbed much faster?

A

Going through the mucosa avoids metabolism in the liver

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13
Q

When would you use the recal route of administration?

A

For people who can’t hold down food/liquid or unconscious people

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14
Q

What are the four invasive parenteral routes of drug administration?

A
  1. Intravenous
  2. intra-arterial
  3. intramuscular
  4. subcutaneous injection
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15
Q

What are the three noninvasive parenteral routes of drug administration?

A
  1. inhalation
  2. topical
  3. transdermal
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16
Q

What factors affect drug absorption (5)

A
  1. type of administration
  2. surface area
  3. blood flow in area
  4. type of cell membrane it has to cross
  5. solubility of drug (fat or water)
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17
Q

Where do most drugs exit the blood?

A

capillary beds

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18
Q

T/F: All drugs will eventually leave the blood stream and be excreted.

A

False, if they are too large (like if it had bound to albumin) they will remain in the blood

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19
Q

T/F: Some drugs do not need a receptor to be effective.

A

True

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20
Q

What is the original drug broken down into after biotranformation (drug metabolism)

A

metabolites

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21
Q

T/F: All drugs go through the first-pass effect in the liver

A

False, only oral

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22
Q

T/F: Not all drugs are metabolized.

A

True

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23
Q

T/F: Drugs that are highly lipid soluable are usually excreted by the kidneys.

A

False, usually the kidneys cannot excrete them so they are broken down into more water soluable compounds by the liver for excretion

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24
Q

T/F: Drug metabolism will not alter the effect of the drug.

A

False, can sometime inactivate or activate the drug

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25
What are the 6 routes a drug can exit the body?
Sweat, bile, saliva, urine, breast milk, or exhaled by the lung
26
What are the two main types of drug excretion?
renal and hepatic
27
What are the two basic drug plasma levels?
1. Minimum effective concentration (MEC) 2. Toxic concentration
28
What is the therapeutic range of a drug?
The range between the MEC and the toxic concentration
29
T/F: The narrower the therapeutic range of a drug, the safer it is.
False, the wider the range the safer (more flexibility between effective concentration and overdose)
30
T/F: As long as the plasma levels remain above the MEC, the therapeutic response of a drug will continue.
True
31
T/F: Maximal efficacy is the dose at which the therpeutic response occurs and continues to increase in magnitude until a plateau is reached.
True
32
T/F: If an additional dose of medication is given, the maximal efficacy of the dose will double.
False, it will have no effect if a plateau is reached
33
T/F: A drug with a higher potency requires a smaller dosage to produce the same effects.
True
34
What factors influence drug interactions? (7)
- genetics - age -current illness or disease - quantity of drug ingested - duration of drug therapy - time between taking 2 drugs - which drug is taken first
35
Which three types of drugs are responsible for 80% of adverse drug reactions?
NSAIDS, beta-lactam antibiotics, and sulfonamides
36
T/F: Drug dispensing is the term given to providing one dose of a medication to a person.
False, that's administration of medication. Drug dispensing is more than one dose.
37
T/F: Physicians currently use "Physicians Desk Reference" to access the most current diagnostic and treatment information.
False, they use Epocrates
38
What common medications are used to treat sports related injuries? (8)
- analgesics & antipyretics - NSAIDS - corticosteriods - anesthetics - antiseptics - tobical antibiotics - antifungal agents
39
What is an antipyretic?
A drug used to prevent or reduce fever
40
What does acetaminophen do?
inhibits synthesis of prostaglandins in the CNS (but not in peripheral tissues) > analgesic and reduces fever
41
T/F: Acetaminophen also has inti-inflammtory and antiplatelet proporties.
False
42
What does aspirin do?
analgesic, anti-inflammatory, antipyretic
43
T/F: Acetaminophen can be used as a substitute for aspirin to decrease GI stress and ulcer develpoment.
True
44
T/F: You cannot overdose on acetominophen because it is processed quickly by the liver.
False, too much can lead to liver damage and death
45
What is Reye syndrome?
swelling of liver and brain - recurrent vomiting that occurs a week after the onset and can result in a full recovery or a coma (possibility of death)
46
T/F: If aspirin is used in a child younger than 18, it can result in Reye syndrome
True
47
What is the main mechanism of an NSAID?
inhibits prostaglandins and other related compounds by inhibiting COX
48
What does a prostaglandin do?
regulate cell function - at an injury promotes blood flow, tissue permeability, and facilitaites histamine and bradykinin
49
T/F: Inhibition of COX-1 result in anti-inflamatory effects?
false, thats COX-2
50
T/F: Inhibition of COX-1 can result in adverse GI effects?
True
51
Which COX is responsible for the inflammation?
COX-2
52
T/F: NSAIDs do not normally create dependance
True
53
T/F: NSAIDs have anti-pyretic properties and antiplatelet effects.
True
54
T/F: Alcohol should never be taken with NSAIDs because it increases the risk of GI irritation and stomach ulcers.
True
55
T/F: NSAIDs are effective for relief of severe pain which is why they are so widely used.
false, not effective
56
T/F: Prescription strength NSAIDs can only be precribed by a lincenced practitioner.
True
57
What are corticosteroids?
steriod hormones that are naturally produced in the adrenal cortex but can be produced synthetically.
58
T/F: Corticosteroids are powerful drugs that affect almost the entire body.
True
59
How do corticosteroids block inflammation?
by inhibiting chemical mediators
60
T/F: Corticosteriods have a more specific scope of reducing inflammation compared to NSAIDs.
False, corticosteriods have more ways to reduce inflammation than NSAIDs
61
T/F: Chronic use of corticosteriods can weaken the immune system and make a person mor susceptible to infection
True
62
What are some possible adverse reactions to corticosteroids?
- itching - burning - dry skin - fluid retention Rare: change in appetite, abnormal hair growth, dizziness, restlessness, GI distress, menstrual irregularities, optic pain.
63
What are corticosteriods indicated for?
skin disorders nasal inflammation rheumatic disorders skin infections
64
Corticosteriods should not be used by whom?
individuals with HIV /AIDS, heart disease, hypertension, diabetes, gastritis, peptic ulcers, lupus, or other infections.
65
T/F: Corticosteriods are banned by the NCAA and USOC with the exception of topical applications.
False, not banned for NCAA
66
T/F: The USOC will allow inhaled, local, or intra-articular injections with written permission.
True
67
What does pruritus mean?
Itchiness
68
How do anesthetics work?
Inhibit the sensory nerve receptors in the skin.
69
For what conditions are infiltrative anesthetics commonly used?
turf toes or hip pointers
70
What are topical anesthetics called when they are used for relieving pain in a musculoskeletal injury?
counterirritants
71
Give two examples of counterirritants
Icy Hot, Solarcaine
72
T/F: Methyl salicylate is safe for people who are allergic to aspirin.
False, body may absorb the salicylate.
73
How do muscle relaxors works?
Inhibit affferent messages that travel form the muscles to the brian
74
T/F: Because muscle relaxors work on the CNS, they can cause overally CNS depression (drowsiness, dizziness, sedation).
True
75
T/F: Muscle relaxors are not banned by the NCAA or USOC
True
76
What are the two basic types of bacteria that antibiotics fight against?
Streptococcus and Staphylococcus
77
What is the difference betweeen antiseptics and disinfectants?
Antiseptics are used on living tissue (isopropyl alcohol, iodine) and disinfectants are used on non-living tissue.
78
In humans, what are the two types of fungal cells?
molds or yeasts
79
Tinea coporis, tinea pedis, and tinea cruris are caused by molds or yeasts?
molds
80
What are the performance benefits of caffeine
CNS stimulant that increases alertness and feelings of well-being. Stimulates the secretion of adrenaline
81
candidiasis and moniliasis are caused by molds or yeasts?
yeasts
82
T/F: Caffeine is considered by the NCAA and the IOC to be a restricted/controlled drug.
True
83
What are the performance benefits of tobacco?
low-level CNS stimulant, nicotine is a stimulant that is highly addictive
84
T/F: In low doses, nicotine stimulates the autonomic ganglia and large doses depress
True
85
What are the adverse conditions associated with oral tobacco
halitosis, permanantly discoloured teeth, oral abrasions, peridontal disease, tooth loss and leukoplakia.
86
T/F: Leukoplakia is an oral disease categorized as leasions on the teeth, gums, and cheeks. It can lead to oral cancer.
True
87
T/F: Alcohol is the most abused drug in US and the number 1 choice of drug for intercollegiate athletes
True
88
T/F: Caffeine causes vasoconstriction in all areas of the body.
False, no vasoconstriction in renal afferent artery
89
What is the half-life of caffeine?
3.5 hours
90
What is the limit for caffeine defind by the NCAA and the IOC?
NCAA: >15 ug/mL IOC: >12 ug/mL
91
What effects do alcohol have on the body?
Passes the blood-brain barrier and depresses the CNS
92
How much of alcohol is processed in the liver? A) 100% B) 90% C) 80% D) 70%
B) 90%, the rest is excreted in sweat, urine, and exhalation
93
Which two systems does marjuana affect and what are the effects?
CNS - Impaired motor coordination - Decreased short-term memory - Difficulty concentrating - Decline work performance Cardiovascular system - Tachycardia - Changes in BP
94
T/F: Alcohol is banned in all NCAA sports.
False, only riflery
95
T/F: Marijuana results in reduction of maximal exercise performance and a premature acheivement of VO2max
True
96
How long can marijuana be detected in drug testing?
up to 2-4 weeks
97
What are the 5 types of diaretics and when are they used?
1) carbonic anhydrase inhibitors- glucoma (decreases production of aqeuous humor -> decreases intraocular pressure) 2) loop diaretics - emergencies -> edema associated with cirrhosis, heart failure, renal disease. 3) Osmotic diuretics - low urine production in renal failure, reduce cerebral edema & intraocular pressure before surgery 4) Potassium sparing - chronic heart failure and hypertension 5) Thiazides - long term treatment of hypertension, edema from chronic heart failure, hepatic cirrhosis, corticosteriod and estrogen therapy, renal dysfunction
98
What are anabolic-androgenic steriods commonly used for?
stimulate growth and accelerate weight gain
99
T/F: In people who don't exercise anabolic steriods have no effect.
False, increases hunger and feelings of well-being, just no effect on muscle size or strength
100
What are some short-term side effects of steriods?
Rage, increase appetite, increased sex-drive, lowered tolerance to pain, acne, male pattern baldness, menstrual irregularites, deepening of voice, decreased breast development, facial and body hair growth, gynecomastia.
101
What are some long-term side effects of steriod use?
CVD, liver disease, testicular atrophy, impotence, decrease in sperm, enlarged clitoris, uterine atrophy, early closure of physis in children (stunted height).
102
What is hGH used for?
Muscle growth and strength, and muculoskeletal healing properties.
103
T/F: hGH is also used medically to improve childrens growth and prevent body wasting in conditions like AIDS.
True
104
T/F: Overdose of hGH can lead to acromegaly, but the therapeutic window is large for hGH so it is rare.
False, the therapeutic window for hGH is very small.
105
T/F: hGH is difficult to detect in drug testing.
True
106
What do amphetamines do?
powerful CNS stimulant
107
What does Ephedra do?
CNS stimulant that increases serum levels of norepinephrine- increases BP, HR, cardiac output, and peripheral vascular resistance.
108
T/F: Ephedra can be deadly in hot envrioments because it increases heat production and body temperature
true
109
T/F: Synthetic variants of ephedra are used to make ecstacy and methamphetamines.
True
110
What are the two types of blood doping?
Homologous transfusions & autologous transfusions
111
What is the advantage of doping with erythropoietin?
Increased RBC count means more oxygen uptake
112
T/F: Both darbepoetin and erythropoietin can be detected in drug testing now.
True
113
What is the main advantage of creatine?
Faster regeneration of ATP, elays muscle fatigue and soreness,
114
T/F: Creatine is banned by the NCAA but not the IOC
False, banned by neither
115
What are the three intentions of drug testing?
1) drug testing discovers the individuals that may be experiencing problems. 2) Testing is performed to screen participants for evidence of drug use/abuse 3) Drug testing protects individuals from injury or from causing injury to others.
116
What are some methods of drug testing?
urine, blood, human hair, radioimmunoassay
117
What are the two main disadvantages of urine testing?
sample easily tampered with, potential of humiliating experience for individual
118
What are three ways people have tried to circumvent urine testing?
1) masking agents 2) determination of drug half-life 3) substitution of urine
119
T/F The NCAA does two random visits per year to drug test D1 football and track and field athletes.
True