Chapter 13- White Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two essential properties that are required for the maintenance of hematopoiesis?

A

Pluripotency and the capacity for self-renewal (p. 581)

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2
Q

In follicular hyperplasia of a lymph node, which structures become prominent?

A

Germinal centers (p. 585)

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3
Q

Endemic Burkitt lymphoma is caused by what virus?

A

Epstein-Barr virus (p. 587)

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4
Q

The most common form of non-Hodgkin lymphoma is ______

A

Diffuse large B-Cell lymphoma (p. 596)

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5
Q

The two major histomorphologic patterns seen in follicular lymphomas are ____ and _____.

A

Small cells with irregular or cleaved nuclear contours and scant cytoplasm referred to as centrocytes AND larger cells with open nuclear chromatin, several nucleoli, and modest amount of cytoplasm referred to as centroblasts. (p. 595)

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6
Q

What are the five categories of the WHO classification of lymphoid neoplasms?

A

1) Precursor B-cell neoplasms
2) Precursor T-cell neoplasms
3) Peripheral B-cell neoplasms
4) Peripheral T-cell and natural killer cell neoplasms 5) Hodgkin lymphoma (p. 588)

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7
Q

Burkitt lymphoma has a characteristic histologic appearance, which is known as _______.

A

Starry sky pattern (p. 597)

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8
Q

The distinctive tumor large cells found in cases of Hodgkin lymphoma are known as _______.

A

Reed Sternberg cells (p. 606)

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9
Q

Describe the usual histologic appearance of the cells identified above.

A

Diagnostic Reed Sternberg cells are large cells (> or = to 45 micrometers in diameter), with multiple nuclei or a single nucleus with multiple nuclear lobes, each with a large inclusion-like nucleolus, 5-7 micrometers in diameter. (p. 607)

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10
Q

Lacunar variant Reed Sternberg cells are most frequently encountered in what type of Hodgkin lymphoma.

A

Nodular Sclerosis type (p. 608)

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11
Q

Name the four different subtypes of Hodgkin lymphoma.

A

1) Nodular Sclerosis
2) Mixed cellularity
3) Lymphocyte predominance 4) Lymphocyte depletion
5) Lymphocyte-rich (p. 608)

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12
Q

the most common type of Hodgkin lymphoma is _______.

A

Nodular sclerosis (p. 608)

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13
Q

Name the three categories of myeloid neoplasia.

A

1) Acute myelocytic leukemia, characterized by accumulation of immature myeloid cells in the bone marrow.
2) Myelodysplastic syndromes associated with ineffective hematopoiesis and associated cytopenias.
3) Myeloproliferative disorders usually associated with an increased production of one or more types of blood cells. (p. 611)

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14
Q

What are the three major symptoms related to depression of marrow function in ALL?

A

1) Anemia – fatigue
2) neutropenia – fever
3) thrombocytopenia – spontaneous mucosal and cutaneous bleeding. (p. 592)

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15
Q

All forms of Burkitt lymphoma are associated with translocations of the ______.

A

C-Myc gene on chromosome 8 (p. 597)

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16
Q
  1. What is the most common cancer of children?
A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (p. 590)

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17
Q

What is the most common form of leukemia in adults in the Western world?

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (p. 593)

18
Q

Define the myelodysplastic syndrome.

A

A group of clonal stem cell disorders characterized by maturation defects resulting in ineffective hematopoiesis and an increased risk of transformation to AML. (p. 611)

19
Q
  1. The most common cytogenetic finding associated with CML is _________.
A

The Philadelphia chromosome (9;22) (q34;q11) (p. 616)

20
Q

The most common gross finding in the spleen in patients with Hodgkin disease is ___________.

A

Splenomegaly (p. 624)

21
Q

Name and describe five types of plasma cell dyscrasias (monoclonal gammopathies).

A

1) Multiple myeloma
2) Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
3) Primary or immunocyte-associated amyloidosis
4) Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance
5) Heavy-chain disease

22
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

tumorous masses scattered throughout the skeletal system.

23
Q

Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

syndrome stemming from hyperviscosity of the blood caused by high levels of IgM.

24
Q

Primary or immunocyte-associated amyloidosis

A

results from a monoclonal proliferation of plasma cells secreting free light chains that are subsequently processed and deposited as amyloid.

25
Q

4) Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance – instances in which M components are identified in the blood of patients having no symptoms or signs of any of the better
characterized monoclonal gammopathies.

A
26
Q

4) Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance

A

instances in which M components are identified in the blood of patients having no symptoms or signs of any of the better
characterized monoclonal gammopathies.

27
Q

Heavy-chain disease

A

including lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma, and small bowel marginal zone lymphoma occurring in malnourished populations. (p.599)

28
Q

The light chain proteins found in patients with plasma cell dyscrasias are known as _______.

A

Bence Jones Proteins (p. 598)

29
Q

Multiple myeloma most frequently involves which organ system?

A

Skeletal system (p. 599)

30
Q

Radiographically, the lesions seen in multiple myeloma are ___________.

A

1 cm – 4 cm punched-out defects (p. 599)

31
Q

Name the four multifocal, multisystem clinicopathologic entities of Langerhans cell histiocytosis.

A

1) Acute disseminated Langerhans cell histiocytosis (Letterer-Siwe disease)
2) Unifocal and multifocal Langerhans cell histiocytosis (eosinophilic granuloma)
3) Hand- Schüller -Christian triad – multifocal, unisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis
4) Pulmonary Langerhans cell histiocytosis – seen in adult smokers (p. 622)

32
Q

Describe the histologic components of eosinophilic granuloma

A

Langerhans cells are variably admixed with eosinophils, lymphocytes, plasma cells and neutrophils. Eosinophils are usually, but not always, a prominent component of the infiltrate. (p. 622)

33
Q

Describe the component parts of the Hand- Schüller -Christian triad.

A

Calvarial defects, diabetes insipidus, and exophthalmos (p. 622)

34
Q

Differentiate the component parts of the white and red pulp of the spleen.

A

The white pulp consists of an artery with an eccentric collar of lymphocytes, the so-called periarteriolar lymphatic sheath. The sheath expands to form lymphoid nodules composed of B lymphocytes which are capable of developing into germinal centers. The red pulp of the spleen is traversed by numerous thin-walled vascular sinusoids, separated by the splenic cords, or cords of Billroth. The endothelial lining of the sinusoid is discontinuous, providing passage of blood cells between the sinusoids and cords. (p. 623)

35
Q

Name the four major functions of the spleen that impact disease states.

A

1) Phagocytosis of blood cells and particulate matter
2) Antibody production
3) Hematopoiesis
4) Sequestration of form blood elements (p.623)

36
Q

Accessoryspleensor_______arecommonautopsyfindings.

A

Spleniculi (p. 625)

37
Q

The most common cause of massive congestive splenomegaly is __________.

A

Cirrhosis of the liver (p. 624)

38
Q

Describe the gross appearance of splenic infarcts.

A

Infarcts are characteristically pale, wedge-shaped, and subcapsular in location. The overlying capsule is covered with fibrin. (p. 625)

39
Q

Name two of the most common benign neoplasms of the spleen.

A

Lymphangioma and hemangioma (p. 625)

40
Q

Name the two types of cancer in which there is splenic involvement.

A

Myeloid and lymphoid tumors (p. 625)

41
Q

At what age does thymic involution start?

A

Puberty (p. 625)

42
Q

What are Hassall corpuscles?

A

Epithelial cells in the thymus medulla are densely packed, often spindle-shaped and have scant cytoplasm devoid of interconnecting processes. Whorls of these cells create Hassall corpuscles having keratinized cores. (p. 626)