Chapter 2 Domain 2: Cloud Data Security (Ben Malisow) Flashcards

Question

According to the (ISC)2 Cloud Secure Data Lifecycle, which phase comes immediately before the Share phase? A. Create B. Destroy C. Use D. Encrypt

Answer 1

C. Use Explanation: The Cloud Secure Data Lifecycle phases are, in order, Create, Store, Use, Share, Archive, Destroy (a good mnemonic might be CSU-SAD). Options B and D are phases of CSU-SAD but do not immediately follow Create. Option C is not a phase of CSU-SAD.

Answer 2

D. It’s not actually a cycle. Explanation: The Cloud Secure Data Lifecycle phases are, in order, Create, Store, Use, Share, Archive, Destroy (a good mnemonic might be CSU-SAD). This is not truly a cycle because data does not continue after the destroy phase (that is to say, the same data or process does not go back to create after destroy). Option A might be considered true because the CSU-SAD cycle is not unique to (ISC)2, but this is not the best answer; option D is preferable because it is not truly a cycle. Options B and C are incorrect because activity in each of the phases involves security aspects and all phases relate to how data is involved in the cloud.

Answer 3

A. Create Explanation: The Cloud Secure Data Lifecycle phases are, in order, Create, Store, Use, Share, Archive, Destroy (a good mnemonic might be CSU-SAD). The best practice for categorizing/classifying data is to do so when it is first created/collected so that the proper security controls can be applied to it throughout the rest of the cycle. Options B and D are phases of the CSU-SAD but are not the proper times to be applying classification/categorization; that would be too late in the cycle. Option C is not a phase of CSU-SAD.

Answer 4

B. Crypto-shredding Explanation: The Cloud Secure Data Lifecycle phases are, in order, Create, Store, Use, Share, Archive, Destroy (a good mnemonic might be CSU-SAD). Crypto-shredding (also called cryptographic erasure) is the preferred method of data sanitization for a cloud environment; this should take place in the final phase of the cycle, destroy. Option A is incorrect because data dispersion is a means of making data more resilient and secure; in the final phase of the cycle, we want to get rid of the data, not make it resistant to loss. Option C is incorrect because cryptoparsing is a made-up term and used here as a distractor. Option D is incorrect because cryptosporidium is a microorganism and is not associated with InfoSec.

Answer 5

D. The fifth Explanation: The Cloud Secure Data Lifecycle phases are, in order, Create, Store, Use, Share, Archive, Destroy (a good mnemonic might be CSU-SAD). Archiving (the fifth phase) is the process of moving data out of the production environment and into long-term storage. The other phases in the options are create, store, and share and are therefore incorrect.

Answer 6

D .Object storage Explanation: Object storage stores data as objects (hence the name), often arranged in a hierarchical structure. Volume storage is not a hierarchal cloud storage structure and is therefore an incorrect answer for this question. Option B is incorrect because databases are applications in both traditional and cloud computing. A CDN is a geographically distributed network of proxy servers and their data centers. Option C is incorrect because it is not a form of cloud storage.

Answer 7

A. Volume storage Explanation: In volume storage, the user is assigned a logical drive space into which anything (such as raw data, objects, or applications) may be saved or installed, similar to a mounted drive on a traditional network. Databases store data in an arrangement of characteristics and values, not in an unstructured drive space, so option B is incorrect. CDNs are for distributing data with less chance of quality loss, so option C is incorrect. Object storage arranges data as objects in a structured hierarchy, so option D is incorrect.

Answer 8

C. Content delivery network (CDN) Explanation: CDNs are often used to place large stores of multimedia data in a location geographically near to the end users who will consume that data; this approach is designed mostly to accomplish a reduction in data degradation due to distance between resource and user. Volume storage assigns a logical, unstructured drive space to the user, so option A is incorrect. Databases store data in an arrangement of characteristics and values, so option B is incorrect. Neutral storage is not a form of cloud storage, so option D is incorrect.

Answer 9

B. Database Explanation: The PaaS model allows the cloud customer to install and run applications in the cloud environment. With a database, the cloud customer can store data in a database administered by the cloud provider but can then tailor applications and services for reaching into and manipulating that database. Ephemeral and long-term storage take place in the software as a service (SaaS) model, and there is no such thing as “nefarious data storage,” so the other options are incorrect.

Answer 10

B. Data dispersion Explanation: Data dispersion is the cloud version of using RAID arrays, protecting data by spreading it across multiple volumes/devices. Options A and C are terms that have no meaning in this context. Crypto-shredding is a form of device/media sanitization utilizing cryptography and has nothing to do with RAID, so option D is incorrect.

Answer 11

C. Parity bits Explanation: Similar to parity bits in RAID, erasure coding is used in cloud data dispersion implementations to create a situation where data can still be recovered even if a segment or portion of the dispersed data is lost (due to drive failure, disaster, etc.). Options A and B have no meaning in this context. Transposition is a cryptographic technique and does not relate to RAID in any way, so option D is also incorrect.

Answer 12

A. Sensitive data that may leave the organization’s control Explanation: DLP, also referred to as egress monitoring, is used to detect and prevent sensitive data from leaving the organization’s control without proper approval. Because it is designed to prevent the egress of only certain data sets, options B and C are not correct. Controlling data outside the reach of the organization is difficult at best. While there are some mechanisms that might accomplish this, DLP is not specifically designed for that purpose, so option D is incorrect.

Answer 13

D. Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) conversations Explanation: Commercial DLP products that monitor speech in real time and censor conversations are not yet widely available. A proper DLP solution will monitor all the technologies in the other options, so those are incorrect.

Answer 14

B. Inference Explanation: Inference is an attack technique that derives sensitive material from an aggregation of innocuous data; DLP tools, thus far, do not have this capability. All the other techniques listed may be used by DLP solutions to detect sensitive data before it leaves the control of the owner.

Answer 15

C. If it’s software-based and your production environment is in a platform as a service (PaaS) model Explanation: A cloud customer can install applications on a PaaS environment, usually as they see fit and without prior coordination with the provider. If you are introducing hardware into the cloud environment, you will need permission from your cloud provider, regardless of the deployment model you use. Therefore, option A is incorrect (and unlikely to occur, as permission is probably not going to be granted). Although the provider may offer an egress monitoring function as an add-on service, which would be permissible for you to use, the use of an outside vendor’s product may have to be reviewed by the provider before implementation, based on a number of other variables (such as the other possible answers). Option C is preferable, so option B is incorrect. Affecting all images on a host may impact other customers in a multitenant environment, so option D is not the correct answer.

Answer 16

B. The production impact it will have on the environment Explanation: All security functions come with an attendant negative productivity effect: the most secure environment will be the least productive, and the most productive will be the least secure. Egress monitoring tools will have an overhead cost in terms of production impact and loss of efficiency and speed. This may affect the cost savings that were realized in a cloud migration from the legacy environment, and senior management needs to understand this trade-off. Implementing an egress monitoring solution should not incur any additional risks of external attack, so option A is incorrect. Because the tool has already been purchased, explaining the purchase price is irrelevant at this point, so option C is incorrect. If it was germane (and it was likely not), you should have explained how the tool works before purchasing it; explaining at this point might be interesting but is not as important as option B, so option D is incorrect.

Answer 17

A. Survey your company’s departments about the data under their control. Explanation: In order to “train” the egress monitoring solution properly, you’ll need to inform it as to which data in your organization is sensitive…and, in order to do that, you’ll need to determine what information your data owners deem sensitive; a survey is a way to do that. A proper egress monitoring solution should not affect or be affected by the firewalls, routers, or hypervisors, so options B, C, and D are incorrect.

Answer 18

B. A series of false-positive indications Explanation: It will take a while for the tool to “learn” the particulars of your environment and to be conditioned properly. A significant number of false-positive indications will be expected in the near term, until you can hone the responses to properly meet your organization’s needs. The tool will not work optimally immediately upon implementation, so option A is incorrect. Egress monitoring tools do not affect morale or revenues, so options C and D are incorrect.

Answer 19

B. Sensitive data captured by screenshots Explanation: It’s unlikely that any egress monitoring tools will be able to detect sensitive data captured, stored, and/or sent as graphic image files, which is the usual form of screenshots. A proper egress monitoring tool should be able to detect all the other types of activity, so the other options are incorrect.

Answer 20

A. Getting signed user agreements from all users Explanation: This is a tricky question. In the cloud environment, we know that all users will be entering the environment through remote access; in many cases, this will include the use of their personal devices. In order for egress monitoring solutions to function properly, all devices accessing the production environment must have local agents installed, and that requires signed user agreements. It would be unnecessary (and intrusive, and cumbersome) to install agents on all assets in the cloud data center, which includes not only your organization’s assets but also those of all the other cloud tenants in that data center. This might even be illegal. Option B is incorrect. Assuming you could install (or even know) all the routers between your users and the cloud data center is ridiculous; option C is incorrect. Getting your customer to install an egress monitoring client would be nice, in theory…but also pointless. Your customers don’t work for you; they are outside your organization. Egress monitoring tools are used to prevent sensitive data from leaving your environment; by the time it has reached a customer, sensitive information is far outside your control and the egress monitoring tool would be of no use. Option D is therefore incorrect.

Answer 21

A. Digital rights management (DRM) and security event and incident management (SIEM) tools Explanation: Egress monitoring tools combined with DRM and SIEM enhance the security value of each because you create in-depth/layered defense. Project management software does not really have anything to do with security, so option B is incorrect. Insurance is a risk transfer mechanism and does not aid in risk mitigation efforts; egress monitoring is for risk mitigation, so option C is incorrect. The Tier certification program is for the cloud provider and is not used by the cloud customer, so option D is incorrect.

Answer 22

C. Query the user as to whether they intend to send sensitive data upon detection of an attempted transfer Explanation: These are all possible settings for a modern egress monitoring solution. However, the best option, in light of the question, is to query the user as to their intent; this aids the user in understanding and knowing when sensitive data might be leaving the organization accidentally, through a mistake on the user’s part. The other options are more severe and restrictive; these will enhance security but reduce productivity and are management and technological controls instead of awareness tools, so they are incorrect answers for this question.

Answer 23

B. The cloud environment will include redundant and resilient architecture Explanation: The fact that cloud data centers are designed with multiple redundancies of all systems and components won’t really have any bearing on your decision and implementation of your egress monitoring solution. Because data will move across nodes in the data center and will take different forms (such as live data in a virtualized instance or snapshotted data saved in a file store when a virtual machine is not being used at a specific moment), you will have to determine how the tool will function in that environment, and whether it was designed for cloud usage. Option A is incorrect. Option C is true for any environment, not just the cloud; all security functions necessarily negatively impact operations and production. Option B is a better answer. Option D is also correct; without administrative privileges to the underlying hardware (which customers should not have), the customer may not be able to install monitoring agents everywhere necessary for those tools to work properly.

Answer 24

A. Access control Explanation: Egress monitoring solutions do not facilitate access control efforts in any way. Egress monitoring tools do, however, provide all the functions listed in the other options, so those are incorrect.

Answer 25

D. Data of relief Explanation: The term data of relief doesn’t really mean anything and is therefore the correct answer for this question. Encryption is used in all other aspects of cloud data.

Answer 26

A. The user Explanation: The user is not really an aspect of an encryption deployment, although it may be argued that the user will need to refrain from disclosing their own key(s) to anyone else. The other three options are the components of an encryption deployment.

Answer 27

B. Disgruntled users Explanation: An authorized user will still be able to access and decrypt the data for which they’ve been granted permissions, so encryption will not offer any protections for that threat. Volume storage encryption will, however, protect against all the other threats, because any outsider (that is, a person who does not have access to the volume operating system) will be able to steal only encrypted data, which they should not be able to decrypt in a timely fashion. Therefore, all the other options are incorrect.

Answer 28

D .Transport Layer Security (TLS) Explanation: TLS is encryption used in a communication session, not a storage volume. All the other options are examples of object storage encryption options, so they are incorrect.

Answer 29

B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) Explanation: SSL is encryption used in a communication session, not a storage volume. All the other options are examples of database encryption options, so they are incorrect.

Answer 30

A. In the application accessing the database Explanation: The application contains the encryption engine used in application-level encryption. The operating system is responsible for providing the resources an application needs and for running the applications. The operating system does not do application-level encryption, so option B is incorrect. Option C is incorrect because application-level encryption is performed by the application that interfaces with the database. The application-level encryption engine may or may not reside in the same volume as the database engine, so option D is incorrect.

Answer 31

B. Transparent encryption Explanation: Encrypting specific tables within the database is one of the options of transparent encryption; this is not true of the other options, so they are incorrect.

Answer 32

C. Application-level encryption Explanation: Application-level encryption involves encrypting the data before it enters the fields of the database; it is much more difficult to search and review data that has been encrypted, so this reduces the functionality of the database. All the other options are incorrect because they are not database encryption techniques.

Answer 33

D. Anywhere but with the cloud provider Explanation: Best practice is to not keep the encryption keys alongside the data they’ve been used to encrypt. Options A and B are both viable but not as good as option D, which is more general and includes them both. Option C is clearly incorrect because it is counter to the best practice advice offered by (ISC)2

Answer 34

C. Average media longevity Explanation: Data retention periods should be established in policy regardless of the projected lifetime of the media the data resides on. All the other options do/should influence data retention periods.

Answer 35

A. External hacking detection Explanation: Event monitoring tools can help detect external hacking efforts by tracking and reporting on common hack-related activity, such as repeated failed login attempts and scanning. It is unlikely that these tools could predict physical device theft; they could, of course, report on a device that is no longer connected to the environment after it has been removed by noting a lack of event activity, but that’s not quite the same thing. Event monitoring tools don’t aid in data classification/categorization; egress monitoring and digital rights management tools might provide that function, though. Social engineering attacks are mostly transparent to the majority of logical tools (the exception being social engineering efforts combined with IT traffic, such as phishing, which might be detected by email filters and sophisticated firewalls).

Answer 36

B. Predicting system outages Explanation: Event monitoring tools can be used to predict system outages by noting decreases in performance; repeated performance issues can be an indicator a device is failing. While an event monitoring tool might be able to detect a user who continually conducts unproductive activity or fails to complete certain functions, it is impossible to determine if the source of the problem is lack of training. These tools in no way serve to detect conflict of interest or enforce mandatory vacation, which are managerial/administrative controls.

Answer 37

C. Optimizing performance Explanation: Event monitoring tools can detect repeated performance issues, which can be used by administrators and architects to enhance performance/productivity. These tools don’t aid in the managerial function of noting individual workload, nor do they reduce log file sizes (indeed, they might add to the size of log files) or have anything to do with lighting.

Answer 38

A. Detecting ambient heating, ventilation, and air-conditioning (HVAC) problems Explanation: Event monitoring tools can detect repeated performance issues, which can be indicative of improper temperature settings in the data center; also, some system monitoring metrics, such as CPU temperature, can directly indicate inadequate HVAC performance. These tools do not aid in cloud migration (which is the task of architects and administrators) nor in risk decisions (which is the task of senior management); they also don’t provide any kind of assistance with fire.

Answer 39

C. Incident evidence Explanation: Event logs are used to reconstruct a narrative of activity; they tell the story of what happened, how it happened, and so forth. This is crucial for evidentiary purposes. Event logging tools do not aid in any of the other options (especially acoustic dampening, which is gibberish in this context).

Answer 40

D. More logs can be reviewed, at faster speeds Explanation: The manual element of log review is tedious and necessarily slow because it requires a trained, knowledgeable person to perform the task; these tools can greatly increase the amount of log data that can be reviewed, in a much shorter amount of time. These tools do not, however, aid in any of the other options.

Answer 41

B. Public keys should never be shared with anyone. Explanation: Public keys have to be shared in order for asymmetric cryptography to function properly; that is their purpose. Private keys, on the other hand, must remain secret, known only to the individuals to whom they are assigned. Seeding key generation processes with pseudorandom numbers makes decryption that much more difficult and is a desired practice, so option A is incorrect. Losing keys to encrypted data means that the data stays encrypted, which is a way of applying a denial-of-service attack on yourself, so option C is incorrect. Symmetric keys, known as shared secrets, ought to be transmitted to recipients over a different medium than the mode of communication intended for the encrypted traffic. If the users intend to use encrypted email, for instance, they should pass the keys via telephone. Option D is therefore incorrect.

Answer 42

B. The customer service department should get only a masked version of the customer’s Social Security (SS) number. Explanation: The customer service representative may need to see a partial version of the customer’s SS number to verify that the customer is who they claim to be, but that representative does not need to see the full number, which would create an unnecessary risk. The shipping department definitely needs the customer’s address in order to send things to the customer, so option A is not correct. The billing department needs the customer’s full credit card number to process payments, so option C is incorrect. HR needs the employee’s full license number in order to verify and validate the employee’s identity, so option D is not correct.

Answer 43

D. Conflation Explanation: Conflation is not a masking technique and is meaningless in this context. All the others are suggested as possible masking techniques.

Answer 44

C. Deletion Explanation: While deletion is a very good way to avoid the possibility of inadvertently disclosing production data in a test environment, it also eliminates the usefulness of the data set as a plausible approximation of the production environment, greatly reducing the quality of the testing. The other options modify the raw production data into something that approximates the real environment without disclosing real data, to a greater or lesser extent; some are better than the others, but they are all better than deletion for testing purposes.

Answer 45

A. Creating a test environment for a new application Explanation: Static masking involves modification of an entire data set, all at once. This would be a good method to create a sample data set for testing purposes. Static testing for customer service use would be overkill; replicating all the customer accounts at once so that the fraction of customers who contact customer service may receive assistance is inefficient and cumbersome, and customer account information is likely to change between static updates, making it less useful. Therefore, option B is incorrect. Neither regulators nor shareholders need to see masked data, so both options C and D are incorrect.

Answer 46

B. Allowing a customer service representative limited access to account data Explanation: Dynamically masking a user’s account information each time a customer service representative accesses that data is an efficient, secure means of masking data as necessary. Trying to mask each data element as it is called by an application in a test environment would be unwieldy and not likely to provide accurate test data, so option A is incorrect. Neither incident response nor BC/DR purposes need masked data, so both options C and D are incorrect.

Answer 47

C. Algorithms are two-way operations. Explanation: Using an algorithm to mask data suggests that the same algorithm, if learned or reverse-engineered by an aggressor, could be used on the masked data to reveal the production data. Algorithmic masking causes no more risk to production data than the other masking methods, so option A is incorrect. Accidental disclosure might be interpreted as the same thing as determining the original data from the masked set, so option B might be considered accurate, but option C is a better way of stating the risk, so B is incorrect. Option D is about the use of the deletion technique for masking, not algorithmic, so it is incorrect. This is not an easy question, and it involves some abstract thought to arrive at the correct answer.

Answer 48

B. User’s name; user’s age Explanation: The user’s name is a direct identifier, explicitly stating who that person is. The user’s age is not a direct identifier because it doesn’t specify a certain person, but it is a piece of demographic information that could be used to narrow down the user’s identity from a group of users of different ages, so it is an indirect identifier. Username and password are identity assertions and authentication credentials, not identifiers. The username might be a direct identifier, but the password is neither a direct nor an indirect identifier (especially if it is kept secret, as it should be). Option A is thus incorrect. Option C is incorrect because both elements could be considered direct identifiers (depending on the jurisdiction) if the user’s machine is considered a legal representation of the user. Option D is incorrect because both elements are indirect identifiers.

Answer 49

D. Identifying information Explanation: Anonymization is the process of removing identifiers from data sets so that data analysis tools and techniques cannot be used by malicious entities to divine personal or sensitive data from nonsensitive aggregated data sets. All the other answers are incorrect because they are not part of the anonymization process.

Answer 50

B. Payment Card Industry (PCI) Explanation: PCI requires that credit card numbers and other cardholder data be obscured when stored for any length of time. Encryption is one approved method; tokenization is another. GLBA, COPA, and SOX do not specifically require obscuring stored data, so those options are incorrect.

Answer 51

B. Two Explanation: Tokenization will require, at a minimum, a database for the tokens and another for the stored sensitive data. One database will not suffice; a single database holding both the tokens and the sensitive data they represent would not be in compliance with any standard requiring data to be obscured. Option A is thus incorrect. Option C might be an answer some readers choose; it is easy to overthink this question. You might consider that the data requires two databases (one for tokens, one for sensitive data), and that access control would require a third database (for authentication credentials); however, the tokenization methodology does not strictly require that access be controlled through an authentication server. Option C is therefore incorrect. Be sure not to read more into the question than appears at face value. Option D is incorrect; that’s just too many databases.

Answer 52

B. Inference Explanation: Inference is an attack strategy, not a reason for implementing tokenization. All the other options are good reasons to implement tokenization, and they are therefore not correct.

Answer 53

A. RAID Explanation: In the traditional environment, a RAID array is a set of disks/drives on which data  is spread to enhance the availability, security, and resiliency of the data. In the cloud,  bit-splitting/data dispersion performs this same function in much the same way. All the other options have nothing to do with spreading data across multiple storage areas.

Answer 54

B. Ensuring that an unauthorized user only gets a useless fragment of data Explanation:" Bit-splitting involves chopping data sets up into segments and storing those segments in multiple places/devices. An attacker getting access to one segment won’t be gaining anything of value because one segment of the data set would most likely make no sense out of context. Bit-splitting may or may not function as an access control method; option B is preferable to A. Bit-splitting may or may not move data across jurisdictions, which may or may not be useful to the data owner; option B is preferable to C. Bit-splitting does not, in itself, provide access logs; option D is incorrect.

Answer 55

A. By making seizure of data by law enforcement more difficult Explanation: When law enforcement entities wish to seize assets (including data), they must cooperate with other law enforcement agencies in other jurisdictions if the data is not contained fully within their own. This may aid a data owner who is concerned about the risk of losing their data in a multitenant environment if another tenant conducts illicit activity and law enforcement seizes an entire data storage device as part of an investigation, accidentally collecting data belonging to innocent parties. Attackers are jurisdiction-agnostic; they don’t care where data is stored or what laws apply. Option B is thus incorrect. Authorized users can access bit-split data regardless of the location and can disclose information worldwide; option C is incorrect. Bit-splitting does not pertain to types of access roles; option D is incorrect.

Answer 56

C. Significantly greater processing overhead Explanation: Bit-splitting, as with many security methods/technologies, carries a significantly greater overhead than data sets that don’t use this method. Bit-splitting, in particular, takes an extensive amount of processing to perform. Bit-splitting should make a data set more secure and decrease the chance of unauthorized access, so options A and B are incorrect. It is unlikely that bit-splitting would violate regulatory standards; even if that were to be the case, it is always true that bit-splitting carries greater overhead, so option C is preferable to D.

Answer 57

A. It may require trust in additional third parties beyond the primary cloud service provider. Explanation: This is not a simple question and requires the reader to think through the situation suggested by each answer. Option A is correct because the data owner may opt to perform bit-splitting across multiple cloud services to enhance security (not all the “eggs” will be in one “basket”). When this is the case, the data owner will have additional dependencies: all the vendors involved in storing the various data elements. There should be no additional management concern; if bit-splitting is not compliant with the data owner’s policy, it won’t be adopted. Option B is incorrect. Bit-splitting implementations should be transparent to users; option C is incorrect. There are plenty of vendors offering bit-splitting solutions; option D is incorrect.,

Answer 58

C. Some risk to availability, depending on the implementation Explanation: Ironically, data dispersion can lead to some additional risk of loss of availability, depending on the method/breadth of the dispersion. If the data is spread across multiple cloud providers, there is a possibility that an outage at one provider will make the data set unavailable to users, regardless of location. However, there are methods for attenuating this threat, and bit-splitting usually provides greater availability of data over traditional storage without dispersion. Data dispersion should have no effect on physical theft risks and would actually serve to minimize the opportunity for an attacker to acquire useful sensitive data as the data would be on several geographically disparate devices. Option A is incorrect. Bit-splitting should have no effect on public image whatsoever; option B is incorrect. Bit-splitting does not have an attendant fire risk; option D is incorrect.

Answer 59

B. Homomorphic encryption Explanation: This is the definition of homomorphic encryption. All the other answers are incorrect.

Answer 60

B. Real-time analytics Explanation: Real-time analytics allows for reactive and predictive operations (such as recommending other, related products) based on customers’ current and past shopping behavior. All the other answers are data discovery approaches but not used for this particular application (options C and D are two names for the same thing).

Answer 61

D. Agile analytics/business intelligence Explanation: The Agile approach to data analysis offers greater insight and capabilities than previous generations of analytical technologies. Options B and C are other data discovery technologies, but neither is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because obverse polyglotism is just a made up term that does not have any relevance as an answer to the question.

Answer 62

D. Data hover Explanation: Data hover is a made up term which is not a data discovery technique. All the other answers are actual data discovery techniques.

Answer 63

A. Metadata Explanation: This is the definition of metadata: data about data, usually created by systems (hardware and/or software) when the data is captured/collected. Options B and C are also data discovery techniques, but not involving metadata. Data hover is a made up term and is therefore, not a data discovery technique, so option D is incorrect.

Answer 64

C. Data owners Explanation: The data owners, presumably the personnel closest to and most familiar with the data, should be the ones labeling it. The other answers are incorrect because they are not the data owners.

Answer 65

C. At collection/creation Explanation: For the most efficient classification/categorization process, and to streamline the application of proper controls, data labeling should be performed when the data is first being collected/created. Options A and B are incorrect because they are not part of a data labeling process. Option D is incorrect because the discovery tools need to have the data labeled to work properly.

Answer 66

A. Egress monitoring solutions Explanation: Egress monitoring tools (often referred to as DLP) are specifically designed to seek out and identify data sets based on content; this is part of how they operate. They can be used for or in conjunction with content-based data discovery efforts. Digital rights management (DRM) is an additional access control solution for objects, so option B is incorrect. Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) allows storage controller commands to be sent over a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) network and has nothing to do with data discovery; thus, option C is incorrect. Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is a standard for approaching fiber-media speeds of data transfer on an Ethernet network; it has nothing to do with data discovery, so option D is incorrect.

Answer 67

D. Inheritance Explanation: Inheritance has nothing to do with content analysis; it is usually referring to object-oriented traits derived from originating objects. All the other answers are characteristics of content that can be used in content-analysis methods of data discovery.

Answer 68

B. Flawed management decisions based on edited displays Explanation: Because dashboards are often used for management purposes (graphical representations of technical data), management pressures often result in skewed data dashboarding (“no red!”), which can lead to the “data” being used for fallacious decisions. All the other answers are not affected by dashboarding at all and are incorrect.

Answer 69

D. Inaccurate or incomplete data Explanation: A data discovery effort can only be as effective as the veracity and quality of the data it addresses. Bad data will result in ineffective data discovery. All the other answers do not impact data discovery efforts and are only distractors. (Poor bandwidth might slow down data discovery, but it won’t have true negative impact, so option D is still better.)

Answer 70

C. Assigning labels Explanation: Label assignment is a task of the data owner—the cloud customer, not the provider. All the other answers are requirements for the cloud provider to meet the data discovery needs of the customer and should be negotiated before migration.

Answer 71

D. The managed services contract and SLA Explanation: The cloud customer will have to determine which levels of performance/responsibilities on the part of the provider will be necessary to meet the customer’s needs for data discovery. These should be codified in the contract/service-level agreement (SLA). The other answers are general regulations and standards; they will not contain specific guidance for every customer’s needs and are only distractors.

Answer 72

D. The cloud customer Explanation: This is a difficult question and requires insight on the practice of classifying data and a good understanding of the material. While the determination of what sorts of data need to be protected may come from external sources (laws, standards, regulations, etc.), the classification of data for each data owner/cloud customer will be specific to that entity. Therefore, the cloud customer will have to impose data classification schema on itself and its own data. The other answers represent external entities, some of whom might require that certain information be handled with a certain duty or care (such as Payment Card Industry [PCI] mandates for cardholder information). However, these entities will not impose a classification scheme on the data owner or cloud customer; that responsibility falls on the data owner or cloud customer to do for itself and the data under its control.

Answer 73

D. Whatever the data owner decides Explanation: This is a difficult, and somewhat tricky, question. Each organization has to decide, for itself, how to classify its own data. With that said, many factors bear on this determination: external regulations and drivers, the type of industry in which the organization operates, and so forth. But the kinds of data the organization uses, and how that data is sorted, will differ for every organization, and each must make its own determination on how to best sort that data. All the other answers are factors that an organization might consider when creating a classification scheme, but they are not mandatory for every organization. Option D is still the best answer for this question.

Answer 74

B. Labeling Explanation: This is another difficult question. Classification of data is an element of labeling, insofar as labeling is the grouping of data into discrete categories and types. Labels must be affixed to objects and data sets in accordance with an overall policy that lists objective criteria to guide the data owner(s) in assigning the appropriate label; this is a form of classification. Option A might be considered apt, as labeling and classification fall generally under the auspices of “security,” but option B is more specific and therefore correct. Classification is not considered a facet of data control or data markup. Therefore, options C and D are incorrect.

Answer 75

B. Automatic or manual Explanation: An organization could implement an automated tool that assigns labels based on certain criteria (location of the source of the data, time, creator, content, etc.), much like metadata, or the organization could require that data creators/collectors assign labels when the data is first created/collected, according to a policy that includes discrete, objective classification guidance. Option A is incorrect because even though the word pair may seem pretty technical, together they are meaningless with respect to data classification. It may be true that data classification can be correct or incorrect, however, option C is not as good of an answer as option B. The goal for the data owner is to correctly classify the data and not to incorrectly classify the data. So, option C is incorrect. It is difficult to imagine data classification that only takes place at a certain time of day. Therefore, it is not likely to be the correct answer and certainly option D is not as good an answer as option B.

Answer 76

A. Color change Explanation: Color is unlikely to be a characteristic for which data is classified, much less reclassified. Although some exceptions might exist (motion picture production, satellite imagery, paint vendors, etc.), those would be far from the norm, and the other answers are much more general cases and would apply to many more organizations. Therefore, color is the correct answer (in the negative), and the rest are incorrect (because they are true).

Answer 77

C. Security controls Explanation: The purposes of classifying/categorizing data is to create proper associated control sets for each data type and aid the efficiency and cost-effectiveness of applying those controls to that data. While dollar value may be a good metric for assessing data type in many organizations, it is not the only such trait, and not for all organizations; option C is still a better answer, so A is wrong. Metadata may or may not be used in a classification/categorization scheme; option B is incorrect. Policies are not assigned to data types; a policy will dictate how data classifications/categories are assigned to data. Option D is incorrect.

Answer 78

B. Virtualization Explanation: Data transforming from raw objects to virtualized instances to snapshotted images back into virtualized instances and then back out to users in the form of raw data may affect the organization’s current classification methodology; classification techniques and tools that were suitable for the traditional IT environment might not withstand the standard cloud environment. This should be a factor of how the organization considers and perceives the risk of cloud migration. Multitenancy should be a consideration of cloud migration for the potential risks of data leakage and disclosure but not because of data transformation. Option A is not correct. Remote access and physical distance should not include aspects of data transformation that are not already considered in the traditional IT environment, so options C and D are incorrect.

Answer 79

D. The cloud customer Explanation: The cloud customer, as the PII data owner, is ultimately legally responsible for all losses of PII data. The customer may be able to recoup some of the costs of damages related to the breach by placing financial liability on the provider through the use of strong contract terms and conditions, but all legal responsibility falls on the customer, in all cases. The other options are parties that may have some partial or contributory responsibility for the breach (especially, in this case, the provider, who was negligent), but the ultimate responsibility lies with the customer.

Answer 80

D. The individual Explanation: The subject is the human being to whom the PII applies. The other answers are not data subjects, and are therefore incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 238). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 81

B. The cloud provider Explanation: B. In a PII context, the processor is any entity that processes data on behalf or at the behest of the data owner. In the case of most managed cloud service arrangements, that will be the cloud service provider. (The cloud customer may also process its own data, but the customer is the data owner/controller.) Options A, C, and D are all incorrect. The cloud customer provides the subject’s PII to the cloud provider for processing. The regulator ensures that the PII is protected properly and the individual is the data subject. So, options A, C, and D are incorrect answers. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 238). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 82

A. The cloud customer Explanation: In a PII context, the controller is the entity that creates/collects, owns, or manages the data—that is, the data owner. In a managed cloud service arrangement, that would be the cloud customer. Options B, C, and D are all incorrect. The cloud provider is the entity that processes the PII data. The regulator ensures that the PII is protected properly and the individual is the data subject. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 239). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 83

B. Viewing Explanation: This is not a simple question, and it requires a bit of insight into uses of data. The most suitable answer here is “viewing,” as it is entirely passive; the viewer is not performing any action on the data. “Processing,” in a PII context, is any manipulation of the data, to include securing or destroying it, in electronic or hard-copy form. In a “viewing” action, the processor would be displaying the data to the viewer, while the viewer is only receiving it, not storing it or using it. Note that the answer did not involve “using,” which definitely would be a processing action. All the other answers are examples of processing and therefore not correct. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 239). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 84

B. The United States Explanation: The United States has some federal PII laws that apply to specific sectors (the government itself [Privacy Act], medical providers [Health Information Portability and Accountability Act], financial and insurance vendors [Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act], etc.), but not a single, overarching federal law that addresses PII in a uniform, nationwide manner. All the other options list countries that have such laws, and those options are therefore incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 239). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 85

A. Opt in Explanation: Under HIPAA, the subject must opt in to information sharing—that is, the subject (the patient) must explicitly state, in writing and with a signature, who the vendor is allowed to share personal information with, such as family members, spouses, parents, and children. (Under HIPAA, this personal information is referred to as electronic private health information [ePHI].) The vendor is prohibited from sharing the patient’s data with anyone else. Under HIPAA, the patient does not have to opt out of information sharing; the default situation is to not share patient data. Option B is incorrect. HIPAA does not require any kind of screening or template, so Options C and D are incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 239). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 239). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 86

B. Opt out Explanation: B. Under GLBA, financial and insurance vendors are allowed to share account holders’ personal data with other entities (including other businesses owned by the same vendor) unless the account holder explicitly states, in writing, that the vendor is not allowed to do so. The vendor is required to provide a form for opting out of data sharing when the account holder creates the account and annually every subsequent year. Option A is incorrect; under GLBA, the default situation allows banks and insurance providers (owned by the same entity) to share customer data—the customer must opt out of this arrangement if the customer doesn’t want information shared. Options C and D are incorrect because they do not relate to the sharing of PII data by a bank or insurer. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 239). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 87

B.A human right Explanation: The EU is probably at the forefront of global efforts to sanctify and enshrine personal privacy; the current statutes and precedents based on court decisions have clearly denoted Europe’s intent to treat individual privacy as a human right. Options A and D are simply incorrect. It is very possible to consider option C as correct because European businesses are held to strict standards regarding the privacy data under their control. However, option B has more significance and is more general, so it is the proper selection among this list. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 240). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 88

B. The United States Explanation: The EU regulations associated with personally identifiable information (PII) belonging to EU citizens prohibit that data to be utilized in any way in any country that does not have a national privacy law commensurate with the EU regulations. Of this list, only the United States has no such law. Indeed, the EU regulations might very well be taken to be aimed directly at the United States, and probably for good reason; the United States has not proven to be a good steward of or even recognize the importance of personal privacy. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 240). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 89

C.Forgotten Explanation: The right to be forgotten is the EU’s codification of an individual’s right to have any data store containing their own personal data purged of all personally identifiable information (PII). There are, of course, some obvious exceptions (such as law enforcement databases). The other answers are not as accurate; “the right to be forgotten” is a very well-known and important aspect of the GDPR. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 240). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 90

B. A PLA would force the provider to accept more liability. Explanation: Under current laws and regulations, ultimate liability for the security of privacy data rests on the data controller—that is, the cloud customer. A PLA would require the cloud provider to document expectations for the cloud customer’s data security, which would be an explicit admission of liability. There is little motivation for cloud providers to take on this additional liability (and the costs associated with it) with no mandate or market force pushing them to do so. Option A is wrong because the provider’s liability is already limited under current legal schemes; the PLA would not enhance that limitation. Options C and D are wrong because agreements (as contracts) are both binding and enforceable, and even if they were not, those are not reasons. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 240). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 91

C. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) Explanation: The CMM is not included in the CSA CCM and, indeed, is not even a security framework. All the other options are included in the CSA CCM and are therefore not correct answers for this question. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 240). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 92

D. Digital Millennium Copyright Act (DMCA) Explanation: The DMCA deals with intellectual property and not specifically with personal privacy. It is not included in the CSA CCM. All the other answers are laws that are included in the CSA CCM and are therefore not correct answers for this question. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 240). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 93

A. A trusted device Explanation: A. DRM solutions are mainly designed to protect intellectual property assets (and mainly those covered by copyright, hence the name), but they can also be used to provide enhanced protection to other electronic information. All the other options are forms of electronic information, while option A is a piece of hardware; DRM does not enhance hardware security, so this is the correct answer. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 240). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 94

A. User consent and action Explanation: Deploying DRM usually requires installing a local agent on each device intended for use in that environment; with BYOD, that means getting all users to agree and install that agent because they own the devices. DRM is an enhanced security protocol, so option B is incorrect. The cloud is not specifically necessary for DRM implementations, even in BYOD environments, so option C is incorrect. Any DRM solution involving a BYOD environment must be suitable for all devices, not just a certain selection, because the organization can’t easily mandate which devices are used (otherwise, it’s not BYOD). Option D is incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 241). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 241). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 95

B. Platform-agnostic solutions Explanation: In a BYOD environment, users might bring any number of devices/operating systems to the network, and any DRM solution selected for the purpose must interact well with all of them. The organization cannot dictate specific packages in a BYOD environment—otherwise it is not BYOD—so option A is incorrect. Turnstiles are for physical access control and have no bearing on BYOD or DRM, so option C is incorrect. BYOD and DRM should have no effect on BC/DR vendors (or the numbers thereof), and vice versa, so option D is incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 241). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 96

D. Business drivers Explanation: The CSA CCM does not deal with whether security controls are feasible or correct from a business perspective, only whether they are applicable to an organization under certain regulations. All the other answers are incorrect because they are too specific and not required by any regulation/legislation. Therefore, options A, C, and D are poor choices and also incorrect answers. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 241). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 97

B. An access policy Explanation: For DRM to work properly, each resource needs to be outfitted with an access policy so that only authorized entities may make use of that resource. All the other answers are distractors. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 241). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 98

B. Egress monitoring solutions (DLP) Explanation: DRM and DLP work well to address complementary security issues—namely, asset classification/categorization and discovery, along with access and dissemination of those assets. RIS is a made-up term, so option A is not correct. Adjusting BIOS settings is not particularly relevant to DRM in any way, so option C is incorrect. TEMPEST is a program for harvesting data from electromagnetic emanations, so option D is not correct. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 241). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 99

C. Persistence Explanation: Access rights following the object in whatever form or location it might be or move to is the definition of persistence, one of the required traits for a DRM solution of any quality. All the other answers are traits that should be included in DRM solutions but do not match the definition in the question, so they are incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 241). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 100

A. Continuous audit trail Explanation: Capturing all relevant system events is the definition of a continuous audit trail, one of the required traits for a DRM solution of any quality. All the other answers are traits that should be included in DRM solutions but do not match the definition in the question, so they are incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 101

D. Dynamic policy control Explanation: The question describes dynamic policy control, one of the required traits for a DRM solution of any quality. All the other answers are traits that should be included in DRM solutions but do not match the definition in the question, so they are incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 102

C. Automatic expiration Explanation: The question describes automatic expiration, one of the required traits for a DRM solution of any quality. All the other answers are traits that should be included in DRM solutions but do not match the definition in the question, so they are incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 103

B. Support for existing authentication security infrastructure Explanation: The question describes support for existing authentication security infrastructure, one of the required traits for a DRM solution of any quality. All the other answers are traits that should be included in DRM solutions but do not match the definition in the question, so they are incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 104

D. Data recovery procedures Explanation: This is not an easy question and requires some interpretation and abstract thought. All of the elements listed are extremely important aspects of the data retention policy. However, using proper data retrieval procedures is the one without which all the others may become superfluous. An organization can perform thorough backups in a timely manner and secure them properly at an excellent location, but if those backups can’t be used to restore the operational environment, they are pointless. All the other options are important, but option D is probably the most important. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 105

B. Archiving Explanation: The question states the definition of archiving. Deletion involves using the operating system or an application to obscure the location of an object or file, so option A is wrong. Crypto-shredding is a secure sanitization technique using cryptographic techniques, so option C is wrong. Storing is a general term covering all retention of data, so option B is a better answer than option D. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 106

A. The date on which the policy will expire Explanation: Not all policies are temporary or have expected durations; usually, policy is an enduring piece of governance that will continue until such time as it is revoked. All the other options are elements that should usually be included in policies. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 107

D. Creating a secure, archived copy for business continuity and disaster recovery (BC/DR) purposes Explanation: Secure sanitization is intended to ensure that there is no possible way for the data to be recovered; a backup copy would defeat the entire purpose. All the other answers are goals of secure sanitization. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 242). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 108

C. Deletion usually only removes pointers or indicators of file location. Explanation: Deletion, using basic system assets (usually the operating system), mainly involves removing pointers to and addresses of the files or objects that are the targets of deletion. This leaves the raw data remaining on the storage resource, and it could be recovered later. Options A and B both include secure destruction methods, but they are not exclusive (obviously, because there are two of them), so therefore they are untrue and also incorrect. Option D does not make practical sense; if users could not delete files/objects, common workplace activity would become burdensome and difficult. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 243). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 243). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 109

C. The hardware belongs to the provider Explanation: The preferred methods of secure sanitization require physical access to (and control of) the hardware on which the data is stored; in the cloud, this belongs to the cloud provider, and the cloud customer will not be allowed to perform destructive procedures. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because the question is about the difficulty of performing data destruction in the cloud computing environment. Often, the only reliable form of data destruction is to destroy the hardware where it is stored. None of these options address that question the way that option C does. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 243). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 110

A. Data in the cloud is constantly being replicated and backed up Explanation: One of the benefits of using managed cloud services is that most providers are constantly performing backup and preservation activities in order to ensure that customers do not lose data. This can make it complicated for customers to even locate all their stored data, much less permanently destroy it. Delete commands are certainly allowed in the cloud. Otherwise, cloud providers would eventually run out of storage space. Option B is incorrect. Option C is incorrect because ISPs do not have the authority to prohibit the destruction of data by data owners. It may be unclear who the “end client” is in option D. If the end client is the individual, then it does not make sense that the individual would prohibit the destruction of data by the cloud provider, given that the cloud provider owns the hardware itself. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 243). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 243). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 111

D. The cloud is often a multitenant environment Explanation: Secure sanitization would affect storage resources where more than one customer stores their data; truly secure destructive measures would likely result in destroying data belonging to someone else. Law enforcement can destroy their own data, however, law enforcement is not permitted to destroy data that belongs to other individuals. Option A is therefore incorrect. Option B is incorrect because data destruction is required from time to time in the cloud as part of system maintenance. Fortunately, option C is incorrect. If data renewed itself automatically in the cloud then cloud providers would eventually run out of storage space. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 243). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 243). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 112

C. Physical destruction of resources that store the data Explanation: Destroying the drive, disk, and media where the data resides is the only true, complete method of data destruction. Options A and B are also good methods for data destruction, but neither is the best method. Option D is incorrect because a legal order is not a secure method of data destruction and therefore it cannot be the correct answer. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 243). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 243). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 113

B. Cloud data storage may not be affected by degaussing. Explanation: Cloud data storage likely uses solid-state drives (or disks), which are not affected by degaussing because they don’t use magnetic properties to store data. Option A is incorrect because it is untrue. A gauss is a unit of magnetism. Not all data storage devices in the cloud are magnetic. Some storage space does not require magnetism to work. Solid State Drives (SSDs) are an example of a type of storage space that does not rely on magnetism to store data. Federal law does not prohibit degaussing of magnetic media in the United States so option C is incorrect. Option D is incorrect because process of degaussing magnetic media does not produce a blast and therefore it does not produce a blast radius. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 244). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 114

D. No, because the logical location of the stored data is almost impossible to determine. Explanation: D. Overwriting is the practice of filling the entire storage of the target data with randomized characters (usually involving multiple passes and a final pass with a single, repeated character). In the cloud, this is untenable for many reasons, including the fact that cloud data is constantly moving from one storage resource to another and is not kept in a single, identifiable logical location for an extended period of time (which is actually a security benefit). Without you knowing which storage resources to overwrite, overwriting is impossible. All the other options are only distractors. Options A and C describe elements of the overwriting process but not reasons why it’s challenging in the cloud. Option B is true, but overwriting does not require physical access, so the option is incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 244). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 244). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 115

B. Regulators usually frown on the practice Explanation: B. Regulators do not disapprove of secure sanitization; it is an acceptable form of secure data destruction if implemented properly. All the other answers are actual reasons overwriting is not a viable secure sanitization method in the cloud. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 244). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 116

A. The cloud provider also managing the organization’s keys Explanation: A. Crypto-shredding relies on the eventual destruction of the final keys; if keys are not under the management of the customer, they may be replicated or difficult to dispose of. The lack of physical access to the cloud environment should not affect the crypto-shredding process, so option B is incorrect. External attackers should not affect the crypto-shredding process, so option C is incorrect. Crypto-shredding should not require input or activity from users, so option D is incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 244). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 117

B. Two Explanation: The proper procedure for crypto-shredding requires two cryptosystems: one to encrypt the target data, the other to encrypt the resulting data encryption keys. All the other answers are wrong and just distractors. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 244). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 244). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 118

D .Correcting accidental errors Explanation: If users inadvertently erase or modify data, an archived backup copy could be useful for restoring the original, correct version. All the other answers are incorrect; archiving does none of those things. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 244). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 119

B. Forensic investigation Explanation: B. An archived data set could be useful for investigative purposes, especially if it covers a significant period of time and includes multiple copies. The archived versions may be used as a reference to determine when a certain malicious activity occurred, which is useful during an investigation. All the other answers are incorrect; archiving does not aid in these functions. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 244). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 244). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 120

A. Compliance/audit Explanation: Archiving may be required by regulation, and archived versions of the environment or data may be used to create deliverables for auditors, especially if the archive included event logs. Archived data is not an optimum gauge of performance because it is not “live” data—that is, the archived data is no longer in the operational environment and so is not a useful indicator of how well that environment currently operates. Option B is therefore incorrect. Archiving has nothing to do with investment; option C is incorrect. Archiving may occur as the result of policy but is not an enforcement tool; thus, option D is incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 245). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 245). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 121

D. Depends on the contract Explanation: Many cloud providers will offer archiving services as a feature of the basic cloud service; realistically, most providers are already performing this function to avoid inadvertent loss of customer data, so marketing it is a logical step. However, because the customer is ultimately responsible for the data, the customer may elect to use another, or an additional, archive method. The contract will stipulate specific terms, such as archive size, duration, and so on. Either the cloud customer or provider (or both) may perform archiving, depending on the contract terms, so options A and B are incorrect. Regulators do not perform archiving; option C is incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 245). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 245). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 122

A. How long the data must be kept before destruction Explanation: The policy for data archiving and retention must include guidance on the length of time data is expected to remain stored. Describing or prescribing the physical specifications of a secure archive facility is probably beyond the responsibility or requirements of a data owner (and belowground storage is not a requirement for archiving and retention), so option B is incorrect. Although it is important to task and train personnel to take part in data restoration from archived data, naming the specific personnel in the policy is not an optimum or useful practice, so option C is incorrect. Although management is responsible for publishing and promulgating policy and governance, the name of the specific manager is not the essential element (but their office or position is). Regulators don’t personally approve internal policies of the organizations they oversee, so option D is incorrect. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 245). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 245). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 123

B. Explicit statement of data formats and types of storage media Explanation: It is important to indicate the data format and media type for long-term storage in order to ensure restoration capability; outdated or obsolete data formats and media may not be useful for restoration of data to the operational environment several years after it has been stored. Options A and C are not correct because specific names don’t belong at the policy level of governance; the specific names (or identification credentials) of allowed third-party recipients should be included at the process/procedure level of governance, and a list of offices or departments whose data will be archived can be included in the policy. Option D is not correct because the particular ISP should not have any bearing on the archiving policy. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 245). Wiley. Kindle Edition. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 245). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 124

C. The originator or publisher of the governing policy Explanation: Once the policies have been published and put into force, the names and contact information of the people who crafted them are no longer useful or germane. All the other options represent entities that the organization may want to contact in the event of a security incident or breach and so should be included in security procedure documentation. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 246). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 125

B. The brand or vendor of the cloud provider’s audit or logging tool Explanation: This is a question that requires some thought. All the answers are processes or elements that should be included in the security operations’ procedures except for option B; the cloud customer will not get to select, or probably even know, what tools and devices the cloud provider has put into place, so this will not be included in the customer’s procedures. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 246). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Answer 126

D. Preventing any party that participates in a transaction from claiming that it did not Explanation: Option D is the definition of nonrepudiation. Option A is a description of confidentiality. Option B is an element of the Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability (ACID) test to enhance the utility and security of a database. Option C is a technique to reduce the likelihood of nonrepudiation but not the definition of the term. Malisow, Ben. (ISC)2 CCSP Certified Cloud Security Professional Official Practice Tests (p. 246). Wiley. Kindle Edition.