Chapter 2: Aircraft Systems Flashcards

1
Q

During the preflight inspection, who is responsible for determining if the aircraft is safe for flight?
A - the pilot-in-command
B - the owner or operator
C - the certified mechanic who performed the annual inspection

A

A - the pilot-in-command

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2
Q

How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?
A - Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil
B - Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer
C - any sequence as determined by thr pilot-in-command

A

B - Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer

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3
Q

Who is primarily responsible for maintaining aircraft in airworthy condition?
A - Pilot-in-command
B - Owner or operator
C - Mechanic

A

B - Owner or operator

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4
Q

The minimum allowable strength of a towline used for an aerotow of a glider having a certified gross weight of 700 pounds is
A - 560 pounds
B - 700 pounds
C - 1,000 pounds

A

A - 560 pounds

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5
Q

The minimum allowable strength of a towline used for an aerotow of a glider having a certified gross weight of 1,040 pounds is
A - 502 pounds
B - 832 pounds
C - 1,040 pounds

A

B - 832 pounds

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6
Q

When using a towline having a breaking strength more than twice the maximum certified operating weight of the glider, an approved safety link must be installed at what point(s)?
A - only the point where the towline is attached to the glider
B - the point where the towline is attached to the glider and the point of attachment of the towline to the towplane
C - only the point where the towline is attached to the towplane

A

B - the point where the towline is attached to the glider and the point of attachment of the towline to the towplane

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7
Q

For the aerotow of a glider that weighs 700 pounds, which towrope tensile strength would require the use of safety links at each end of the rope?
A - 850 pounds
B - 1,040 pounds
C - 1,450 pounds

A

C - 1,450 pounds

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8
Q

What force provides the forward motion necessary to move a glider through the air?
A - lift
B - centripetal force
C - gravity

A

C - gravity

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9
Q

To obtain maximum distance over the ground, the airspeed to use is the
A - minimum control speed
B - best lift/drag speed
C - minimum sink speed

A

B - best lift/drag speed

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10
Q

What effect would gusts and turbulence have on the load factor of a glider with changes in airspeed?
A - load factor decreases as airspeed increases
B - load factor increases as airspeed increases
C - load factor increases as airspeed decreases

A

B - load factor increases as airspeed increases

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11
Q

A sail plane has a best glide ratio of 23:1. How many feet will the glider lose in 8 nautical miles?
A - 1,840 feet
B - 2,100 feet
C - 2,750 feet

A

B - 2,100 feet

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12
Q

A sailplane has a best glide ratio of 30:1. How many nautical miles will the glider travel while losing 2,000 feet?
A - 10 nautical miles
B - 15 nautical miles
C - 21 nautical miles

A

A - 10 nautical miles

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13
Q

A sailplane has lost 2,000 ft in 9 nautical miles. The best glide ratio for the sailplane is approximately
A - 24:1
B - 27:1
C - 30:1

A

B- 27:1

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14
Q

How many feet will a sailplane sink in 15 nautical miles if it’s lift/drag ratio is 22:1?
A - 2,700
B - 3,600
C - 4,100

A

C - 4,100 feet

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15
Q

How many feet will a glider sink in 10 nautical miles if its lift/drag ratio is 23:1?
A - 2,400
B - 2,600
C - 4,300

A

B - 2,600 feet

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16
Q

What minimum upward current must a glider encounter to maintain altitude?
A - at least two feet per second
B - the same as the glider’s sink rate
C - the same as the adjacent down currents

A

A - at least two feet per second

17
Q

On which side of a rocky knoll that is surrounded by vegetation should a pilot find the best thermals?
A - on the side facing the sun
B - on the downwind side
C - exactly over the center

A

A - on the side facing the sun

18
Q

What is one recommended method for locating thermals?
A - fly an ever-increasing circular path
B - maintain a straight track downwind
C - look for converging streamers of dust or smoke

A

C - look for converging streamers of dust or smoke

19
Q

What is a recommended procedure for entering a dust devil for soaring?
A - enter above 500 ft and circle the edge in the same direction as the rotation
B - enter below 500 ft and circle the edge opposite the direction of rotation
C - enter at or above 500 ft and circle the edge opposite the direction of rotation

A

C - enter at or above 500 ft and circle the edge opposite the direction of rotation

20
Q

What is an important precaution when soaring in a dust devil?
A - avoid the eye of the vortex
B - avoid the clear area at the outside edge of the dust
C - maintain the same direction as the rotation of the vortex

A

A - avoid the eye of the vortex

21
Q

What is the best visual indication of a thermal?
A - fragmented cumulus clouds with concave bases
B - smooth cumulus clouds with concave bases
C - scattered to broken sky with cumulus clouds

A

B - smooth cumulus clouds with concave bases

22
Q

How can a pilot locate bubble thermals?
A - look for what areas where recent showers have occurred
B - look for birds that are soaring in areas of intermittent heating
C - fly the area just above the boundary of a temperature inversion

A

B - look for birds that are soaring in areas of intermittent heating

23
Q

Where may the most favorable type thermals for cross country soaring be found?
A - just ahead of a warm front
B - along thermal streets
C - undermountain waves

A

B - along thermal streets

24
Q

Where and under what condition can enough lift be found for soaring when the weather is generally stable?
A - on the upwind side of hills or ridges with moderate winds present
B - in mountain waves that form on the upwind side of the mountains
C - over isolated peaks when strong winds are present

A

A - on the upwind side of hills or ridges with moderate winds present

25
Q

Which is an advantage of using a CG hook for a winch toe rather than the nose hook?
A - a greater percent of the line length can be used to reach altitude
B - maximum release altitude is limited
C - it is the safest method of launching

A

A - a greater percent of the line length can be used to reach altitude

26
Q

To stop pitch oscillation (porpoising) during a winch launch, the pilot should
A - release back pressure and then pull back against the cycle of pitching oscillation to get in phase with the undulations
B - signal the ground crew to increase the speed of the tow
C - relax the back pressure on the control stick and shallow the angle of climb

A

C - relax the back pressure on the control stick and shallow the angle of climb

27
Q

What corrective action should the sailplane pilot take during takeoff if the towplane is still on the ground and the sailplane is airborne and drifting to the left?
A - crab into the wind by holding upwind (right) rudder pressure
B - crab into the wind so as to maintain a position directly behind the towplane
C - establish a right wing low drift correction to remain in the flight path of the towplane

A

B - crab into the wind so as to maintain a position directly behind the towplane

28
Q

An indication at the glider has begun a turn too soon on aerotow is that the
A - gliders nose is pulled to the outside of the turn
B - towplane’s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn
C - towplane will pick up

A

B - towplane’s nose is pulled to the outside of the turn

29
Q

The sailplane has become airborne and the towplane loses power before leaving the ground. The sailplane should release immediately,
A - and maneuver to the right of the runway
B - extend the spoilers, and land straight ahead
C - and maneuver to the left of the towplane

A

A - and maneuver to the right of the runway

30
Q

What should a glider pilot do if a towline breaks below 200 ft AGL?
A - turn into the wind, then back to the runway for a downwind landing
B - turn away from the wind, then back to the runway for a downwind landing
C - land straight ahead or make slight turns to reach a suitable landing area

A

C - land straight ahead or make slight turns to reach a suitable landing area

31
Q

A pilot unintentionally enters a steep diving spiral to the left. What is the proper way to recover from this attitude without overstressing the glider?
A - apply up-elevator pressure to raise the nose
B - apply more up-elevator pressure and then use right aileron pressure to control the over-banking tendency
C - relax the back pressure and shallow the bank; then apply up-elevator pressure until the nose has been raised to the desired position

A

C - relax the back pressure and shallow the bank; then apply up-elevator pressure until the nose has been raised to the desired position

32
Q

What corrective action should be taken if, while thermaling at minimum sync speed and turbulent air, the left wing drops while turning to the left?
A - apply more opposite (right) aileron pressure than opposite (right) rudder pressure to counteract the over banking tendency
B - apply opposite (right) rudder pressure to slow the rate of turn
C - lower the nose before applying opposite (right) aileron pressure

A

C - lower the nose before applying opposite (right) aileron pressure

33
Q

A sailplane pilot can differentiate between a spin and a spiral dive because in a spiral dive,
A - the speed remains constant
B - the G loads increase
C - there is a small loss of altitude in each rotation

A

B - the G loads increase

34
Q

How are forward slips normally performed?
A - with the direction of slip away from any crosswind that exists
B - with dive breaks or spoilers fully open
C - with rudder and aileron deflection on the same side

A

B - with dive breaks or spoilers fully open

35
Q

What would be a proper action or procedure to use if the pilot is getting too low on a cross-country flight in a sale plane?
A - continue on course until the ending to 1,000 ft above the ground and then plan the landing approach
B - fly directly into the wind and make a straight-in approach at the end of the glide
C - have a suitable landing area selected upon reaching 2,000 ft AGL, and a specific field chosen upon reaching 1500 ft AGL

A

C - have a suitable landing area selected upon reaching 2,000 ft AGL, and a specific field chosen upon reaching 1500 ft AGL