Chapter 16 Flashcards
(14 cards)
Which type of immunity serves to protect against day-to-day pathogen exposure?
a. Innate immunity
b. Natural immunity
c. Acquired immunity
d. Supplemental immunity
ANS: A
Innate immunity helps protect you from smaller day-to-day exposures to pathogenic organism
but cannot provide long-term immunity to any single specific disease-causing microorganism.
In acquired immunity, what is the body’s response to antigen exposure?
a. The body initiates the clotting cascade.
b. The body produces additional antigens.
c. The body produces an antibody response.
d. The body increases antigen response through lymphocyte action.
ANS: C
Exposure to antigens is the trigger for lymphocytes to begin producing antibodies. These antibodies can be made in such high amounts that, when you are re-infected by the same
microorganism, they attack and destroy it or rid the body of it before it can make you sick
again.
Which of the following is an example of acquired passive immunity?
a. Immunity developed from microorganism exposure through vaccination.
b. Premade antibodies are transferred to you by another person or an animal.
c. Microorganism exposure that makes you sick, and then develop antibodies.
d. A pregnant woman who transfers antibodies to her baby during breast-feeding.
ANS: D
Natural acquired passive immunity is composed of the antibodies that a woman transfers to
her fetus during pregnancy and to her infant during breast-feeding. This immunity is short-
term but critically important in preventing young infants from many illnesses during the first 6
months after birth.
Which type of vaccine contains antigens that are killed by heat, radiation, or chemicals?
a. A toxoid
b. An antiserum
c. Inactivated vaccine
d. Attenuated vaccine
ANS: C
Laboratories can produce inactivated vaccines that contain dead antigens so that people can be
immunized to prevent them from getting the disease.
The parent of an infant you are caring for asks you for the correct schedule for the diphtheria,
tetanus, and pertussis (DTaP) vaccine schedule. What is your best response?
a. “DTaP is given at 2, 4, and 6 months of age.”
b. “DTaP is given at 1, 3, and 5 months of age.”
c. “DTaP is given at 6, 12, and 18 months of age.”
d. “DTaP is given to children when they are ready to begin school.”
ANS: A
The correct schedule for the DTaP is at 2, 4, and 6 months of age, with a booster at 15 to 18 months.
Which statement made by an adult patient demonstrates understanding of the recommended
Tdap vaccine booster schedule?
a. “I will need a booster every 5 years”
b. “I will need a booster every 7 years.”
c. “I will need a booster every 10 years.”
d. “I will need a booster every 15 years.”
ANS: C
For adults aged 19 and older, Tdap boosters are recommended every 10 years.
An adult patient scheduled for a seasonal influenza vaccine presents to the clinic with
complaints of an upper respiratory infection. He is also there for a flu shot. What is your best action?
a. Give a ‘test dose’ of the vaccine to observe if a reaction is present.
b. Give the influenza vaccine to avoid more severe infection.
c. Have the patient sign a consent for the vaccine.
d. Hold the vaccine until the infection resolves.
ANS: D
Vaccines should not be given to patients with active infection, severe febrile illness, or history
of a serious side effect from previous vaccinations.
Which of the following patients should receive a yearly influenza virus vaccine?
a. An adolescent
b. A young mother
c. A middle-aged man
d. An older adult woman
ANS:D
Older adults are at high risk for influenza, so it is recommended that this patient population
receive the annual flu vaccine to prevent infection.
A pregnant woman presents for her regular obstetric appointment and requests to have the seasonal influenza vaccine. What is your best response?
a. “This vaccine contains a live virus, so cannot be given during pregnancy.”
b. “This vaccine can be given safely anytime during your pregnancy.”
c. “You may only receive this vaccine during your last trimester.”
d. “You may only receive this vaccine during your first trimester.”
ANS: B
Vaccinations that are recommended during pregnancy include seasonal influenza and Tdap.
You are preparing to give an 18-month-old child the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR)
vaccine. The child’s mother informs you that a relative who is HIV-positive has just moved
into the home with this family. What is your best action?
a. Withhold the vaccine, as it contains live microorganisms.
b. Give the vaccine as ordered; there is no effect on the HIV-positive person.
c. Give one-half of the vaccine dose now and schedule the remaining dose at a later
date.
d. Have the HIV-positive person contact his/her healthcare provider before giving the
vaccine.
ANS: D
People who are immunocompromised are at increased risk for an adverse reaction after
administration of live attenuated vaccines because they have less of an ability to build up an effective immune response. Before receiving a vaccination with a live vaccine, the household member’s healthcare provider should be consulted because the patient with reduced immunity may be at increased risk for contracting the virus the vaccine is designed to prevent.
An adult patient who has received the series of vaccines against hepatitis B asks you if
immunity is now present against this disease. What is your best response?
a. “Immunity can only be determined by obtaining a blood titer.”
b. “You are considered immune if you have completed all three vaccines.”
c. “You will be considered immune one month after your last injection.”
d. “The health department will review the dates of your vaccines and let you know.”
ANS: A
Antibody blood titers taken after the hepatitis B vaccine series can confirm the presence of
antibodies and immunity.
An adult patient who is the recipient of a kidney transplant is prescribed the antirejection drug
mycophenolate. What potential problem should you monitor this patient for?
a. Fluid retention and edema
b. Signs and symptoms of infection
c. Changes in cognition and memory
d. Decreased pulse rate and hypotension
ANS: B
All selective immunosuppressants reduce immunity to some extent and increase the patient’s
risk for infection. With reduced immunity and inflammation, the symptoms of infection may
not be present even when the patient has a significant infection.
You are teaching a patient who is beginning an antiproliferative drug about potential toxicities associated with this class of drugs. Which statement should be included in the teaching plan for this patient?
a. “Stay out of the sun and use sunscreen daily.”
b. “Eat high-fiber foods and increase your fluid intake.”
c. “Avoid drinking alcohol and taking acetaminophen.”
d. “These drugs can cause bleeding at the administration site.”
ANS: C
Liver toxicity and liver failure have occurred with all of the antiproliferatives and the
calcineurin inhibitors. The risk is increased if the patient has other liver problems or is
exposed to other substances that are liver toxic, such as alcohol and acetaminophen.
A woman of childbearing age has just been prescribed an antiproliferative drug. What
statement made by this patient alerts you to the need for additional teaching?
a. “I can plan to become pregnant after I am on this drug for a minimum of 6
months.”
b. “I will use two reliable forms of birth control while taking this drug.”
c. “I will report any yellowing of my eyes or skin.”
d. “I will take my temperature daily.”
ANS: A
Pregnancy is an absolute contraindication for the use of antiproliferative drugs because they
are associated with birth defects and other severe problems. Tell sexually active women of childbearing age to use two reliable methods of contraception during this therapy and for at
least 12 weeks after the therapy is discontinued.
