chapter 18: intraoperative care Flashcards

1
Q

____ _____ _____ project focuses on improving surgical care by significantly reducing the number of complications from surgery

A

surgical care improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

_____ _____ started 30-60 mins before surgical incisions

A

prophylactic antibiotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

in the or the _____ nurse serves as the pts advocate

A

circulating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

_____ ______ ____ ______ has improved compliance with standards and reduced complications from surgery

A

WHO surgical safety checklist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

_____ position used for some types of pelvic organ surgery

A

lithotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

______ of ____ under pressure in immobile pts plays major role in the development of pressure ulcers in the OR

A

hypo perfusion of tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

general anesthesia causes peripheral blood vessels to _____

A

dilate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

general anesthesia causes what to dilate?

A

peripheral blood vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

___-_____ ________ based technology allows ACP’s to track the level of pt awareness during surgery and adjust the anesthesia as needed

A

non-invasive electroencephalogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

______ ____ is most common approach for general anesthesia

A

balanced technique

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

inhalation agents can cause:

_____
__________
increased ______

A

cough
laryngospasms
increased secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

the choice for delivering inhaled agents is through an _____ tube or ______

A

ET tube
LMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

___ ___ permits control of inhalation and protects airway from aspiration

A

ETA tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

_____ is an important option for pts with difficult airways

A

LMA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____ is a commonly used dissociative anesthetic

A

ketamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

______ anesthesia interrupts associative brain pathways while blocking sensory pathways

A

dissociative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

ketamine used in asthmatic pts undergoing surgery bc it promotes _______

A

bronchodilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

regional blocks used as _____ preop, to manage ____ ____ intraop, and postop to ___ _____

A

-analgesic
-surgical pain
-control pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

_____ anesthesia interrupts generation of nerve impulses by altering the flow of sodium into nerve cells

20
Q

some local anesthetics are mixed with ______ to provide vasoconstriction

A

epinephrine

21
Q

some local anesthetics are mixed with epinephrine to provide _______

A

vasoconstriction

22
Q

topical local anesthetic applied how long before procedure?

A

30-60 mins

23
Q

with ____ ____ anesthesia the pt has a double cuff tourniquet applied as a safety measure

A

IV regional

24
Q

2 types of regional anesthesia

A

spinal
epidural

25
pts given ____ anesthesia experience vasodilation and may become hypotensive
spinal
26
pts given spinal anesthesia experience ______ and may become _______
vasodilation hypotensive
27
______ anesthesia is an injection of local anesthesia into cerebrospinal fluid in subarachnoid space
spinal
28
an _______ is an injection of local anesthetic into the epidural space via thoracic or lumbar approach
epidural
29
observe for signs of autonomic nervous system blockade in pts given an ______
epidural
30
when a pt is given an epidural observe for signs of _____ _____ ___ blockade
autonomic nervous system
31
signs of autonomic nervous system blockade (4)
bradycardia hypotension nausea vomiting
32
onset of _____ anesthesia more rapid than _______
spinal epidural
33
older adults at greater risk for postop ______
hypothermia
34
in an epidural ______ pathways are blocked but _____ fiber still intact
sensory motor
35
initial clinical manifestations of an ________ ________may be masked by anesthesia
anaphylactic reaction
36
anaphylactic reactions cause (4)
bronchospasms tachycardia hypotension pulmonary edema
37
the altered control of intracellular calcium is seen with
malignant hyperthermia
38
_____ appears to be the primary trigger for malignant hyperthermia
succinylcholine
39
which stage of general anesthesia is this? beginning analgesia and relaxation. the client feels dizzy and detached with reduced sensation to pain. clients are sometimes sensitive to noise and stimuli
stage 1
40
which stage of general anesthesia is this? the client might feel delirious, act excited, or could be loud or crying. this stage can be bypassed if meds are given quickly enough. pupils dilate but still respond to light
stage 2
41
which stage of anesthesia can be bypassed if meds are given quickly enough?
stage 2
42
which stage of general anesthesia is this? operative or surgical anesthesia. the client has relaxed muscles and eventually loses reflexes. vital functions begin to reduce, sensation is lost, and the client cannot hear. pupils are small but reactive
stage 3
43
which stage of general anesthesia is this? dangerous levels of anesthesia. vital organ function is depressed to the point of respiratory failure and cardiac arrest. pupils are fixed and death can occur. anesthesia must be stopped immediately. the client might receive stimulant meds and narcotic agonists
stage 4
44
anticholinergics decrease the risk of bradycardia during surgery due to the _______ response to surgical manipulation
parasympathetic
45
avoid giving sedatives within 14 days of starting or stopping an _____
MAOI
46
____ _____ can cause restlessness, altered speech, blurred vision, metallic taste, tremors, and tachycardia
systemic toxicity
47
treatment for systemic toxicity
administration of rapid acting barbiturate