Chapter 12

Question 1

What fracture involves the ring of atlas (C1)? Type?

Answer 1

Jefferson Fracture
Comminuted

Question 2

What is a comminuted fracture

Answer 2

complete fracture
fragments of bone remain

Question 3

What is a complete non-comminuted fracture

Answer 3

fracture line
bone separated into 2

Question 4

What is an avulsion fracture

Answer 4

fragment of bone pulled away by tendon or ligament

Question 5

What is an incomplete fracture

Answer 5

little or no displacement
most commonly in forearm or tib/fib

Question 6

Type of incomplete fractures (name)

Answer 6

Greenstick
Torus (buckle)

Question 7

Name a type of avulsion fracture

Answer 7

John Fracture
Clay Shoveler’s Fracture

Question 8

What fracture involves the arch of C2

Answer 8

Hangman’s Fracture

Question 9

Name of fracture affecting spinous process of lower cervical region

Answer 9

clay shoveler’s

Question 10

What surrounds the nucleus pulposus

Answer 10

annulus fibrosus

Question 10

The central mass of the intervertebral disk:
a. annulus fibrosus
b. nucleus pulposus

Answer 10

B

Question 11

Herniated disc or slip disc is known as

Answer 11

herniated nucleus pulposus

Question 12

cause of herniated nucleus pulposus and location

Answer 12

cause: compression of disc and twisting
location: lumbar or cervical

Question 13

bony defect in the pars interarticularis
a. spondlylolysis
b. spondylolisthesis

Answer 13

a

Question 14

anterior displacement of one vertebra over another
a. spondlylolysis
b. spondylolisthesis

Answer 14

b

Question 15

If there is a bony defect in the pars interarticularis bilaterally it is a:
a. spondlylolysis
b. spondylolisthesis

Answer 15

b

Question 16

spondylolisthesis occurs where?

Answer 16

typically L5
exclusively in lumbar

Question 17

Pars interarticularis is the ______ of the scotty dog

Answer 17

neck

Question 18

What is a pathologic fracture

Answer 18

area on bone has weakness due to process of a tumor, infection, or metabolic disease

Question 19

Opposite cortex is intact and bone is bent
a. comminuted
b. greenstick
c. avulsion
d. stress

Answer 19

b

Question 20

Repeated pressure onto bone
a. comminuted
b. greenstick
c. avulsion
d. stress

Answer 20

d

Question 21

Cause of stress fracture

Answer 21

mismatch bone strength and mechanical stress

Question 22

transverse fracture through distal radius with dorsal angulation
a. colles fracture
b. scaphoid fracture
c. monteggia fracture
d. galeazzi fracture

Answer 22

a

Question 23

transverse fracture of carpal bones
a. colles fracture
b. scaphoid fracture
c. monteggia fracture
d. galeazzi fracture

Answer 23

b

Question 24

transverse fracture of 5th metacarpal neck a. boxers fracture b. scaphoid fracture c. monteggia fracture d. galeazzi fracture

Answer 24

A

Question 25

fracture of ulna shaft and anterior dislocation of medial radius a. colles fracture b. scaphoid fracture c. monteggia fracture d. galeazzi fracture

Answer 25

C

Question 26

fracture of radius shaft and distal dislocation of ulna a. colles fracture b. scaphoid fracture c. monteggia fracture d. galeazzi fracture

Answer 26

D

Question 27

Cause of nursemaid's elbow

Answer 27

dislocation of radial head by pulling on arm

Question 28

Fracture that goes through metaphysis or epiphysis extending through physis (name AKA)

Answer 28

salter-harris fracture growth plate fracture

Question 29

Salter-harris type 1

Answer 29

completely through epiphysis

Question 30

Salter-harris type 2

Answer 30

75% through epiphysis and rest is through metaphysis

Question 31

Salter-harris type 5

Answer 31

complete through epiphysis with compression

Question 32

24hr in house coverage by general surgeons and prompt availability of care in specialties a. Trauma 1 Center b. Trauma 2 Center c. Trauma 3 Center d. Trauma 4 Center

Answer 32

a

Question 33

can handle majority of trauma cases but does not have cardiology, hemodialysis, or microvascular surgeons on hand a. Trauma 1 Center b. Trauma 2 Center c. Trauma 3 Center d. Trauma 4 Center

Answer 33

B

Question 34

provides prompt assessment, resuscitation, stabilization, and emergency operations a. Trauma 1 Center b. Trauma 2 Center c. Trauma 3 Center d. Trauma 4 Center

Answer 34

c

Question 35

provides advanced trauma life support and basic emergency department facilities a. Trauma 1 Center b. Trauma 2 Center c. Trauma 3 Center d. Trauma 4 Center

Answer 35

d

Question 36

CT is good for _____ in trauma scenarios

Answer 36

acute cerebral hemorrhage and fractures of facial or skull bones

Question 37

Scotty dog leg

Answer 37

inferior articular process

Question 38

Scotty dog ear

Answer 38

superior articular process

Question 39

Scotty dog eye

Answer 39

pedicle

Question 40

Scotty dog body

Answer 40

lamina

Question 41

Scotty dog nose

Answer 41

transverse process