Chapter 12 Drugs And Chemical Classes Flashcards

(336 cards)

0
Q

When using a drug for a condition is not advisable because of potential adverse actions.

A

Contraindications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

The appropriate use of a drug when treating a disease or condition.

A

Indication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The amount of medication that can be given for the average person for the specified condition.

A

Dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What types of interventions should be completed for a drug overdose patient on scene according to the book.

A

12 lead ECG. Pulse oximetry and capnography.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A tube placed into the stomach and saline circulated in order to suction out the contents is called a _______. And how long after ingestion if the substance should this procedure be done.

A

Gastric lavage. 1 hour after ingestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What medication is used to soak up stomach contents and inhibit the absorption mechanism in the body.

A

Activated charcoal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A state in which pain is controlled or not perceived.

A

Analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pain should be assessed by taking a thorough _______. Remember PQRST

A

History

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Does acetaminophen (Tylenol) have any anti pyretic or anti inflammatory properties.

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

One of the more common overdoses involves what over the counter drug.

A

Acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ASA (aspirin) is mainly used today for the prevention of

A

Prevention of clot formation due to heart disease and clot formation disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

ASA is the primary treatment for what major ailment.

A

Chest pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ASA reduces rates of ________ and _________ with Pts with chest pain.

A

Mortality and morbitity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

A risk of liver disease exists with what major over the counter analgesic.

A

Acetaminophen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For ASA. What are the toxicity levels and what are the fatal doses.

A

Toxic 200 to 500 mg/ kg

Fatal above 500 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What major physiological effect does toxic levels of ASA produce.

A

Hyperpnea. High RR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

NSAID stands for

A

Non Steroidal Antiinflammatory Drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

NSAIDs are used to treat what

A

Treat acute or chronic inflammatory reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which substance plays a major part in the inflammatory process and is the major substance that NSAIDs counter act.

A

Prostaglandins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The Most common NSAIDs are. (2)

A

Ibuprofen and naproxen sodium.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Toxic levels of NSAIDs may cause what rare and wierd side effect.

A

Nystagmus (rapid eye movement)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What organ does toxic overdose levels of NSAIDs effect the most

A

Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Agonists cause what

A

Physiological response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which is the most common opioid analgesic used today.

A

Morphine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
What other major opioid analgesics do we use and see often.
Fentanyl Methadone Meperidine
25
Is fentanyl a true opioid analgesic.
No. It's a narcotic analgesic but is synthetic meaning that it's roots do not come from the poppy. (Opium)
26
Partial agonists are also called
Agonist-antagonist drugs
27
Propoxyphene plus APAP Acetaminophen equals what opioid analgesic combo drug
Darvocet
28
Hydrocodone plus APAP Acetaminophen equals what opioid analgesic combo drug
Vicodin
29
Oxycodone plus APAP Acetaminophen equals what opioid analgesic combo drug
Percocet, Tylox
30
Codeine plus APAP Acetaminophen equals what opioid analgesic combo drug
Tylenol 3
31
What drug class blocks the effects of opioid analgesics.
Opioid antagonists
32
Name a major opioid antagonist that we deal with every day.
Naloxone/Narcan
33
Anesthetics effect what major system in the body. Think about it.
The CNS. Can't feel
34
Three types of Anesthetics. (How they work).
General, regional, and local.
35
How do Anesthetics work simply.
They blunt the CNS to the perception of pain
36
General anesthesia is given by two routes.
Inhalation or IV
37
Regional anesthesia is given by injecting anesthesia near a
Nerve
38
When regional anesthesia is used on fingers or ties this is called a
Digit block
39
What level of anesthesia/Sedation. Used for anxiety reduction and coordination may be impaired with ventilators and cardiovascular functions intact. Respond to verbal commands.
Minimal level
40
What level of anesthesia/Sedation. Minimally depressed LOC. Spontaneous ventilations present. Can respond to verbal commands. Cardiovascular function is usually maintained. KNOWN AS CONSCIOUS SEDATION.
Moderate level.
41
What level of anesthesia/Sedation. Drug induced level of unconsciousness. Cardiovascular function is impaired. PPV may be needed. Must maintain airway.
General anesthesia.
42
During the fist stage of anesthesia what is the last sense to be lost.
Hearing
43
What stage of general anesthesia. Administration of anesthesia until loss of consciousness.
Analgesia
44
What stage of general anesthesia. Loss of consciousness to beginning of surgical anesthesia. Pt may laugh swear sing struggle.
Excitement level.
45
What are the first two levels of general anesthesia referred to.
The "Induction"
46
What stage of general anesthesia. Lasts until spontaneous breathing stops. How many planes are in this level to help anesthesiologist know what level of general anesthesia the pt is in.
Surgical anesthesia. 4 planes are always analyzed.
47
What are the 4 different planes or physical reflexes during surgical level general anesthesia that the anesthesiologist always keeps an eye on In order to see what level of anesthesia they are in.
Pupil size. Eyeball movement. Character of respirations. BP
48
Plane four of the surgical anesthetic stage of general anesthesia consists of what physical reflexes.
Pupils dilated. Eyeball movement absent. Absent chest wall breathing with Depressed diaphragmatic breathing. Decreased BP.
49
What stage of general anesthesia. Cessation of breathing and circulator collapse.
Medullary depression/paralysis. (Toxic stage).
50
This stage of General Anesthesia is avoided due the fact that it deactivates the centers in medulla that control breathing.
Stage four. Medullary depression/paralysis (toxic stage).
51
Is cocaine a local topical anesthetic.
Yes
52
These drugs often provide an analgesic effect when given alone. The effect is less than that of a full agonist though.
Agonist-antagonist.
53
The use if Anesthetics in the field may be encountered during which aggressive field interventions. (3)
Rapid sequence intubation Conscious sedation Anxiolysis
54
Which two drugs are used for sedation in the field.
Etomidate (Amidate) | Fentanyl (Sublimaze)
55
Which drug is used in trauma situations and is less likely to cause hypotension compared with other opioids.
Fentanyl
56
A short acting drug that works in the brain to produce anesthesia.
Etomidate (Amidate)
57
A bacterial disease that can be transmitted through cuts and puncture wounds.
Tetanus
58
The best treatment for Tetanus is
Prevention
59
The immunization is a tetanus/diphtheria combo recommended as a booster every _____ years.
10 years
60
In the ER your tetanus/diphtheria booster should be every ___ years.
5 years
61
A common local anesthetic.
Lidocaine
62
Lock jaw is a common symptom of what bacterial disease
Tetanus
63
An infant, someone with sickle cell disease, or someone who has lost their spleen in an accident all should receive this type if immunization. What type of immunization is this?
Haemophilus influenza type B immunization Bacterial
64
Which vaccine has helped reduced meningitis in small children. What type of vaccine is this.
Streptococcal pneumoniea vaccine | Bacterial.
65
Viral immunization so protect against what viruses.
Hep A, Hep B, flu, rubella, chicken pox, measles, mumps, Rabies
66
Preformed antibodies to a specific virus or bacteria that may be derived form animals or humans or produced synthetically.
Immunoglobulins
67
A chemical that counteracts a poison
Antidote
68
Medications designed to treat infection are called
Antimicrobials
69
Medications designed to treat bacterial infections are called
Antibiotics.
70
Antibiotics are used for both ___________and ___________.
Locally and systematically
71
Antibiotics that inhibit growth and replication are called
Bacteriostatic
72
Antibiotics that attack and kill existing bacteria are called
Bactericidal
73
The first family of antibiotics is called
Penicillin
74
Which suffix will identify most pencillins.
Names ending with -illin.
75
What drugs can kill both gram positive and gram negative bacteria as well as defeat this that penicillin cannot.
Cephalosporins
76
The antibiotics have large chemical compounds and are quite effective against community acquired pneumonia.
Macrolides
77
A antibiotic widely used to respiratory and skin infections like acne.
Tetracyclines
78
Antibiotic therapy is one of the most common causes of what type of fungal infection.
Yeast infection due the fact that the antibiotics interfere with the balance of the fungus naturally occurring in the body.
79
What is tines pedis
Athletes foot. Foot fungus
80
What suffix is commonly used on anti fungal medications.
Names ending in -zole.
81
Which agent do not have the ability to replicate or reproduce without a host.
Viruses
82
What medications is commonly used to treat Thrush in humans
Nystatin
83
A medication that can greatly limit the ill effects of influenza if given within the first 48 hours of contamination.
Amantadine
84
Two very popular drugs used to treat the HIV Virus.
Zidovudine (AZT) and Lamivudine (Epivir)
85
A common suffix for anti viral drugs is
-vir
86
A potentially deadly disease mostly from tropical and subtropical regions that comes from a single cell parasite and spread through Mosquitos is
Malaria
87
What are some common S/S of malaria.
Attacks of chills and fever
88
A common drug that treats Malaria is
Quinine sulfate
89
What disease is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
TB
90
One dangerous aspect of TB is that a person can
Have it for years and not show any S/S at all and spread the disease throughout their community.
91
One major sign of TB infection is
Enlarged Lymph Nodes.
92
A single called organism is called a
Amoeba
93
The one and only Ameoba that can cause disease is called
Entamoeba histolytica which cause amoebiasis
94
Wierd bacterial infections and amoeba infections are very rare but when they appear can be dangerous. What little know medication can be used against them.
Metronidazole (Flagyl)
95
A worm classified as a parasite that lives in human beings is called a
Helminth
96
A treatment for leparsy is called
Dapsone
97
Agents designed to fight cancer are called (2)
Antineoplastic or chemotherapeutic agents
98
Most essential vitamins and minerals are obtained by doing what
Eating a well balanced diet
99
Vitamin and mineral substitutes have gained popularity in dieting and weight training therapy . What other therapy also takes these
Cancer therapy
100
What are the fat solvable vitamins. (4)
A, D, E, K
101
What vitamins are water soluble
C and B
102
What vitamin will interfere with Coumadin (Warfarin). This is a anticoagulant drug.
Vitamin K.
103
What vitamin acts as a vasodilator.
B3
104
Two main crystalloids in prehospital care are
Normal saline and Ringers lactate
105
Benzodiazapines when they are taken in excess produces what type of dangerous physiological effect.
Respiratory depression.
106
Benzodiazepines are believed to act on the portion of the brain that affects_________.
Emotion.
107
Benzodiazepines have a high therapeutic index that means what.
They are relatively safe.
108
Benzodiazepines are commonly used for four reasons today. Name
Treat anxiety, muscle spasms, and convulsions and provide sedation.
109
Benzodiazepines are what schedule of contolled substances
Schedule IV
110
Commonly used Benzodiazepines are listed name a few
``` Alprazolam (Xanax) Chlordiazepoxide (Librium) Diazepam (Valium) Midazolam (Versed) Lorezapam (Ativan) ```
111
A common benzo antidote or receptor antagonist.
Flumazenil (Romazicon).
112
What drug may induce seizures that have been taking benzos for a long period of time.
Flumazenil (Romazicon)
113
Benzodiazepines are replacing what drugs.
Barbiturates.
114
Antidepressants are mainly used for 2 mental disorders
Depression and bipolar disorder
115
Depression and bi polar disorder are considered what type of disorder
Mood disorders
116
SSRIs stands for what type of psych drugs
Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
117
SSRIs block what the Reuptake of what endorphin at the nerve synapse
Serotonin
118
The highest serotonin concentrations in the body are found where
The mucosa if the GI tract
119
Tricyclics antidepressants work by blocking the Reuptake of what 2 neurotransmitters
Norepinephrine and serotonin
120
Are tricyclic antidepressants life threatening in overdose Y/N
Yes
121
Signs of poisoning may produce three major toxic syndromes. Name
1. Anticholenergic 2. Cardiovascular 3. Seizure
122
Dopamine, epinephrine, norepinephrine, and serotonin all have one distinct organic compound in common.
Monoamines
123
Monoamines are believed to promote a ______ mood
Stable
124
Tyramine is known to make what rise in high concentrations
BP
125
Excessive elation, talkativeness, flight of ideas, motor activity, arritability, accelerated speech, and delusions of grandeur are all signs of type of psych disorder
Mania
126
What common drug is used to treat mania and bi-polar disorder.
Lithium
127
Taking Lithium results in what decreasing in the cells of the body
Na+
128
What drug is a challenge in overdose due to the fact that activated charcoal will not bind to it.
Lithium
129
Psychosis is usually associated with what major psych disorder
Schizophrenia
130
Antipsychotic drugs center on the ________ receptors where they block Reuptake in order to allow it to stay in the synapse longer.
Dopamine
131
What disorder is the most common cause of seizures.
Epilepsy
132
What is Tardive dyskinesia
Involuntary repetitive body movement
133
Hydra toxins are effective drugs against
Seizures and convulsions
134
The most common hydantoin is
Dilantin
135
The theory behind Dilantin is that it interferes with the | _____ _______ transport.
Sodium ion transport
136
This drug is a common drug from Barbiturate class to treat status epilepticus in the hospital.
Pentobarbital.
137
Three very common benzodiazepines that are also used to treat seizures.
Diazepam (Valium) Lorazepam (Ativan) Midazalam (Versed)
138
Hydantoin derivatives are direct-acting
Muscle relaxants.
139
Dantrolene inhibits the release of what major Cation to limit muscle spasms.
Ca++
140
Two common types of CNS stimulants are
Anorexiants and amphetamines
141
CNS stimulants are believed to work by doing what
Blocking inhibitor neurotransmitters in the brain.
142
What CNS stimulant is used to suppress appetite for weight loss
Anorexiants
143
A common Anorexiant
Sibutramine (Meridia)
144
This CNS stimulate affects the portion of the brain responsible for alertness.
Amphetamine
145
What two common disorders are amphetamines usually prescribed to treat
Narcolepsy and ADD
146
Name two common amphetamine drugs.
Methamphetamine (Desoxyn) | Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
147
Some diseases cause peripheral dysfunction with movement. These disorders are typically caused by a imbalance with what two neurotransmitters
Dopamine and acetylcholine
148
Which neurotransmitter cannot cross the blood brain barrier. It's a major one for movement.
Dopamine
149
Parkinson's disease effect the body ability to
Move correctly
150
Alzheimer's effects the body's
Memory and carry out routine daily activities
151
An inherited disease characterized by progressive dementia and involuntary muscle movement. It's related to the imbalance of what two neurotransmitters
Huntington chorea | Dopamine and acetylcholine
152
Two primary mechanisms cholinergic drugs exert their action
They may stimulate agonist activity at the receptor or | They may impede the enzyme acetylcholinesterase
153
The two mechanisms that allow cholinergic drugs to operate by allowing the neurotransmitter to stay in the ________ longer.
Synapse
154
Drugs that affect the ganglion, adrenal medulla, skeletal muscle are responsible for what effects
Nicotinic
155
Drugs that respond and stimulate at the post ganglionic receptor are responsible for
Muscarinic effects
156
Atropine comes from what plant
Belladonna
157
This drug blocks the cholinergic response and is used to treat systemic bradycardia.
Atropine
158
For SLUDGEM what does the M stand for. You know the rest.
Miosis. Constricted pupils
159
Ganglionic stimulant drugs like nicotine gum and nicotine stimulate which receptors along the transmission series.
Autonomic ganglia.
160
The most common ganglionic blocking drug is.
Trimethaphan
161
Drugs affecting the adrenergic functions are Designed to produce action similar to two major adrenergic neurotransmitters
Norepinephrine and epinephrine
162
Name three natural catecholamines
Epinephrine Norepinephrine Dopamine
163
What is the precursor for both epinephrine and norepinephrine
Dopamine
164
Adrenergic blocking drugs are classified as (2)
Alpha blockers | Beta blockers
165
Two very popular cardio selective Beta blockers are | What do they do
Metoprolol (Lopressor) Atenolol (Tenormin) They both reduce BP and HR
166
Alpha adrenergic blocking drugs can be used to help with major systemic ailment
Hypertension
167
Which beta blockers are cardio selective beta blockers. Beta1 or Beta 2
Beta1
168
Non selective beta blockers work on which dip adrenergic receptors.
Both Beta 1 and Beta 2
169
What drug is used for supra ventricular tachycardias. Why
Adenosine. It slows conduction through the AV node without affecting myocardial contractility
170
A term that refers to the entire group of cardiac glycosides
Digitalis
171
What plant is digitalis derived from
The foxglove plant
172
Four goals of hypertensive therapy
Decrease heart workload Maintain adequate BP for perfusion No undesirable side effects Permit long term administration
173
How does digitalis work
It increases intracellular concentrations of Ca++ by blocking the ion pumps on the cell membrane increasing cardiac contraction and effect conduction.
174
What disease in the US is the leading risk factor for acute myocardial infarction
Hypertension
175
Hypertension is also linked to what other major medical conditions
Stroke, cerebral hemorrhage, and renal failure
176
What antiarrhythmic classification. Blocks fast Na+ channels, decreased excitability! prolonged depolarization
1A
177
What antiarrhythmic classification. Blocks Na+ sodium channels! decreased excitability, shortens depolarization or has little effect
1B
178
What antiarrhythmic classification. Profoundly slow conduction
1C
179
What antiarrhythmic classification. Beta blockers, suppress automaticity, and rate of conduction.
II
180
What antiarrhythmic classification. Prolonged depolarization time, by interfering with outflow of K+ through K channels
III
181
What antiarrhythmic classification. Calcium channel blockers, block inward movement of Ca++, slows conduction particularly through the AV Node, and slow cardiac smooth muscle contraction.
IV
182
These type of drugs are based on the premise of volume reduction of the intravascular circulation.
Diuretics
183
Total effect of diuretics is
Reduced systemic BP. | Decreased cardiac workload
184
A common diuretic is a _____ diuretic and they center on this particular part if the kidney.
Loop diuretics | Center on the Loop of Hienle
185
How do Loop diuretics work.
They stop the reabsorption of Na+ and water
186
Common side effect of Loop Diuretics is
Hypokalmia
187
Extremely common Loop Diuretic
Furosemide (Laxis)
188
Most common antihypertensive drugs are from this class.
Thiazide diuretics
189
A Thiazide diuretic works how
By increasing excretion of Na+, Cl-, and water at the distal renal tube
190
A common Thiazide diuretic
Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
191
How do Potassium sparring diuretics work
They promote Na+ and water excretion at the distal renal tube but Potassium is reabsorbed. Fixes the problem with Loop diuretics.
192
An example of a Potassium sparring diuretic
Spironolactone (Aldactone)
193
How do osmotic diuretics work
They pull fluid from the vascular space by increasing osmotic pressure and limit water reabsorption
194
Drugs that are derived from tropical trees and shrubs.
Rauwolfia derivatives
195
Angiotensin-converting inhibitors play a key role of lowering what extremely important medical statistic.
BP. They help lower it
196
These drugs work directly on the peripheral blood vessel wall, causing dilation and inhibiting constriction.
Vasodilators
197
Vasodilators essentially lower BP by increasing the container with doing what that is very important for us.
Reducing volume.
198
Vasodilator drugs may stimulate what natural reflex in the body which may cause concern if other countering drugs are not used at the same time.
A sympathetic reflex to the lowering of BP. This could be counter productive if these sympathetic responses are not blocked with other medications.
199
What anti depressant drugs can also block norepinephrine at the sympathetic junction and thus block vasoconstriction.
MAOI's. Mono amine oxidase inhibitors.
200
This class of drug blocks both the parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system at the ganglia.
Ganglionic blocking agents
201
Why are ganglionic blocking agents not readily used.
They have a very low safety profile
202
Anti coagulants and fibrinolytics are commonly used to treat what two common emergencies.
Strokes and myocardial infractions
203
A thrombus is a
Blood clot
204
A deep vein thrombosis may lead to a very dangerous medical emergency.
Pulmonary embolus
205
Hess drugs prevent platelets from sticking together.
Anti platelets drugs
206
Is ASA a anti platelet or anti coagulant drug.
Anti platelet
207
These drugs interfere with the coagulation cascade and try to prevent blood clots from forming
Anticoagulants.
208
What is a DVT
Deep Vein Thrombosis
209
Do anti coagulants break down existing clots. Y/N
No. They simply prevent current ones from getting larger and prevent future ones from forming.
210
What is a major risk of using anticoagulants.
Hemorrhage
211
Some common anticoagulants are (3)
Heparin Enoxaparin (Lovenox) Warfarin (Coumadin)
212
These drugs dissolve clots that have already formed. Unlike current anticoagulants.
Fibrinolytics
213
The goal of fibrinolytics is
Reset abolish blood flow through the blocked blood vessel.
214
Common fibrinolytics used today have a common suffix. What is it
-ase
215
How many proteins are integral in the clotting cascade.
13 proteins.
216
Von Willebrand disease is a type of what major medical condition
Hemophilia.
217
Two Main therapies used for the replacement of blood components are
Crystalloids and colloids.
218
________ attempt to replace a specific part if the blood.
Colloids
219
________ simply to try to replace volume when it come to blood loss therapy
Crystalloids
220
Placid and ASA are two medications in what class.
Anti platelet agents.
221
Drugs used to lower cholesterol levels decreasing risk of atherosclerosis and coronary artery disease.
Antihyperlipidemics.
222
An active ingredient in many over the counter brands of cold and allergy medicine is
Pseudoephedrine
223
Pseudo ephedrine is classified as a
Decongestant.
224
A chemical mediator released during a inflammatory response.
Histamine
225
H1 histamine receptors are found where
Blood vessels and bronchioles
226
H2 receptors are found where
GI tract
227
Rhinitis is what
Runny nose
228
Histamine reactions can effect many things in the body. Name some
Inflammation, edema, swelling
229
What major effect (dangerous) does histamine responses have on the body
Constricts the bronchioles
230
What systemic response does histamine cause
Anaphylaxis.
231
A common antihistamine that we carry on the rescue
Diphenhydramine
232
An antitussives are what type of drug
Cough suppressants.
233
Some common cough suppressants (antitussives) are
Codeine, Robitussin MD
234
Drugs that break down mucosa and make it more watery
Mucokinetic drugs
235
One of the most widely used mucokinetic drugs is
Saline
236
A drug commonly used on cystic fibrous patients for their mucous buildup.
Dornase Alfa (pulmozyme)
237
These drugs decrease the adhesiveness and surface tension of respiratory secretions.
Expectorants.
238
A Very common expectorant
Robitussin
239
These drugs remain the primary treatment for obstructive pulmonary disease.
Bronchodilators
240
Three very common obstructive pulmonary disease are
Asthma Chronic bronchitis Emphysema
241
The drugs that provide the most assistance to respiratory emergencies are
Beta-selective agonists with an emphasis on the Beta 2 receptor (Lungs)
242
Non selective agonists activate what receptors.
Alpha and Beta receptors.
243
By stimulating the Alpha and Beta receptors. A non selective agonist will promote what in a person.
Open up the lungs Beta 2 and dry a person out by limiting secretions Alpha 1 and 2. Remember alpha receptor activation promote constriction.
244
A drug that centers on the Beta 2 receptors and limit the strain on the heart are
Beta 2 selective drugs
245
What is a very common Beta 2 selective drug that we carry for respiration emergencies
Albuterol.
246
When stimulated by acetylcholine, bronchial smooth muscle normally does what.
Constricts
247
Anti cholinergic bronchodilators block the action of __________ resulting in what significant events
Acetylcholine, smooth muscle relaxation and bronchdilation
248
A very common anti cholinergic
Atrovent
249
These derivatives act by relaxing smooth muscle. They also stimulate CNS and Cardiac muscle
Xanthines
250
Drugs that have been developed to help stabilize the cells responsible for inflammation are called
Leukotriene inhibitors.
251
These drugs are for people that have extreme allergies as well as reactive airway disease.
Leukotriene antagonists
252
A common leukotriene inhibitor is
Montelukast (Singulair)
253
What medications are commonly used to help prevent inflammation
Steroids
254
When steroids and sympathomimetics are mixed and then inhaled they become a drug that are in a particular sub class under Bronchodilators.
Prophylactic asthmatic drugs
255
Oxygen is at what percentage at room air
21%
256
What should immediately be given for a person with chest pain, cardiac or pulmonary arrest, hypoxemia, any cardiopulmonary emergency, or SOB.
Oxygen
257
Drugs that directly effect the Medullary center of the brain are
Analeptics
258
Why are analeptics considered inferior
They are not as effective as mechanical ventilation
259
What are some common Reflex Respiratory Stimulants. What are they used for in the field
Spirit of Ammonia, AKA smelling salts. Syncopal episodes
260
Narcotics and Barbiturates have a common and very dangerous side effect
They are bot respiratory depressants.
261
What are some drugs that cause Urinary problems
NSAID's, contrast dye, and some antibiotics
262
Common antacids (2)
Rolaids and alka seltzer
263
Simethicone (Mylicon) is a common drug found in what class
Antiflatulants class
264
A common digest ant drug
Pancreatin
265
This is a involuntary action controlled by the emetic center of the Medulla
Vomiting
266
Two very common antiemetics
Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine) and Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
267
What is a common Emetic drug
Syrup of Ipecac
268
What drugs are commonly though of as street drugs and promote appetite in a person. They also are helping people with cancer
Cannabinoids.
269
Medications that are designed to protect the lining of the GI tract are called
Cytoprotective agents
270
What are some diseases that affect the GI tract and break it down over time
Crohn's disease and Ulcerative colitis
271
An H2 receptor antagonist does what in the body
Blocks the acid buildup in the GI tract and further blocks histamine release.
272
What are some common H2 antagonist medications.
Cimetidine (Tagament) Ranitidine (Zantac) Famotidine (Pepcid)
273
Name some Common laxatives.
Milk of magnesia Ducolax Metamucil
274
A common anti diarrheal that has been around for a long time
Pepto Bismal
275
A condition characterized by increasing intraocular pressure is called
Glaucoma
276
What two drugs are used for the dilation of the eye and to aid in its overall resting if it has been strained
Mydriatic and Cycloplegic agents
277
Conjunctivitis and corneal inflammation are two examples of conditions that effect the ____.
Eye
278
The parathyroid gland is responsible for regulation of what crucial Cation.
Ca++
279
Cortisol, Aldosterone, Sex Hormones are all major steroid hormones manufactured in what important body part.
Adrenal Cortex
280
What steroid hormone increase blood sugar, regulate metabolism of carbs and proteins, and suppress the inflammatory response,
Glucocorticoids (Cortisol)
281
What steroid hormone regulate electrolyte and water balance.
Mineralcorticoids (Primarily Aldosterone)
282
Which organ releases hormones into the bloodstream mad digestive enzymes into the GI tract
Pancreas.
283
The two major hormones released from the pancreas are
Glucagon and insulin
284
Which hormone increases the ability for tissue to take up glucose
Insulin
285
Which hormone acts on the stored liver glycogen, converting it to glucose so that it can be released into the blood and used.
Glucagon
286
Two very popular Rapid acting insulins on the market
Lispro (Humalog) | Aspart (Novalog)
287
Two examples of long acting insulins out on the market are
Ultralente | Lantus
288
An example of a combination insulin medication is
Humalin 50/50
289
Humalog is a insulin that lasts how long
30min to 2.5 hours
290
Novalog is an insulin that lasts how long
1 to 3 hours
291
Ultralente is a insulin that will last how long.
10 to 20 hours
292
This condition consists of recurrent episodes of acute arthritis
Gout
293
An alkaloid substance that acts to suppress the initial immune reaction that precipitates the pain of Gout
Colchicine
294
How long for Colchicine to be absorbed
2 hours
295
Hematuria is what condition.
Blood in the urine
296
This drug reduces the production of gouty substances.
Allopurinol
297
Two main female hormones
Estrogen and Progesterone
298
An injection based on progesterone is
Depo Provera
299
How does Depo Provera work
It inhibits ovulation
300
A common ovulation stimulant
Clomiphene citrate (Clomid)
301
A common drug to help increase contractions
Oxytosin (Pitocin)
302
A common therapy given to women in preterm labor between 24 to 34 weeks of gestation.
Corticosteroid therapy
303
Metandren is a drug for men that does what
Increase testosterone
304
Phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitors are used for what and can be dangerous they can lower what
For erectile dysfunction and can lower BP dangerously if used with other medications
305
What form of drugs do we not want to administer if the Pt has been using PDE's.
Nitrates like Nitroglycerin
306
These medications increase the efficiency of the immune system.
Immunomodulating agents
307
Methamphetamine's aid in the large release of what neurotransmitter
Dopamine
308
Some Serious side effects of Methamphetamine's are
Convulsions, cardiac disrhythmias, respiratory problems.
309
Vasospasms can come about by using what illegal drug
Cocaine
310
These drugs cause slowing of normal body functions and often induce sleep.
Sedatives/hypnotics
311
Two most common classes sedatives/hypnotics are. What are their controlled substance schedules.
Benzodiazepines and Barbiturates. They are both Schedule 4 controlled substances.
312
This drug is a rapid acting synthetic CNS depressant and manufactuered in clandestine labs and known as the "Date Rape" drug.
Gamma Hydroxybutyrate (GHB)
313
These drugs are mind altering drugs that affect perception of time, reality, and the environment.
Hallucinogens
314
Hallucinogens effect what main body system.
The cardiovascular system
315
Some common Hallucinogens are
PCP and LSD
316
These environmental substances are designed to kill weeds and are toxic to human beings
Herbicides
317
Prolonged exposure to herbicides can cause a person to developer what major disease.
Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma
318
Paraquat is a dangerous
Herbicide
319
Rodenticides kill mice by promoting internal
Hemorrhaging.
320
Chlorinated hydrocarbons can cause what type of effect on a human.
Disrupt the Na+ channel on cells which will cause involuntary muscle tremors and convulsions
321
What is the most popular insecticide out on the market.
Organophosphate
322
How do organophosphates operate.
They cause a build up of acetylcholine by inhibiting the acetylcholinesterase which causes muscle tremors and convulsions as well as bronchoconstrictions and excess secretions.
323
Another insecticide that is a acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Just shorter in duration.
Carbamate
324
The most common botanical insecticide is
Nicotine
325
The alcohol found in wine beer and spirit is called
Ethanol
326
One of the antidotes to Ethylene Glycol is
Ethanol
327
This substance is found in paint remover, glass cleaner, depicting solutions, antifreeze, and sheelac.
Methanol
328
Heavy Metals get their name because they are ___ time heavier then water
5
329
Some common heavy metals are
Lead mercury and arsenic
330
Classified as any material that may pose a risk to health is a
Hazardous material.
331
Gases that displace oxygen are
Asphyxiants.
332
More then ______ types of chemicals can be found in the average American home.
5000
333
Some examples of extremely Base materials are
Caustic soda and ammonia
334
What is a extremely strong inorganic acid that is found in many industrial settings.
Hydrofluoric Acid
335
What type of gel can we put on a acid burn
Calcium Gluconate gel