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Clin Tech 3 - Unit 3 > Chapter 17 > Flashcards

Chapter 17 Flashcards

1
Q

with force feeding - mix food with _____, unless already syringable

A

water

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2
Q

with force feeding - allow what between syringes

A

time to swallow

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3
Q

gently pumping the stomach contents out of the stomach

A

gastric lavage

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4
Q

the “through and through” lavage, uses an enema as well as a stomach tube

A

gastric gavage

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5
Q

five placements of enteric feeding

A

Nasoesophageal tubes
Esophagostomy tubes
Gastrostomy tubes
Jejunostomy tubes
Orogastric intubation ( single feeding)

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6
Q

Administer medication, food, or fluids through a tube passed through the mouth directly into the stomach

A

orogastric intubation

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7
Q

abbreviation for orogastric intubation

A

OGT

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8
Q

which patients normally receive orogastric intubation

A

orphan or weak neonates can be fed milk replacer

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9
Q

besides feeding, what else can orogastric intubation be used for

A

may be passed in an attempt to decompress a patient with gastric dilation (bloated stomach)

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10
Q

when placing an orogastric intubation tube, the rubber or plastic tube must extend from the tip of the nose to where

A

13th rib

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11
Q

how do you know where the 13th rib is for orogastric intubation

A

stretch it on the outside of the animal and mark the tube with tape or marker

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12
Q

where is the orogastric intubation tube placed for distal esophagus placement

A

8th rib

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13
Q

three ways that fluid can be administered for orogastric intubation

A

60 mL syringe
drench pump
funnel

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14
Q

what do you need to do to the orogastric intubation tube when you are done administering fluid

A

occlude it before withdrawing in a downward direction

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15
Q

where are transdermal drugs administered

A

inside the ear

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16
Q

what kind of patches can be given by transdermal administration

A

fentanyl citrate patch

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17
Q

what needs to be done to the area before applying fentanyl patches

A

shave the area first

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18
Q

what part of the intestines is where intrarectal absorption occurs

A

large intestine

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19
Q

intrarectal administration has both _____ and _____ effects

A

local
systemic

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20
Q

intrarectal administration works best if what

A

the patient is free of fecal material

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21
Q

Antiemetic tablets or suppositories can be administered to _______ patients

A

vomiting

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22
Q

what species should you not use Fleet enemas on

A

cats

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23
Q

three reasons to disregard ophthalmic solution

A

appears cloudy
has particulate matter
color change

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24
Q

what should you do for ophthalmic meds that have been in the fridge

A

warm them up before administering

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25
Q

ophthalmic administration:

_______ should be given first and then ________, apply meds ______ mins apart

A

solutions
ointments
3 to 5 mins

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26
Q

four reasons for temporary venous access

A

Medications
Fluid
Electrolyte replacement therapy
Blood product transfusions

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27
Q

four things that site selection depends on for IV catheters

A

Available vessels
Condition of vessels and patient
Expense
Urgency

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28
Q

Medications and fluids with osmolarities less than or equal to ______ mOsm may be safely administered via a peripheral vein.

A

600

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29
Q

how do you decide on the length and gauge of an IV catheter

A

species
size of patient
veins available

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30
Q

Four categories of IV access devices

A

Winged needle (butterfly)
Over-the-needle
Through-the-needle
Multilumen catheter

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31
Q

A.

A

Butterfly catheter

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32
Q

B.

A

Over the Needle Catheter

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33
Q

C.

A

Multilumen Catheter

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34
Q

D.

A

Through the Needle Catheter

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35
Q

which catheter is for short term use

A

Butterfly catheter

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36
Q

most commonly used catheter

A

over the needle

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37
Q

which catheter is used primarily in the jugular vein

A

through the needle

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38
Q

which catheter allows for simultaneous infusions at one catheter site

A

multilumen

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39
Q

common peripheral IV sites for cats

A

cephalic or medial veins

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40
Q

common peripheral IV sites for dogs

A

cephalic or lateral saphenous veins

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41
Q

four advantages of jugular IV catheterizations

A

Constant rate infusions of drugs known to cause phlebitis

Measurement of Central venous pressure (CVP)

Facilitation of frequent aspiration of blood samples

Total parenteral nutrition (TPN)

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42
Q

two keys to jugular IV success

A

Patient positioning (lateral recumbency)

Vessel immobilization

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43
Q

how often should you inspect IV catheters

A

every 48 hours

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44
Q

six reasons why you should remove a catheter and place a new one

A

Phlebitis

Infection

Thrombosis

Leaking at insertion site by itself or during a flush

Pain upon injection

Any portion of the catheter is exposed

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45
Q

an inflammation that causes a blood clot to form in a vein

A

phlebitis

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46
Q

the formation of a blood clot (partial or complete blockage) within blood vessels

A

thrombosis

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47
Q

catheters should be removed after how many hours

A

72 hours (could be longer in animals if maintained)

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48
Q

if bandage around catheter gets wet what two things should you do

A

identify the reason
change the bandage

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49
Q

what should you do if a patient is molesting a bandage

A

investigate why

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50
Q

Catheters not continuously used should be flushed with saline every ______ hours

A

four

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51
Q

Catheters not used for prolonged period of time should be fitted with _______ or _______ locks

A

heparin
saline

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52
Q

Emergency drugs can be injected directly into the _______

A

trachea

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53
Q

what does LEAN stand for with intratracheal administration

A

lidocaine
epinephrine
atropine
naloxone

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54
Q

what does NAVEL stand for with intratracheal administration

A

naloxone
atropine
Valium
epinephrine
lidocaine

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55
Q

with intratracheal administration, Polypropylene ________ catheter or _______ feeding tube is inserted into trachea either directly or through an __________tube

A

urinary
rubber
endotracheal

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56
Q

immediately after giving drugs through intratracheal administration, what follows

A

10 mL of air or 3-10 mL of sterile saline solution

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57
Q

intraosseous administration is used for rapid fluid delivery to _______, _______ animals and patients with circulatory _______

A

neonates
small animals
collapse

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58
Q

four contraindications to intraosseous administration

A

Sepsis

Bones that are fractured or infected

Dermatitis

Bone cortex is punctured multiple times

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59
Q

five sites for intraosseous administration

A

tibia
femur
humerus
occasionally iliac wing
occasionally ischium

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60
Q

four purposes for arterial blood samples

A

Assess pulmonary function

Assess patient’s ability to ventilate and oxygenate

Assess partial pressure of CO2 and O2

Performed on a pH and blood gas analyzer

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61
Q

three percutaneous puncture sites for arterial blood samples

A

Dorsal metatarsal artery
Femoral artery
Sublingual artery

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62
Q

how long should you apply digital pressure to the puncture site for an arterial blood sample

A

1 minute

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63
Q

how long should you monitor arterial blood sample sites for bleeding/hematoma

A

4 minutes

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64
Q

two reasons for urine collection

A

analysis - both gross and microscopic

culture

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65
Q

four common techniques for urine collection

A

voiding
manual bladder expression
cystocentesis
catheterization

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66
Q

how long can urine be stored at room temp

A

30 mins

67
Q

what kind of container does urine need to be stored in

A

air tight

68
Q

if a urine culture can’t be ran within 30 mins, how should it be stored

A

in the refrigerator

69
Q

if a urine sample was stored in the refrigerator, how should it be prepared before analysis

A

returned to room temp

70
Q

voided, voluntary urine samples should be collected at what point in the stream

A

midstream

71
Q

voided urine collection can not be used for what

A

cultures

72
Q

two ways to collect voided urine from a dog

A

collection devices for shy patients

raised grates in cages

73
Q

three ways to collect voided urine from a cat

A

Clean, dry, empty litter box

Nonabsorbable beads in box

Shredded wax paper in box

74
Q

urine from manual bladder expression can be used for ______ ______ but not _______

A

routine urinalysis

culture

75
Q

manual bladder expression is difficult on what kind of animals

A

awake animals

76
Q

manual bladder expression is used in what kind of impairments

A

neurologic

77
Q

where do you place your hands to do manual bladder expression

A

isolate bladder between palm and fingers

78
Q

Percutaneous aspiration of urine from bladder

A

cystocentesis

79
Q

what kind of sample is urine from cystocentesis

A

sterile sample

80
Q

why is cystocentesis safer than urinary catheterization for samples

A

Minimizes iatrogenic urinary tract infections

81
Q

what does iatrogenic mean

A

relating to illness caused by medical examination or treatment

82
Q

what is hematuria

A

blood in urine

83
Q

three contraindications for cystocentesis

A

suspected bleeding disorders
pyometra
tumors

84
Q

what can you use for guidance when doing a cystocentesis

A

ultrasound

85
Q

what can be done to relieve a urethral obstruction

A

catheterization

86
Q

catheterization can be used for _______ studies

A

radiographic

87
Q

catheterization can be used for quantifying what

A

urinary output

88
Q

two complications with urinary catheterization

A

Urinary tract infection
Urethra/bladder irritation and trauma

89
Q

how many times should the prepuce or vulva be cleaned to prepare for a urinary catheter

A

twice

90
Q

premeasure the urinary catheter externally to where

A

caudal bladder

91
Q

when using a urinary catheter, monitor the bladder for what

A

adequate output

92
Q

what kind of catheter is connect to a reservoir bag and stays in place to drain urine, long term placement

A

Indwelling catheter

93
Q

indwelling catheters are _______ to the animal

A

sutured

94
Q

what should you inspect indwelling catheters for

A

obstructions or kinks

95
Q

how long are indwelling catheters left in place

A

4 to 5 days

96
Q

if indwelling catheters are advanced too far, what can happen

A

the catheter may tie itself in a knot within the urinary bladder

97
Q

urinary catheters should be removed ______ and _______

A

slow and controlled

98
Q

what kind of urinary catheters are used in male dogs for sample collection or emptying a bladder (not for indwelling catheters)

A

polypropylene catheter

99
Q
A

polypropylene catheter

100
Q

what kind of urinary catheter should be used for an indwelling catheter in a male dog

A

flexible feeding tube or Foley catheter (pictured)

101
Q
A

Foley catheter

102
Q

in male cats catheterization is rarely done for _____ _____ but a more common reason is to relieve a _______ ________

A

urine collection
urethral obstruction

103
Q

what kind of catheters are used for male cats

A

Tomcat catheter

104
Q
A

Tomcat catheter

105
Q

two techniques to use for a urinary catheter on a female dog

A

blind/palpate
otoscope/speculum

106
Q

what kind of catheter is used for indwelling catheters in female dogs

A

Foley catheter

107
Q

The centesis brothers can be done for what two things

A

diagnostic and therapeutic

108
Q

vet techs role in the centesis brothers

A

clip and sterile prep
post procedure care

109
Q

Diagnose or treat pleural filling defects

A

thoracocentesis

110
Q

for a thoracocentesis, Auscultation reveals diminished or absent _____ sounds and muffled _____ sounds

A

breath
heart

111
Q

what color tubes are used for thoracocentesis collection

A

purple and red top

112
Q

what ribs have the hair clipped over for a thoracocentesis

A

7th and 8th intercostal space

113
Q

The correct needle placement for performing a thoracocentesis is

A

Cranial border of the 8th rib

114
Q

what supplies are needed for thoracocentsis

A

syringe
three way stopcock
IV tubing
Over the Needle catheter

115
Q

three complications to thoracocentesis

A

Pneumothorax
Lung laceration
Laceration of blood vessel

116
Q

what can laceration of a blood vessel during thoracocentesis lead to

A

hypovolemia (blood loss) leading to hemothorax

117
Q

three nursing care needs for postthoracocentesis

A

Respiratory rate measurement

Auscultation of lung sounds

Oxygen saturation measured with a pulse oximeter

118
Q

abdominocentesis can aid in the diagnosis of what four things

A

hemoabdomen (blood in abdominal cavity)

uroabdomen (urine in the abdominal cavity)

peritonitis (inflammation of the abdominal lining)

ascites (fluid accumulation within the peritoneal cavity)

119
Q

two contraindications for abdominocentesis

A

Penetrating abdominal injury
Suspected pyometra

120
Q

location on the abdomen for abdominocentesis

A

Right, midabdominal region

121
Q

three things to make sure you avoid with abdominocentesis

A

spleen
liver
bladder

122
Q

what three positions can abdominocentesis be done in

A

standing
sternal
lateral

123
Q

what kind of results can abdominocentesis produce

A

false negative

124
Q

what can be done if abdominocentesis results are suspected to be false negative

A

peritoneal lavage

125
Q

three serious complications to abdominocentesis

A

penetration of bowel or spleen

damage to the xiphoid process

introduction of bacteria

126
Q

Infusion of fluid into the abdomen, then retrieval of the fluid for analysis

A

diagnostic peritoneal lavage

127
Q

for peritoneal lavage, the patient must have an empty what

A

bladder

128
Q

where is a small incision made for peritoneal lavage, caudal to what

A

midline caudal to umbilicus

129
Q

in peritoneal lavage, what direction is the catheter directed after insertion

A

caudally and dorsally

130
Q

how much warmed crystalloid solution is used for peritoneal lavage

A

20 ml/kg

131
Q

how do you lavage the peritoneal cavity once solution is added

A

gently rock patient back and forth

132
Q

Obtaining tracheobronchial materials while bypassing mouth and oropharynx

A

transtracheal wash

133
Q

three identifications that can be made by transtracheal wash

A

Identification of parasite eggs or larvae

Identification of infectious agents

Identification of neoplastic cells

134
Q

transtracheal wash should not be used when

A

in severe respiratory distress

135
Q

five complications with transtracheal wash

A

Hemorrhage

Pneumomediastinum, pneumothorax

Subcutaneous emphysema around the trachea

Acute dyspnea

Iatrogenic infection

136
Q

for transtracheal wash, keep the patient awake with ______ _____

A

cough reflex

137
Q

three techniques for transtracheal wash

A

Two-Catheter system
Through-the-needle catheter
Endotracheal lavage

138
Q

Aspiration of fluid from a joint

A

arthrocentesis

139
Q

three indications for arthrocentesis

A

Persistent or cyclic fever, especially FUO (fever of unknown origin)

Generalized stiffness or limb lameness, especially associated with systemic signs

Specific limb lameness

140
Q

two contraindications for arthocentesis

A

Moderate to severe pyoderma or lick granuloma

Trauma with or without hemorrhage into joint

141
Q

do not attempt arthrocentesis on what kind of animal

A

uncooperative or one that is not immobilized

142
Q

what size needles are used for arthrocentesis

A

25 g and 22 g

143
Q

for arthrocentesis, what is important to do with the needle before withdrawing

A

release suction (to prevent contamination of the sample)

144
Q

with arthrocentesis, this joint is held in flexion

A

carpus

145
Q

with arthrocentesis, The hock is held in partial flexion—_____ degrees with metatarsus and tibia

A

90

146
Q

with arthrocentesis, The ______ joint is partially flexed during the procedure

A

stifle

147
Q

three ways to analyze joint fluid from arthrocentesis

A

Gross appearance

Culture

Histological appearance

148
Q

how much joint fluid does it take for gross and histologic appearance

A

a single drop is sufficient

149
Q

Evaluates the cells in the bone marrow

A

bone marrow aspirate

150
Q

two contraindications to bone marrow aspirate

A

Clotting factor abnormalities
Severe thrombocytopenia

151
Q

three complications to bone marrow aspirate

A

Infection at the aspirate site
Damage to soft tissue structures
Hematoma

152
Q

bone marrow aspirate is very _______ and heavy ______ is warranted

A

painful
sedation

153
Q

three locations for bone marrow aspirates

A

ilium
humerus
femur

154
Q

aged patients bone marrow is less active should you should use the ________

A

ilium

155
Q

what kind of technique has to be observed with bone marrow aspirate

A

strict aseptic

156
Q

For a bone marrow aspirate, always do ______ and _______ count within 24 hours before or after the aspirate so the peripheral and marrow cell populations can be compared

A

CBC
reticulocyte

157
Q

what part of the humeral bone has an advantage to bone marrow aspirate because of less tissue, fat and muscle

A

greater tubercle

158
Q

what location for bone marrow aspirate is useful in animals with narrow iliac wings

A

humeral bone/greater tubercle

159
Q

when is the dorsal iliac difficult to palpate for bone marrow aspirate

A

heavy muscle or overweight patient

160
Q

where is the needle introduced for femoral bone marrow aspirate

A

medially into great trochanter, parallel to femoral shaft

161
Q

acquiring a sample of tissue cells

A

fine needle aspirate

162
Q

three things that fine needle aspirate helps decipher between

A

inflammation
neoplasia
hyperplasia

163
Q

what gauge needles are used for fine needle aspirate

A

25 g to 22 g

164
Q

for fine needle aspirate, introduce the needle into the mass and do what

A

redirect once or twice then remove needle

Clin Tech 3 - Unit 3 (4 decks)

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