Chapter 18 Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
A disorder of psychological function sufficiently severe to require treatment by a psychiatrist is a __________ disorder.
A) neuropsychological B) psychiatric C) neurobehavioral D) neurochemical E) degenerative
A
B) psychiatric
2
Q
The main difficulty in diagnosing psychiatric disorders is that
A) patients suffering from the same psychiatric disorder often display different symptoms.
B) patients suffering from different psychiatric disorders often display the same symptoms.
C) dream analysis is subjective and expensive.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
A
D) both A and B
3
Q
About what proportion of the adult population suffers from schizophrenia?
A) 0.01% B) 0.1% C) 1% D) 12% E) 17%
A
C) 1%
4
Q
Schizophrenia typically begins in
A) infancy. B) childhood. C) adolescence or early adulthood. D) middle age. E) old age.
A
C) adolescence or early adulthood.
5
Q
Catatonic schizophrenic patients often experience a unique symptom when somebody moves them:
A) visual hallucinations. B) waxy flexibility. C) auditory hallucinations. D) total rigidity. E) tremors.
A
B) waxy flexibility.
6
Q
Which of the following is a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
A) hallucinations B) inappropriate affect C) delusions D) incoherent speech or thought E) all of the above
A
E) all of the above
7
Q
Hallucinations associated with schizophrenia often take the form of
A) ghostly shapes. B) religious figures. C) flashing lights. D) imaginary voices making critical comments or telling the patient what to do. E) the DSM-IV.
A
D) imaginary voices making critical comments or telling the patient what to do.
8
Q
The symptoms of schizophrenia are often divided into two categories:
A) positive and negative. B) active and passive. C) genetic and epigenetic. D) genetic and experiential. E) anterograde and retrograde.
A
A) positive and negative.
9
Q
The probability that a close biological relative (i.e., a parent, sibling, or child) of patient suffering from schizophrenia will also be diagnosed with schizophrenia is about
A) 1%. B) 2%. C) 10%. D) 35%. E) 55%.
A
C) 10%.
10
Q
Studies of monozygotic and dizygotic twins suggest that schizophrenia
A) is caused entirely by genetic factors.
B) is uninfluenced by genetic factors.
C) is greatly influenced by genetic factors.
D) is a mental disorder.
E) doesn’t run in families.
A
C) is greatly influenced by genetic factors.
11
Q
The concordance rate of schizophrenia in monozygotic twins is
A) the same as that in dizygotic twins.
B) the same as that in any two siblings.
C) slightly more than that in husbands and wives.
D) slightly more than that in pairs of unrelated individuals.
E) about 45%.
A
E) about 45%.
12
Q
Evidence that environmental factors play a role in the etiology of schizophrenia is that the concordance rate for identical twins is
A) greater for males than for females. B) much less than 100%. C) much more than 50%. D) more than for dizygotic twins. E) greater among cocaine users.
A
B) much less than 100%.
13
Q
Which of the following early experiential factors have been implicated in some cases of schizophrenia?
A) stress B) faulty autoimmune reactions C) infections D) exposure to toxins E) all of the above
A
E) all of the above
14
Q
Chlorpromazine
A) is a benzodiazepine.
B) exerts an immediate antischizophrenic effect.
C) was originally developed as an antihistamine.
D) is commonly used in the treatment of depression.
E) both A and C
A
C) was originally developed as an antihistamine.
15
Q
The first two antischizophrenic drugs were
A) Librium and chlorpromazine. B) chlorpromazine and reserpine. C) L-DOPA and reserpine. D) haloperidol and chlorpromazine. E) haloperidol and Valium.
A
B) chlorpromazine and reserpine.
16
Q
The active ingredient of snakeroot is
A) chlorpromazine. B) reserpine. C) atropine. D) morphine. E) chlordiazepoxide.
A
B) reserpine.
17
Q
Reserpine is not currently used in the treatment of schizophrenia because it
A) is ineffective.
B) is an antihistamine.
C) can produce a dangerous decrease in blood pressure.
D) is an anxiolytic.
E) violates the dopamine theory of schizophrenia.
A
C) can produce a dangerous decrease in blood pressure.
18
Q
Which of the following can trigger schizophrenic episodes?
A) amphetamine B) cocaine C) snakeroot D) all of the above E) both A and B
A
E) both A and B
19
Q
Dopamine agonist is to dopamine antagonist as
A) reserpine is to chlorpromazine. B) cocaine is to reserpine. C) reserpine is to amphetamine. D) chlorpromazine is to reserpine. E) amphetamine is to cocaine.
A
B) cocaine is to reserpine.
20
Q
Unlike reserpine, chlorpromazine does not
A) reduce the extracellular levels of dopamine. B) increase dopamine levels. C) produce Parkinsonian side effects. D) cause dementia. E) function as a dopamine antagonist.
A
A) reduce the extracellular levels of dopamine.
21
Q
Chlorpromazine binds to dopamine receptors without activating them, and keeps dopamine from binding to them. Accordingly, chlorpromazine is classified as a
A) receptor blocker. B) dopamine agonist. C) dopamine antagonist. D) both A and B E) both A and C
A
E) both A and C
22
Q
Haloperidol is a potent
A) neuroleptic. B) D2 receptor ligand. C) antischizophrenic drug. D) all of the above E) both A and C
A
D) all of the above
23
Q
Phenothiazines bind effectively to
A) D1 receptors. B) D2 receptors. C) glutamate receptors. D) all of the above E) both A and B
A
E) both A and B
24
Q
Those phenothiazines and butyrophenones that have a great affinity for D2 receptors are potent
A) barbiturates. B) antidepressants. C) neuroleptics. D) anxiolytics. E) both B and C
A
C) neuroleptics.
25
The clinical effectiveness of typical antischizophrenic drugs is positively correlated with the degree to which they bind to
```
A) dopamine.
B) glutamate receptors.
C) D1 receptors.
D) D2 receptors.
E) autoreceptors.
```
D) D2 receptors.
26
An effective atypical antischizophrenic drug is
```
A) clozapine.
B) buspirone.
C) reserpine.
D) chlorpromazine.
E) iproniazid.
```
A) clozapine.
27
Clozapine
A) is effective against schizophrenia.
B) does not produce Parkinsonian side effects.
C) has a high affinity for D2 receptors.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
E) both A and B
28
Clozapine is
A) a typical neuroleptic.
B) an atypical neuroleptic.
C) a potent D2 blocker.
D) widely used in the treatment of depression.
E) widely used in the treatment of mania.
B) an atypical neuroleptic.
29
Introduction of the atypical neuroleptics has been beneficial because
A) they do not produce Parkinsonian side effects.
B) patients who do not respond to typical neuroleptics sometimes respond to atypical neuroleptics.
C) they bind particularly well to D2 receptors.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
E) both A and B
30
The main problem with the prescription of clozapine to treat schizophrenia is that it
A) produces a severe blood disorder in a small proportion of patients.
B) is not effective in the treatment of schizophrenia.
C) produces some of the symptoms of Parkinson’s disease.
D) is not effective in the treatment of depression.
E) is an atypical neuroleptic.
A) produces a severe blood disorder in a small proportion of patients.
31
The fact that dopamine receptor blockers take several weeks to exert their antischizophrenic effects suggests that
A) blocking dopamine receptors triggers some slow-developing change that is the critical therapeutic effect.
B) dopamine plays no role in schizophrenia.
C) antischizophrenic drugs block dopamine receptors only after several weeks.
D) dopamine receptors play no role in schizophrenia.
E) larger doses should be used.
A) blocking dopamine receptors triggers some slow-developing change that is the critical therapeutic effect.
32
Structural brain-imaging studies of schizophrenic patients typically reveal
```
A) widespread abnormalities.
B) reduced brain size.
C) abnormally large cerebral ventricles.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
```
D) all of the above
33
The brain damage that is observed in schizophrenic patients
A) is particularly severe in the dopaminergic structures of the brain.
B) is widespread.
C) does not usually become apparent for several years after the original diagnosis.
D) all of the above
E) both B and C
B) is widespread.
34
Because schizophrenia appears to be a neurodevelopmental disorder, several studies have tracked the development of brain damage in schizophrenic patients. Meta-analyses of these studies indicate that
A) extensive brain damage exists when patients first seek medical help and have their first brain scan.
B) brain damage continues to develop after the initial diagnosis.
C) damage to different areas of the brain develops at different rates.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
D) all of the above
35
In general, conventional neuroleptics tend to be more effective against
```
A) negative schizophrenic symptoms.
B) positive schizophrenic symptoms.
C) anhedonia.
D) unipolar schizophrenic disorders.
E) bipolar schizophrenic symptoms.
```
B) positive schizophrenic symptoms.
36
A major problem with the therapeutic use of neuroleptics in the treatment of schizophrenia is that they
```
A) help only a small proportion of patients.
B) tend to act on only some symptoms.
C) produce disturbing side effects.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C
```
D) all of the above
37
To be diagnosed as clinical depression (or major depressive disorder), the condition must
```
A) last more than 2 weeks.
B) not involve anhedonia.
C) be triggered by an obvious traumatic event.
D) involve a suicide attempt.
E) last less than 2 weeks.
```
A) last more than 2 weeks.
38
Many of the people who experience clinical depression also experience recurring periods of
```
A) schizophrenia.
B) Tourette syndrome.
C) mania.
D) panic.
E) epilepsy.
```
C) mania.
39
The __________ individual typically leaves behind a trail of unfinished projects, unpaid bills, and broken relationships.
```
A) schizophrenic
B) neuroleptic
C) chronically depressed
D) manic
E) catatonic
```
D) manic
40
Depression is often divided into two categories: reactive depression and __________ depression.
```
A) bipolar
B) endogenous
C) unipolar
D) acute
E) chronic
```
B) endogenous
41
Depressed patients who do not experience periods of mania are said to suffer from __________ affective disorders.
```
A) bipolar
B) reactive
C) unipolar
D) endogenous
E) seasonal
```
C) unipolar
42
About what percentage of people in Western societies suffer from clinical depression at some point in their lives?
```
A) 1%
B) 0.1%
C) 10%
D) 3%
E) 23%
```
C) 10%
43
The concordance rates for affective disorder are highest for
A) bipolar disorders and monozygotic twins.
B) bipolar disorders and dizygotic twins.
C) unipolar disorders and monozygotic twins.
D) unipolar disorders and dizygotic twins.
E) unipolar disorders and siblings.
A) bipolar disorders and monozygotic twins.
44
Evidence directly linking stress to the development of clinical depression is
```
A) abundant.
B) rapidly accumulating.
C) strong.
D) all of the above
E) sparse.
```
E) sparse.
45
In 1957, this drug became the first drug to be marketed as an antidepressant:
```
A) iproniazid.
B) imipramine.
C) reserpine.
D) clozapine.
E) lithium.
```
A) iproniazid.
46
Iproniazid is rarely prescribed for the treatment of depression because
```
A) it is ineffective.
B) of the cheese effect.
C) of the walnut effect.
D) it produces rebound mania.
E) of the peanut effect.
```
B) of the cheese effect.
47
Iproniazid, the first antidepressant,
A) was initially developed as an antischizophrenic drug.
B) is even more affective against mania.
C) usually produces dangerous drops in blood pressure.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
E) none of the above
48
MAO inhibitors are no longer used in the treatment of depression because they
A) are ineffective against depression.
B) produce dangerous decreases in respiration.
C) block MAO's ability to break down tyramine.
D) are effective only if they are taken with iproniazid.
E) both A and B
C) block MAO's ability to break down tyramine.
49
Iproniazid is to imipramine as
A) tricyclic antidepressant is to MAO inhibitor.
B) cheese is to yogurt.
C) MAO inhibitor is to tricyclic antidepressant.
D) depression is to mania.
E) mania is to depression.
C) MAO inhibitor is to tricyclic antidepressant.
50
The first tricyclic antidepressant to be marketed
A) was initially thought to be an MAO inhibitor.
B) was imipramine.
C) eventually proved to be even more effective against stroke.
D) all of the above
E) both A and C
B) was imipramine.
51
Imipramine
A) is a serotonin and norepinephrine antagonist.
B) blocks the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.
C) blocks serotonin and norepinephrine receptors.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
B) blocks the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine.
52
Imipramine is a
```
A) tricyclic antidepressant.
B) MOA inhibitor.
C) phenothiazine.
D) butyrophenone.
E) serotonin antagonist.
```
A) tricyclic antidepressant.
53
Clinically effective tricyclic antidepressants, inhibit the reuptake of
```
A) serotonin.
B) norepinephrine.
C) GABA.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
```
E) both A and B
54
Lithium salts in high doses produce
```
A) nausea.
B) schizophrenia.
C) depression.
D) the cheese effect.
E) mania.
```
A) nausea.
55
Lithium has often been used as a treatment for
```
A) unipolar affective disorder.
B) bipolar affective disorder.
C) schizophrenia.
D) cocaine psychosis.
E) nausea.
```
B) bipolar affective disorder.
56
Fluoxetine is marketed under the name
```
A) Prozac.
B) Lithium.
C) Imipramine.
D) Iproniazid.
E) Paxil.
```
A) Prozac.
57
Prozac is a slight structural variation of
```
A) tricyclic antidepressants.
B) lithium.
C) neuroleptics.
D) phenothiazines.
E) MAO inhibitors.
```
A) tricyclic antidepressants.
58
Which of the following is not a selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitor?
```
A) fluoxetine
B) Prozac
C) lithium
D) Paxil
E) Zoloft
```
C) lithium
59
Selective norepinephrine-reuptake inhibitors are used in the treatment of
```
A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) tuberculosis.
D) mania.
E) addiction.
```
B) depression.
60
Several large scale studies have compared the effectiveness of various antidepressants to placebos. These studies have found that
A) various classes of antidepressants are similarly effective.
B) antidepressants are not much better than placebos.
C) antidepressants are 70 % affective against unipolar affective disorder and 65% effective against bipolar affective disorder.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
D) both A and B
61
```
Drugs that reduce depression without increasing mania or reduce mania without increasing depression are called
A) mood stabilizers.
B) SSRIs.
C) tricyclic antidepressants.
D) MAO inhibitors.
E) monoamines
```
A) mood stabilizers.
62
Many studies have found structural and functional brain pathology in patients suffering from affective disorders. Although there is little consensus about the exact location of the brain pathology, it is most commonly observed in two structures: the
A) amygdala and anterior cingulate cortex.
B) hypothalamus and thalamus.
C) hypothalamus and hippocampus.
D) striatum and substantia nigra.
E) temporal and parietal cortex.
A) amygdala and anterior cingulate cortex.
63
The monoamine theory of depression is based on the fact that
A) depressed people have high levels of monoamine.
B) depressed people have low levels of monoamine.
C) most drugs used to treat depression are monoamine agonists.
D) most drugs used to treat depression are monoamine antagonists.
E) both A and D
C) most drugs used to treat depression are monoamine agonists.
64
When insufficient neurotransmitter is released at a synapse, there is often compensatory __________ of the receptors?
```
A) up-regulation
B) degeneration
C) regeneration
D) blockade
E) realignment
```
A) up-regulation
65
The diathesis-stress theory of depression is that depression is caused by
A) extra genes.
B) missing genes.
C) the interaction of a genetic susceptibility and stress.
D) faulty genes.
E) none of the above
C) the interaction of a genetic susceptibility and stress.
66
The diathesis-stress model is a prominent theory of
```
A) clinical depression.
B) mania.
C) autism.
D) Tourette's syndrome.
E) catatonic schizophrenia.
```
A) clinical depression.
67
Diathesis means
```
A) depression.
B) a genetic susceptibility.
C) a stressful encounter.
D) hormonal.
E) up-regulation.
```
B) a genetic susceptibility.
68
In response to stress, depressed individuals
A) synthesize more corticotropin-releasing hormone.
B) release more adrenocorticotropic hormone.
C) release more glucocorticoids.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
D) all of the above
69
Some success has been reported in treating clinical depression with chronic low-level electrical stimulation of the___________ through implanted electrodes.
```
A) anterior cingulate gyrus
B) amygdala
C) posterior thalamus
D) precentral gyrus
E) striatum
```
B) amygdala
70
Chronic fear that persists in the absence of any direct threat is known as
```
A) psychological fear.
B) anxiety.
C) panic.
D) a phobia.
E) the Selye syndrome.
```
B) anxiety.
71
When anxiety disrupts normal behavioral functioning, it is generally referred to as
```
A) fear.
B) hypertension
C) an anxiety disorder.
D) a panic disorder.
E) a phobia.
```
C) an anxiety disorder.
72
Which of the following symptoms is not commonly associated with anxiety disorders?
```
A) tachycardia
B) hypotension
C) high blood pressure
D) nausea
E) breathing difficulties
```
B) hypotension
73
Most prevalent of all psychiatric disorders are the __________ disorders.
```
A) manic
B) anxiety
C) schizophrenic
D) depressive
E) phobic
```
B) anxiety
74
A meta-analysis of 46 studies indicates that about _________ of individuals will suffer from an anxiety disorder at some point in their lives.
```
A) 50%
B) 17%
C) 10%
D) 7%
E) 33%
```
B) 17%
75
Phobic disorders, panic disorders, and obsessive compulsive disorders are all categories of
```
A) schizophrenia.
B) depression.
C) anxiety disorder.
D) mania.
E) unipolar affective disorder.
```
C) anxiety disorder.
76
Disorders characterized by extreme feelings of anxiety and severe stress responses in the absence of an apparent precipitating stimulus are classified as
```
A) generalized anxiety disorders.
B) panic attacks.
C) phobic anxiety disorders.
D) obsessive-compulsive disorders.
E) tachycardia.
```
A) generalized anxiety disorders.
77
Disorders characterized by recurring uncontrollable anxiety-producing thoughts and impulses are classified as __________ disorders.
```
A) panic
B) phobic
C) obsessive-compulsive
D) schizophrenic
E) manic-depressive
```
C) obsessive-compulsive
78
Anxiety disorders are
A) now reasonably rare.
B) the most prevalent of all psychiatric disorders.
C) often treated with benzodiazepines or serotonin agonists.
D) both A and C
E) both B and C
E) both B and C
79
Librium and Valium are
A) chlordiazepoxide and diazepam, respectively.
B) benzodiazepines.
C) commonly prescribed for the treatment of schizophrenia.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
E) both A and B
80
It has been estimated that benzodiazepines are currently being used by approximately __________ of adult North Americans.
```
A) 10%
B) 2%
C) 1%
D) 20%
E) 27%
```
A) 10%
81
Benzodiazepines
```
A) are GABAA agonists.
B) are monoamine agonists.
C) are catecholamine antagonists.
D) are monoamine antagonists.
E) bind to serotonin receptors.
```
A) are GABAA agonists.
82
```
Buspirone
A) does not bind to GABA receptors.
B) is an effective anxiolytic drug.
C) is an agonist at one serotonin receptor subtype.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
```
D) all of the above
83
Clinical depression and anxiety are comorbid disorders, which means that they
A) both increase the likelihood of suicide.
B) both increase susceptibility to terminal illness.
C) have the same effect on neurochemicals.
D) tend to occur together in the same individuals.
E) both commonly require hospitalization.
D) tend to occur together in the same individuals.
84
The elevated-plus-maze test is a commonly used model of clinical
```
A) depression.
B) anxiety.
C) mania.
D) bipolar affective disorder.
E) phobia.
```
B) anxiety.
85
Benzodiazepines have been shown to reduce indices of fear and anxiety in the
```
A) elevated-plus-maze test.
B) risk-assessment test.
C) defensive-burying test.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
```
D) all of the above
86
The following is commonly used to study anxiety in laboratory rats:
```
A) elevated-plus-maze test.
B) defensive-burying test.
C) radial-arm-maze test.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
```
E) both A and B
87
One serious shortcoming of conventional animal models of anxiety is that they
A) may be models of benzodiazepine-sensitive anxiety rather than anxiety disorders in general.
B) they work only in primates.
C) model only phobic disorders.
D) model only generalized anxiety.
E) are not sensitive to anxiolytic effects.
A) may be models of benzodiazepine-sensitive anxiety rather than anxiety disorders in general.
88
Which neurotransmitter has been most often implicated in anxiety disorders because of the effects of benzodiazepines?
```
A) GABA
B) dopamine
C) norepinephrine
D) glutamate
E) acetylcholine
```
A) GABA
89
Brain-imaging studies have consistently revealed degeneration and shrinkage of the __________ in patients with anxiety disorders.
```
A) amygdala
B) cingulate cortex
C) thalamus
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
```
E) none of the above
90
Tics are the primary symptom of
```
A) Parkinson's disease.
B) Tourette syndrome.
C) multiple sclerosis.
D) epilepsy.
E) schizophrenia.
```
B) Tourette syndrome.
91
Common verbal tics of Tourette syndrome include
```
A) echolalia.
B) coprolalia.
C) palilia.
D) barking.
E) all of the above
```
E) all of the above
92
Some patients with Tourette syndrome also display signs of
```
A) attention-deficit-hyperactivity disorder.
B) obsessive convulsive disorder.
C) auditory and visual hallucinations.
D) both A and B
E) both A and C
```
D) both A and B
93
Tourette syndrome occurs more frequently in
```
A) identical twins.
B) fraternal twins.
C) males.
D) females.
E) the elderly.
```
C) males.
94
Study of the neural mechanisms of Tourette syndrome is difficult because
A) it has not been linked to a particular gene..
B) there are no animal models.
C) the symptoms tend to subside as patients mature.
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
D) all of the above
95
In functional brain-imaging studies of Tourette patients who are suppressing their tics, abnormal activity has been consistently observed in the prefrontal cortex and
```
A) caudate.
B) cerebellum.
C) primary motor cortex.
D) association motor cortex.
E) dorsal horn.
```
A) caudate.
96
Which drugs have proven effective in the treatment of Tourette syndrome?
A) D2 receptor blockers
B) selective norepinephrine-reuptake inhibitors
C) selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors
D) tricyclic antidepressants
E) benzodiazepines
A) D2 receptor blockers
97
A recent structural MRI study of the brains of children with Tourette syndrome revealed thinning in the
```
A) sensorimotor cortex.
B) prefrontal cortex.
C) amygdala.
D) parietal cortex.
E) striatum.
```
A) sensorimotor cortex.
98
According to P.H., a medical school faculty member who suffers with Tourette syndrome, Tourette syndrome is more a disorder of the __________ than of the patient.
```
A) amygdala
B) prefrontal cortex
C) onlooker
D) brain
E) parent
```
C) onlooker
99
How many gene therapies are currently in widespread routine clinical use?
```
A) 0
B) 2
C) 8
D) over 50
E) over 100
```
A) 0
100
Research designed to translate basic scientific discoveries into clinical treatments is called
```
A) clinical research.
B) translational research.
C) neuropsychology research.
D) clinical psychology research.
E) application research.
```
B) translational research.
101
The subjects of the vast majority of clinical trials are
```
A) patients.
B) rats.
C) mice.
D) monkeys.
E) genes.
```
A) patients.
102
Clinical trials are typically conducted in __________ separate phases.
```
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
E) 10
```
B) 3
103
Determining the maximum safe dose typically occurs in the __________ phase of human clinical trials.
```
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
E) both B and C
```
A) first
104
The goal of the second of the three phases of human clinical trials is
A) the development of methods for the efficient synthesis of the drug.
B) identifying the most effective doses and schedules of treatment.
C) testing with animal models.
D) screening for the safety of humans.
E) demonstrating that the drug is clinically effective.
B) identifying the most effective doses and schedules of treatment.
105
The final phase of human clinical trials usually involves
```
A) placebo controls.
B) double-blind procedures.
C) yoked controls.
D) all of the above
E) both A and B
```
E) both A and B
106
An ideal placebo is a control drug that produces the same __________ effects as the drug that is being tested.
```
A) therapeutic
B) side
C) psychological
D) neurochemical
E) comparative
```
B) side
107
Drugs for which the market is too small for them to be profitable are called __________ drugs.
```
A) orphan
B) translational
C) noneconomic
D) petit mal
E) active
```
A) orphan
108
S.B., the biopsychology student who suffered from depression, is the ideal case with which to end Biopsychology because
A) his affective disorder was bipolar.
B) he was eventually cured.
C) he demonstrated the importance of independent thinking by researching and challenging his own prescription and by suggesting a better alternative.
D) he was able to help other students.
E) he received drug therapy for a psychological disorder.
C) he demonstrated the importance of independent thinking by researching and challenging his own prescription and by suggesting a better alternative.
109
Lena sat for hours in the middle of the floor staring into space; she was totally unresponsive and displayed waxy flexibility. She was diagnosed with stuporous __________ schizophrenia.
catatonic
110
The first antischizophrenic drug, __________, was initially developed as an antihistamine; its antischizophrenic actions were discovered accidentally in the early 1950s.
chlorpromazine
111
Haloperidol and other __________ bind effectively to D2 receptors but not to D1 receptors.
butyrophenones
112
Antischizophrenic drugs, such as clozapine, that do not have a high affinity for D2 receptors are called __________ neuroleptics.
atypical
113
Neuroleptic drugs do not work immediately. It often takes several __________ for neuroleptic therapy to start to alleviate schizophrenic symptoms.
weeks
114
There are two common classes of schizophrenic symptoms; __________ schizophrenic symptoms do not usually respond to neuroleptic therapy.
negative
115
Depressed patients who do not experience periods of __________ are said to suffer from unipolar depression.
mania
116
Depression for which there is no apparent cause is called __________ depression.
endogenous
117
The first antidepressant drug was developed for the treatment of tuberculosis. This drug, __________, was found not to be effective against tuberculosis, but it left patients with tuberculosis less depressed about their condition.
iproniazid
118
Imipramine is a __________ antidepressant.
tricyclic
119
Fluoxetine, or __________, is an SSRI.
Prozac
120
M.R., the woman who was afraid to go out, suffered from a common phobic anxiety disorder: __________.
agoraphobia
121
Obsessive-compulsive disorder and panic disorder are both considered to be __________ disorders.
anxiety
122
The agonistic effects of __________ on GABAA receptors are thought to account for the clinical effectiveness of this class of drugs on anxiety disorders.
benzodiazepines
123
The problem with the elevated-plus-maze test as a model of anxiety is that it may be a test of __________ - sensitive anxiety rather than of anxiety in general.
benzodiazepine
124
Motor and verbal __________ are the primary symptoms of Tourette syndrome.
tics
125
Involuntarily uttering obscenities is called __________, and it is a symptom of some cases of Tourette syndrome.
coprolalia
126
__________ receptor blockers are commonly used in the treatment of Tourette syndrome.
D2
127
Human clinical trials of new drugs are typically conducted in __________ different phases.
three
128
The ideal control treatments in human clinical trials are __________ placebos, placebos that produce the same side effects as those produced by the drug under investigation.
active
