Chapter 15 Flashcards

1
Q

1) Interoceptors are found in
a) blood vessels
b) visceral organs
c) muscles
d) all of these choices
e) none of these choices

A

d) all of these choices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Autonomic motor neurons regulate visceral activities by

  1. increasing activities in effector tissue.
  2. decreasing activities in effector tissue.
  3. changing the direction of impulse conduction across synapses.

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) 3 only
d) Both 1 and 2
e) None of these choices

A

d) Both 1 and 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The autonomic nervous system is NOT involved in controlling

a) exocrine glands.
b) skeletal muscle.
c) cardiac muscle.
d) smooth muscle.
e) endocrine glands.

A

b) skeletal muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following descriptions of a preganglionic neuron is NOT correct?

a) Has axons that exit the CNS in a cranial or spinal nerve.
b) Has myelinated axons.
c) Forms the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
d) Has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
e) Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.

A

e) Forms gap junctions with postganglionic neurons in autonomic ganglia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A postganglionic neuron in the ANS

a) releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.
b) is the first part of an autonomic motor pathway.
c) has its cell body in the brain or spinal cord.
d) has its axons exiting the CNS through cranial nerves.
e) carries information into the sympathetic chain ganglia.

A

a) releases neurotransmitter that binds to the effector cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following types of neurons would normally have the shortest axon?

a) Somatic motor neurons
b) Preganglionic parasympathetic neurons
c) Postganglionic sympathetic neurons
d) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons
e) Somatosensory neurons.

A

d) Preganglionic sympathetic neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe the sympathetic division of the ANS?

a) Ganglia primarily found in the head
b) Stimulates sweat glands
c) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessel walls
d) Short preganglionic neurons
e) Thoracolumbar output

A

a) Ganglia primarily found in the head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following does NOT describe the parasympathetic division of the ANS?

a) Long preganglionic neurons
b) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls
c) Vagus nerve output
d) Ganglia found near visceral effectors
e) Sacral spinal cord output

A

b) Synapses with smooth muscle in blood vessels walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following terms is used to designate an effector that is innervated by both the parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the ANS?

a) Preganglionic stimulation
b) Biganglion excitation
c) Multi-autonomic output
d) Bipolar innervation
e) Dual innervation

A

e) Dual innervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following is NOT a sympathetic prevertebral ganglion?

a) Celiac ganglion
b) Ciliary ganglion
c) Superior mesenteric ganglion
d) Inferior mesenteric ganglion
e) All are prevertebral ganglia

A

b) Ciliary ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following is NOT a parasympathetic terminal ganglion?

a) Ciliary ganglion
b) Pterygopalatine ganglion
c) Submandibular ganglion
d) Otic ganglion
e) All are parasympathetic terminal ganglia

A

e) All are parasympathetic terminal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The largest autonomic plexus is called the

a) superior mesenteric plexus.
b) renal plexus.
c) cardiac plexus.
d) celiac plexus.
e) hypogastric plexus.

A

d) celiac plexus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which autonomic plexus is located anterior to the fifth lumbar vertebra and serves the pelvic viscera?

a) Inferior mesenteric plexus
b) Renal plexus
c) Celiac plexus
d) Hypogastric plexus
e) Superior mesenteric plexus

A

d) Hypogastric plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following are structures containing sympathetic preganglionic axons that connect the anterior ramus of the spinal nerve with the ganglia of the sympathetic trunk?

a) Lumbar splanchnic nerve
b) Greater splanchnic nerve
c) Inferior cervical ganglion
d) White rami communicantes
e) Gray rami communicantes

A

d) White rami communicantes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which ganglia contain the cell bodies of the parasympathetic postganglionic neurons that serve the parotid salivary glands?

a) Ciliary ganglia
b) Pterygopalatine ganglia
c) Submandibular ganglia
d) Otic ganglia
e) None of these choices

A

d) Otic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The two main neurotransmitters of the autonomic nervous system are

a) nicotine and adrenaline.
b) muscarine and acetylcholine.
c) norepinephrine and muscarine.
d) norepinephrine and acetylcholine.
e) somatostatin and nicotine.

A

d) norepinephrine and acetylcholine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Acetylcholine is released by _____ postganglionic neurons and is removed from the synaptic cleft at a _____ rate than norepinephrine.

a) sympathetic; slower
b) sympathetic; faster
c) parasympathetic; slower
d) parasympathetic; faster
e) both parasympathetic and sympathetic; slower

A

d) parasympathetic; faster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following are types of cholinergic receptors?

a) Nicotinic and adrenergic receptors
b) Muscarinic and somatic receptors
c) Adrenergic and somatic receptors
d) Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors
e) Somatostatic and nicotinic receptors

A

d) Nicotinic and muscarinic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Autonomic tone is regulated by the

a) medulla oblongata.
b) cerebellum.
c) cerebrum.
d) vermis.
e) hypothalamus.

A

e) hypothalamus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the parasympathetic division of the ANS?

a) Decreased heart rate
b) Airway dilation
c) Decreased pupil diameter
d) Increased secretion of digestive juices
e) Increased gastric motility

A

b) Airway dilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following does NOT contribute to the longer lasting and more widespread effects observed with sympathetic activation versus parasympathetic activation?

a) Norepinephrine is more slowly removed from synapses than ACh.
b) Additional norepinephrine is released from the adrenal gland.
c) Greater divergence occurs in sympathetic neural pathways.
d) Blood flow to the hypothalamus is decreased when sympathetic activation occurs.

A

d) Blood flow to the hypothalamus is decreased when sympathetic activation occurs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following responses is NOT caused by activation of the sympathetic division?

a) Increased heart rate
b) Airway constriction
c) Decreased blood flow to kidneys and gastrointestinal tract
d) Increased blood flow to skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, liver and fat
e) Increased blood glucose level

A

b) Airway constriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of nervous system pathway is shown in this figure?

a) Somatic motor pathway
b) Somatic sensory pathway
c) Autonomic motor pathway
d) Autonomic sensory pathway
e) None of these choices

A

a) Somatic motor pathway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What type of neurotransmitter is used by the pathway shown in the figure?

a) Norepinephrine
b) Acetylcholine
c) Epinephrine
d) Dopamine
e) Serotonin

A

b) Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What region does the superior cervical ganglion primarily serve?

a) Abdominal
b) Pelvic
c) Skin
d) Head
e) None of these choices

A

d) Head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which ganglion supplies the stomach with postganglionic neurons?

a) Middle cervical ganglion
b) Inferior cervical ganglion
c) Celiac ganglion
d) Inferior mesenteric ganglion
e) Ciliary ganglion

A

c) Celiac ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which nerve supplies the inferior mesenteric ganglion with preganglionic neurons?

a) Lumbar splanchnic nerve
b) Lesser splanchnic nerve
c) Greater splanchnic nerve
d) Cardiac accelerator
e) Phrenic nerve

A

a) Lumbar splanchnic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The superior mesenteric ganglion receives nervous input from the

a) lesser splanchnic nerve.
b) least splanchnic nerve.
c) greater thoracic splanchnic nerve
d) a and b only
e) a, b, and c

A

d) a and b only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Preganglionic neurons are supplied to the submandibular ganglion by which cranial nerve?

a) Oculomotor (III) nerve (cranial nerve III)
b) Facial (VII) nerve (cranial nerve VII)
c) Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve (cranial nerve IX)
d) Vagus (X) nerve (cranial nerve X)
e) None of these choices

A

b) Facial (VII) nerve (cranial nerve VII)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Postganglionic neurons from the otic ganglion supply the

a) parotid gland.
b) heart.
c) lungs.
d) liver.
e) ureter.

A

a) parotid gland.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following nerves provides innervation for the external genitals?

a) Oculomotor (III) nerve (cranial nerve III)
b) Facial (VII) nerve (cranial nerve VII)
c) Glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve (cranial nerve IX)
d) Vagus (X) nerve (cranial nerve X)
e) Pelvic splanchnic nerve

A

e) Pelvic splanchnic nerve

32
Q

Parasympathetic innervation of the liver occurs through

a) oculomotor (III) nerve (cranial nerve III).
b) facial (VII) nerve (cranial nerve VII).
c) glossopharyngeal (IX) nerve (cranial nerve IX).
d) vagus (X) nerve (cranial nerve X).
e) pelvic splanchnic nerve.

A

d) vagus (X) nerve (cranial nerve X).

33
Q

Where is the right vagus nerve in the figure?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) H
e) K

A

a) A

34
Q

Which of the following labeled structures is the right sympathetic trunk ganglion?

a) E
b) B
c) L
d) M
e) N

A

b) B

35
Q

Where is the cardiac plexus in the figure?

a) A
b) B
c) H
d) I
e) J

A

d) I

36
Q

Where is the inferior mesenteric ganglion and plexus in the figure?

a) E
b) F
c) G
d) M
e) N

A

d) M

37
Q

Where is the hypogastric plexus in the figure?

a) J
b) K
c) D
d) F
e) N

A

e) N

38
Q

Describe the possible ways in which the axon of a sympathetic preganglionic neuron connects with postganglionic neurons after it reaches the sympathetic trunk ganglia.

A

The axon may 1) synapse with postganglionic neurons in the first ganglion it reaches, 2) ascend or descend to higher or lower ganglia via sympathetic chains, or 3) continue without synapsing through sympathetic trunk ganglia to end at a prevertebral ganglion and synapse with postganglionic neurons there. 4) also pass, without synapsing, through the sympathetic trunk ganglion and a prevertebral ganglion and then extend to chromaffin cells of the adrenal medullae that are functionally similar to sympathetic postganglionic neurons.

39
Q

Explain why the sympathetic division of the ANS has more widespread and longer-lasting effects than the parasympathetic division.

A

A single sympathetic preganglionic fiber has many axon collaterals (branches) and synapses with 20 or more postganglionic neurons, whereas a parasympathetic preganglionic neurons synapses with only 4 or 5 postganglionic neurons. The sympathetic neurotransmitter, norepinephrine is broken down more slowly than acetylcholine, so postganglionic cells are stimulated longer. The sympathetic division also stimulates release of catecholamines (mostly epinephrine) from the adrenal medulla, thus enhancing the sympathetic effects via the endocrine system. Also, more visceral effectors have receptors for catecholamines (norepinephrine and epinephrine) than for acetylcholine.

40
Q

Describe the potential roles that autonomic neurons that release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine perform in the ANS. Be sure to describe the types of postsynaptic effector cells including their receptors that could be potentially activated by acetylcholine release from autonomic neurons.

A

The neuron could be a preganglionic neuron in either division of the ANS, a parasympathetic postganglionic neuron, or one of a few sympathetic postganglionic neurons (innervating sweat glands). The postsynaptic cell must possess either nicotinic or muscarinic receptors in order to respond to acetylcholine. This effector cell could be a postganglionic neuron of either division, a parasympathetic visceral effector, or one of the few sympathetic effectors stimulated by cholinergic neurons.

41
Q

A patient with chronic skeletal muscle spasms was placed on an anticholinergic medication. After taking the medication, the patient’s muscle spasms ceased, but now the patient reports a loss of muscle strength. In addition, the patient’s resting heart rate has increased. Explain the effects of the medication the patient received.

A

Medications that block the action of acetylcholine are described as anticholinergic. Since ACh stimulates skeletal muscles to contract, blocking ACh should help reduce muscle spasms. In high enough doses, the medication might prevent the normal contraction of skeletal muscles and could, perhaps, cause a flaccid paralysis. Heart rate increases because ACh usually slows heart rate so a drug that blocks ACh’s effect would lead to increased heart rate. Perhaps a medication that specifically blocked nicotinic receptors would eliminate the muscle spasms without causing increased heart rate.

42
Q

Explain how blood flow to tissues changes during the fight-or-flight response.

A

During the fight-or-flight response, vasodilation occurs in those vessels serving the heart and skeletal muscles crucial to fight or flight. In contrast, vasoconstriction occurs in those vessels serving areas less vital to fighting/fleeing like skin, digestive organs, and the urinary system. The changes in blood vessel diameter are induced by activation of the sympathetic division of the ANS.

43
Q

Compare and contrast the overall responses of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions.

A

The sympathetic division acts to prepare the body for maximal skeletal muscle activity to either fight or flee a perceived threat. Some of the changes stimulated by sympathetic activation include: 1) increased heart rate and contractions, 2) shunting blood away from the digestive organs to the lungs, liver, heart and skeletal muscles allowing these organs to increase function, 3) bronchodilation leads increased O2 delivery to the blood, and 4) liver also releases more glucose. These changes increase blood oxygen and glucose to provide the body cells with the ability to increase ATP production. The parasympathetic system tends to return the body to normality, and to prepare the body to acquire energy. For instance, the parasympathetic division stimulates increased blood flow to digestive, reproductive and urinary organs. More digestion and defecation occurs, sexual activity can be supported, and urine production is increased. Decreased heart rate and blood pressure also occur.

44
Q

What type of nervous system pathway is shown in the figure?

a) Somatic motor pathway
b) Somatic sensory pathway
c) Autonomic motor pathway
d) Autonomic sensory pathway
e) None of these choices

A

c) Autonomic motor pathway

45
Q

If the pathway shown in the diagram is a sympathetic division pathway, which neurotransmitter acts at the effector?

a) Norepinephrine
b) Acetylcholine
c) Epinephrine
d) Dopamine
e) Serotonin

A

a) Norepinephrine

46
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released at the autonomic ganglion by the preganglionic neuron in the diagram?

a) Norepinephrine
b) Acetylcholine
c) Epinephrine
d) Dopamine
e) Serotonin

A

b) Acetylcholine

47
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released at the gland by the preganglionic neuron in the diagram?

a) Norepinephrine
b) Acetylcholine
c) Epinephrine
d) Dopamine
e) Serotonin

A

b) Acetylcholine

48
Q

If the pathway shown in the diagram is a parasympathetic division pathway, which neurotransmitter acts at the effector?

a) Norepinephrine
b) Acetylcholine
c) Epinephrine
d) Dopamine
e) Serotonin

A

b) Acetylcholine

49
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released by the preganglionic neuron at the autonomic ganglion in the diagram?

a) Norepinephrine
b) Acetylcholine
c) Epinephrine
d) Dopamine
e) Serotonin

A

b) Acetylcholine

50
Q

Where is the left vagus (X) nerve in the diagram?

a) A
b) C
c) D
d) F
e) G

A

a) A

51
Q

Where is the pulmonary plexus in the diagram?

a) A
b) E
c) D
d) B
e) G

A

d) B

52
Q

Where is the esophageal plexus in the diagram?

a) A
b) B
c) D
d) C
e) G

A

d) C

53
Q

Where is the celiac ganglion and plexus in the diagram?

a) A
b) B
c) D
d) C
e) G

A

c) D

54
Q

Where is the renal ganglion and renal plexus in the diagram?

a) A
b) B
c) D
d) E
e) G

A

d) E

55
Q

Where is the aorticorenal ganglion in the diagram?

a) C
b) D
c) E
d) F
e) G

A

d) F

56
Q

Where is the greater splanchnic nerve in the diagram?

a) A
b) B
c) C
d) E
e) G

A

e) G

57
Q

Which plexus or nerve shown in the diagram supplies the renal arteries?

a) B
b) C
c) D
d) E
e) F

A

d) E

58
Q

Which plexus or nerve shown in the diagram supplies the bronchial tree?

a) A
b) C
c) F
d) B
e) E

A

d) B

59
Q

The structure labeled 2 in the diagram is a

a) somatic motor neuron.
b) parasympathetic preganglionic neuron.
c) parasympathetic postganglionic neuron.
d) sympathetic preganglionic neuron.
e) somatosensory neuron.

A

b) parasympathetic preganglionic neuron.

60
Q

The structure labeled 3 in the diagram is a

a) somatic motor neuron.
b) parasympathetic preganglionic neuron.
c) parasympathetic postganglionic neuron.
d) sympathetic preganglionic neuron.
e) somatosensory neuron.

A

c) parasympathetic postganglionic neuron.

61
Q

The structure labeled 1 in the diagram is the

a) femoral nerve.
b) sciatic nerve.
c) pelvic splanchnic nerve.
d) pudendal nerve.
e) genitofemoral nerve.

A

c) pelvic splanchnic nerve.

62
Q

Which disorder is characterized by an exaggerated response of the sympathetic division of the ANS that occurs in most individuals with spinal cord injury at or above T6?

a) Raynaud’s phenomenon
b) Autonomic dysreflexia
c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
d) Diabetic neuropathy
e) Horner’s Syndrome

A

b) Autonomic dysreflexia

63
Q

Which disorder is a type of neuropathy often caused by long term diabetes mellitus?

a) Raynaud’s phenomenon
b) Autonomic dysreflexia
c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
d) Diabetic neuropathy
e) Horner’s Syndrome

A

d) Diabetic neuropathy

64
Q

Which disorder involves the loss of sympathetic innervation to one side of the face due to inherited mutation, injury or disease?

a) Raynaud’s phenomenon
b) Autonomic dysreflexia
c) Reflex sympathetic dystrophy
d) Diabetic neuropathy
e) Horner’s Syndrome

A

e) Horner’s Syndrome

65
Q

Based on your knowledge of ANS receptors, explain how beta blockers are able to manage conditions such as hypertension (high blood pressure)?

A

Norepinephrine and epinephrine binds to beta adrenergic receptors on heart muscle cells and stimulate an increase in heart rate and force of contraction. Beta blockers are antagonists of norepinephrine and epinephrine meaning that beta blockers can bind and block their effects, leading to a decrease in heart rate and force of contraction and lowering of blood pressure.

66
Q

Thoracolumbar is another name for which division of ANS?

a) Parasympathetic
b) Sympathetic
c) Somatic nervous system
d) Autonomic ganglia
e) Craniosacral division

A

b) Sympathetic

67
Q

Which division of the ANS innervates the sweat glands and the hair follicles?

a) Parasympathetic
b) Sympathetic
c) Neither division innervates these effectors
d) Both divisions innervate these effectors

A

b) Sympathetic

68
Q

Which endocrine gland is directly innervated by sympathetic preganglionic axons?

a) Pituitary gland
b) Hypothalamus
c) Pancreas
d) Adrenal gland
e) Thyroid gland

A

d) Adrenal gland

69
Q

Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are only found in brown adipose tissue where their activation stimulates heat production?

a) α1-adrenergic
b) α2-adrenergic
c) β1-adrenergic
d) β2-adrenergic
e) β3-adrenergic

A

e) β3-adrenergic

70
Q

Which of the following types of adrenergic receptors are found on cardiac muscle fibers where their activation stimulates increased force and rate of contraction of the heart?

a) α1-adrenergic
b) α2-adrenergic
c) β1-adrenergic
d) β2-adrenergic
e) β3-adrenergic

A

c) β1-adrenergic

71
Q

The chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla possess what type of receptor that makes them responsive to the ACh released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons?

a) muscarinic receptors
b) nicotinic receptors
c) β1-adrenergic
d) β2-adrenergic
e) β3-adrenergic

A

b) nicotinic receptors

72
Q

Which of the following statements describes a common response of an autonomic effector during the “fight-or-flight” response?

a) Gastric motility and secretory activity increases.
b) Blood vessels serving skeletal muscles constrict.
c) Adipose tissues stores away triglycerides for later use.
d) The pupils of the eyes dilate.
e) Blood vessels serving the kidneys and digestive organs dilate.

A

d) The pupils of the eyes dilate.

73
Q

Which of the following lists the components of an autonomic reflex arc in the proper sequence of activation?

a) receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector
b) receptor – motor neuron – integrating center – sensory neuron – effector
c) effector – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – receptor
d) integrating center – receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector
e) receptor – sensory neuron – motor neuron – effector – integrating center

A

a) receptor – sensory neuron – integrating center – motor neuron – effector

74
Q

One of the main differences between a somatic reflex and autonomic reflex is the type of effectors that are activated. The effectors in somatic reflexes are _____, while the effectors in autonomic reflexes are _____.

a) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands
b) striated muscles; smooth muscle and glands
c) skeletal muscles and glands; smooth muscle and cardiac muscle
d) glands; skeletal muscles, smooth muscle, and cardiac muscle
e) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle only

A

a) skeletal muscles; smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glands

75
Q

Which the following regions of the brain serve as the major control and integration center of the ANS?

a) cerebrum
b) cerebellulum
c) thalamus
d) hypothalamus
e) pituitary

A

d) hypothalamus