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Adams 10th > Chapter 16 - Epilepsy & other seizure disorders > Flashcards

Chapter 16 - Epilepsy & other seizure disorders Flashcards

1
Q 
Masticatory, salivation, speech arrest*
A. Prerolandic gyrus
B. Amygdaloid nuclei, opercular
C. Frontal
D. Supplementary motor cortex
A

B. Amygdaloid nuclei, opercular (p. 319)

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2
Q 
Head and eye turning associated with arm movement or athetoid-dystonic postures
A. Prerolandic gyrus
B. Amygdaloid nuclei, opercular
C. Frontal
D. Supplementary motor cortex
A

D. Supplementary motor cortex (p. 319)

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3
Q 
Vertiginous aura
A. Contralateral postrolandic
B. Occipital
C. Heschl gyri
D. Superior temporal
E. Mesial temporal
F. Insula
G. Insular-orbital-frontal cortex
A

D. Superior temporal (p. 319)

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4
Q 
Olfactory aura
A. Contralateral postrolandic
B. Occipital
C. Heschl gyri
D. Superior temporal
E. Mesial temporal
F. Insula
G. Insular-orbital-frontal cortex
A

E. Mesial temporal (p. 319)

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5
Q 
Which of the following are incorrectly paired?*
A. Jacksonian: prerolandic gyrus
B. Gustatory: mesial temporal
C. Affective states: temporal
D. Simple contraversive: frontal
A

B. Gustatory: mesial temporal (p. 319)

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6
Q 
Most frequently recorded color in visual seizures
A. Red
B. Blue
C. Green
D. Yellow
A

A. Red (p. 326)

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7
Q 
Jacksonian (focal motor)
A. Prerolandic gyrus
B. Amygdaloid nuclei, opercular
C. Frontal
D. Supplementary motor cortex
A

A. Prerolandic gyrus (p. 319)

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8
Q 
Simple contraversive seizure
A. Prerolandic gyrus
B. Amygdaloid nuclei, opercular
C. Frontal
D. Supplementary motor cortex
A

C. Frontal (p. 319)

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9
Q 
Somatosensory aura
A. Contralateral postrolandic
B. Occipital
C. Heschl gyri
D. Superior temporal
E. Mesial temporal
F. Insula
G. Insular-orbital-frontal cortex
A

A. Contralateral postrolandic (p. 319)

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10
Q 
Uniformed images, lights, patterns
A. Contralateral postrolandic
B. Occipital
C. Heschl gyri
D. Superior temporal
E. Mesial temporal
F. Insula
G. Insular-orbital-frontal cortex
A

B. Occipital (p. 319)

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11
Q 
Auditory aura
A. Contralateral postrolandic
B. Occipital
C. Heschl gyri
D. Superior temporal
E. Mesial temporal
F. Insula
G. Insular-orbital-frontal cortex
A

C. Heschl gyri (p. 319)

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12
Q 
Gustatory aura
A. Contralateral postrolandic
B. Occipital
C. Heschl gyri
D. Superior temporal
E. Mesial temporal
F. Insula
G. Insular-orbital-frontal cortex
A

F. Insula (p. 319)

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13
Q 
Visceral: autonomic aura
A. Contralateral postrolandic
B. Occipital
C. Heschl gyri
D. Superior temporal
E. Mesial temporal
F. Insula
G. Insular-orbital-frontal cortex
A

G. Insular-orbital-frontal cortex

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14
Q 
Which does not occur during the tonic phase of a seizure?*
A. Ictal cry
B. Breathing is suspended
C. Pupils constrict
D. Urinary incontinence
A

C. Pupils constrict (p. 322)

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15
Q 
Which of the following does not occur during the clonic phase of a seizure?
A. Pulse is rapid
B. BP drops
C. Pupils dilate
D. Salivation and sweating are prominent
A

B. BP drops (p. 322)

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16
Q 
EEG finding in typical absence
A. 3-per-second spike-and-wave
B. 4-6 Hz polyspike-and-wave
C. 1- to 2-Hz spike-and-wave
D. 4-6 Hz irregular polyspike activity
A

A. 3-per-second spike-and-wave (p. 323)

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17
Q 
EEG finding in atypical absence
A. 3-per-second spike-and-wave
B. 4-6 Hz polyspike-and-wave
C. 1- to 2-Hz spike-and-wave
D. 4-6 Hz irregular polyspike activity
A

B. 4-6 Hz polyspike-and-wave (p. 323)

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18
Q 
Age of onset of childhood absence
A. Infancy
B. Between 2 and 6 years of age
C. After 4 years of age and before puberty
D. Around age 15
A

C. After 4 years of age and before puberty (p. 323)

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19
Q

True of Lennox-Gastaut syndrome except
A. Onset between 2 and 6 years of age
B. Falling attacks succeeded by minor motor, tonic-clonic, and partial seizures
C. Patients have normal intellectual capacity
D. Often preceded in earlier life by infantile spasms

A

C. Patients have normal intellectual capacity (p. 323)

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20
Q 
EEG finding in Lennox-Gastaut syndrome
A. 3-per-second spike-and-wave
B. 4-6 Hz polyspike-and-wave
C. 1- to 2-Hz spike-and-wave
D. 4-6 Hz irregular polyspike activity
A

C. 1- to 2-Hz spike-and-wave (p. 323)

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21
Q 
Not part of the triad of West syndrome
A. Infantile spasms
B. Hypsarrhythmia
C. Arrest in mental development
D. Atonic or astatic seizures
A

D. Atonic or astatic seizures (p. 323)

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22
Q 
EEG finding in JME*
A. 3-per-second spike-and-wave
B. 4-6 Hz polyspike-and-wave
C. 1- to 2-Hz spike-and-wave
D. 4-6 Hz irregular polyspike activity
A

D. 4-6 Hz irregular polyspike activity (p. 324)

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23
Q

True of JME except
A. Most common form of idiopathic generalized epilepsy in order children and young adults
B. Sometimes absence seizures are prominent
C. Tends not to be progressive
D. Valproic acid may be discontinued upon reaching adulthood

A

D. Valproic acid may be discontinued upon reaching adulthood (p. 324)

24
Q 
Most appropriate anticonvulsant for young adult women with JME
A. Valproic acid
B. Levetiracetam
C. Lamotrigine
D. B or C
E. None of the above
A

D. B or C (p. 324)

25
Q

True of Benign Epilepsy of Childhood with Centrotemporal Spikes except
A. Self-limiting; gradually disappears during adolescence
B. Noctural tonic-clonic seizures with focal onset
C. Autosomal recessive transmission
D. Begins between 5 and 9 years of age

A

C. Autosomal recessive transmission (p. 330)

26
Q 
Inheritance pattern of benign neonatal convulsions
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
A

A. Autosomal dominant (p. 337)

27
Q 
Inheritance pattern of benign myoclonic epilepsy of childhood
A. Autosomal dominant
B. Autosomal recessive
C. X-linked dominant
D. X-linked recessive
A

B. Autosomal recessive (p. 337)

28
Q 
Protein involved in autosomal dominant nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy
A. nACh receptor
B. GABA A receptor
C. GLUT 1
D. Calcium channel
A

A. nACh receptor (p. 337)

29
Q 
Protein involved in GEFS+
A. Na channel
B. K channel
C. Ca channel
D. Cl channel
A

A. Na channel (p. 337)

30
Q 
Protein involved in benign familial neonatal convulsions
A. Na channel
B. K channel
C. Ca channel
D. Cl channel
A

B. K channel (p. 337)

31
Q 
Gene affected in Dravet syndrome
A. SCN1A
B. SCN2A
C. KCNQ2
D. KCNA1
A

A. SCN1A (p. 340)

32
Q 
Most frequent of the metallic poisons that cause convulsions in children
A. Lead
B. Mercury
C. Arsenic
D. A & B
E. None of the above
A

D. A and B (p. 342)

33
Q 
Most frequent of the metallic poisons that cause convulsions in adults
A. Mercury
B. Arsenic
C. Cadmium
D. None of the above
A

A. Mercury (p. 342)

34
Q 
Least effective drug for infantile spasms*
A. ACTH
B. Vigabatrin
C. Valproate
D. Lamotrigine
E. Phenobarbital
A

E. Phenobarbital (p. 346)

35
Q 
Initial drug of choice for Lennox-Gastaut patients
A. Valproate
B. Topiramate
C. Lamotrigine 
D. Levetiracetam
E. Phenobarbital
A

A. Valproate (p. 346)

36
Q 
Initial drug of choice for patients with absence seizures
A. Valproate
B. Topiramate
C. Lamotrigine 
D. Levetiracetam
E. Phenobarbital
A

A. Valproate (p. 346)

37
Q 
Drug with the highest risk for fetal anticonvulsant syndrome
A. Phenytoin
B. Carbamazepine
C. Phenobarbital 
D. Valproate
E. Lamotrigine
A

D. Valproate (p. 347)

38
Q 
Best choice of anticonvulsant for a woman with seizure disorder who has been off epilepsy medication for a time before getting pregnant and seizes during pregnancy
A. Levetiracetam 
B. Phenobarbital 
C. Valproate
D. Carbamazepine
A

A. Levetiracetam (p. 347)

39
Q

True of primary generalized epilepsies except*
A. They arise without underlying structural abnormalities
B. In most instances, these patients have mental retardation
C. A genetic component underlies many of these disordera
D. This group have age-dependent phenotypes

A

B. In most instances, these patients have mental retardation (p. 319)

40
Q 
This drug is chemically similar to GABA and has an apparent effect on Ca channels
A. Gabapentin
B. Vigabatrin
C. Tiagabine
D. Lacosamide
A

A. Gabapentin (p. 350)

41
Q 
This drug inhibits GABA transaminase
A. Gabapentin
B. Vigabatrin
C. Tiagabine
D. Lacosamide
A

B. Vigabatrin (p. 350)

42
Q 
This drug inhibits GABA reuptake
A. Gabapentin
B. Vigabatrin
C. Tiagabine
D. Lacosamide
A

C. Tiagabine (p. 350)

43
Q 
This drug is known to cause hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis
A. Gabapentin
B. Vigabatrin
C. Tiagabine
D. Topiramate
A

D. Topiramate (p. 350)

44
Q 
This drug has been reported to cause angle closure glaucoma
A. Gabapentin
B. Vigabatrin
C. Tiagabine
D. Topiramate
A

D. Topiramate (p. 350)

45
Q 
Advantage of fosphenytoin over phenytoin except
A. Can be injected 2x the maximum rate
B. Can be given IM
C. Shorter latency of clinical effects
D. None of the above
A

C. Shorter latency of clinical effects (p. 351)

46
Q 
Ketogenic diet is the main treatment in children with*
A. GLUT 1 deficiency syndrome
B. Lennox Gastaut epilepsy 
C. West syndrome
D. Infantile spasm
A

A. GLUT 1 deficiency syndrome (p. 353)

47
Q 
Development of a secondary seizure focus due to repeated stimulation with subconvulsive electrical pulses from an established focus elsewhere*
A. Kindling
B. Hypersynchrony
C. Depolarizing shifts
D. Mirror focus
A

A. Kindling (p. 333)

48
Q 
Serum prolactin rises during*
A. Absence seizure
B. Myoclonic seizure
C. Psychogenic seizure
D. Syncope
A

D. Syncope (p. 336)

49
Q 
Features of MRI with contrast post-seizure*
A. Ovoid hypointensity in the cortex
B. Leptomeningeal enhancement
C. Cortical blush
D. None of the above
A

C. Cortical blush (p. 336)

50
Q 
Which of the following medications is least likely to cause seizures in high doses?*
A. Aminophylline
B. Cefepime
C. Imipramine
D. Imipinem
E. Nifedipine
A

E. Nifedipine (p. 342)

51
Q 
This epileptic syndrome probably does not need lifelong treatment with AED*
A. Medial temporal sclerosis
B. Epilepsy with occipital spikes
C. Post-encephalitic seizures
D. Epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes
A

D. Epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (p. 330)

52
Q 
The slow wave of the EEG spike-and-wave complex corresponds to*
A. Hypersynchrony of neurons
B. Depolarizing shifts
C. Afterpolarizations
D. Kindling
A

C. Afterpolarizations (p. 333)

53
Q 
Which among the following AEDs has the shortest half-life?*
A. Levetiracetam
B. Phenytoin
C. Valproic acid
D. Oxcarbazepine
A

A. Oxcarbazepine (Table 16-5, p. 345)

54
Q

Drug interaction between valproic acid and carbamazepine*
A. Carbamazepine decreases valproic acid levels
B. Valproic acid decreases carbamazepine levels
C. Valproic acid inhibits epoxide hydrolase leading to carbamazepine toxicity
D. None of the above

A

C. Valproic acid inhibits epoxide hydrolase leading to carbamazepine toxicity (p. 346)

55
Q

Which is NOT true of Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?*
A. Onset is between 2 and 6 years of age
B. Often preceded in earlier life by West syndrome
C. Has a genetic cause
D. May persist into adult life

A

C. Has a genetic cause (p. 323)

56
Q 
Epileptiform discharge is due to*
A. Afterpolarization
B. Paroxysmal depolarizing shifts
C. Action potential
D. Hypersynchrony
A

B. Paroxysmal depolarizing shifts (p. 333)

57
Q

How is magnesium sulfate administered in patients with eclampsia?*
A. MgSO4 10 g IM followed by 5 g q4h
B. MgSO4 4g IV over 5-10 min followed by 5g IM q4h or 1-2g/h IV
C. A and B are correct
D. None of the above are correct

A

C. A and B are correct (p. 343)

Adams 10th (27 decks)

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