Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

BIO 130.01 Genetics, Lecture > Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis > Flashcards

Chapter 2: Mitosis and Meiosis Flashcards

(138 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Are segments of the DNA that code for specific proteins which direct the metabolic activities of cells.

A

Genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Is organized into chromosomes which serve as vehicles for transmitting genetic information.

A

DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Characteristically defined by the presence of a nucleus and other membranous organelles.

A

Eukaryotic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A membrane-bound structure that houses the genetic material, DNA, which is complexed with an array of acidic and basic proteins into thin fibers.

A

Nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Present inside the nucleus which is an amorphous component where ribosomal RNA (rRNA) is synthesized and where the initial stages of ribosomal RNA (rRNA) assembly occur

A

Nucleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Portions of the DNA that encode rRNA.

A

Nucleolus Organizer Region (NOR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lacks a nuclear envelope and membranous organelles.

A

Prokaryotic cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The genetic material of prokaryotic organisms.

A

Circular DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A region in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic organisms where the genetic material is clustered into.

A

Nucleoid region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

True or False. The genetic material in prokaryotic organisms undergoes the extensive coiling characteristic of the stages of mitosis, during which the chromosomes of eukaryotes become visible.

A

False. Genetic material in prokaryotes does not undergo coiling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

True or False. Prokaryotic cells do not have a distinct nucleolus and do not contain genes that specify rRNA molecules.

A

False. Though deprived of a nucleolus, prokaryotic cells do contain genes that code for rRNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The remainder of the eukaryotic cell within the plasma membrane, excluding the the nucleus.

A

Cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Compartmentalizes the cytoplasm, greatly increasing the surface area available for biochemical synthesis.

A

Endoplasmic reticulum (ER)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

It serves as the site for synthesizing fatty acids and phospholipids.

A

Smooth ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

It serves as the site for synthesizing protein where it is studded with ribosomes.

A

Rough ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Serves as sites where genetic information contained in mRNA is translated into proteins.

A

Ribosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Are found in most eukaryotes, including both animal and plants, and are sites of the oxidative phases of cell respiration.

A

Mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cytoplasmic bodies, each located in a specialized region called the centrosome, are associated with the organization of spindle fibers that function in mitosis and meiosis.

A

Centrioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Where centrioles are derived from. Associated with the formation of cilia and flagella (hair-like and whip-like structures for propelling cells or moving materials

A

Basal body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Play an important role in the movement of chromosomes as they separate during cell division.

A

Spindle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Spindle fibers are made up of microtubules consisting of polymer of what protein?

A

Tubulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What phase of the cell cycle wherein centrioles start to organize spindle fiber?

A

Prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Are the spindle fibers that are most directly responsible for chromosome migration by making contact with, and adhering to the kinetochore as they grow out of the centrosome region.

A

Kinetochore microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Are found in plants, algae, and some protozoans, are associated with photosynthesis, the major energy-trapping process on Earth.

A

Chloroplast

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
In addition to the plasma membrane, plant cells also have what structure that is made primarily of polysaccharides known as cellulose.
Cell wall
26
Covering over the plasma membrane of animal cells consisting of glycoproteins, and polysaccharides. It provides biochemical identity at the surface of cells.
Glycocalyx or Cell Coat
27
These molecules act as recognition sites that transfer specific chemical signals across the cell membrane.
Receptor molecules
28
Constricted region on the chromosome, whose location establishes the general appearance of each chromosome
Centromere
29
The shorter arm of a chromosome.
p arm
30
The longer arm of a chromosome.
q arm
31
A chromosome whose centromere is located in the middle of the chromosome.
Metacentric chromosome
32
A chromosome whose centromere is located between the middle and the end.
Submetacentric chromosome
33
A chromosome whose centromere is located close to the end.
Acrocentric
34
A chromosome whose centromere is located at the very end.
Telocentric
35
DNA diameter
2 nm
36
Made of 2 units of histone octamer each wrapped with 147 DNA base pairs, and a unit of H1 histone wrapped with DNA spacer.
Nucleosome
37
Nucleosome size
6 nm X 11 nm flat disk
38
Made of 6 units of histone octamer each wrapped with 147 DNA pairs, and 6 units of H1 histone each wrapped with spacer DNA.
Solenoid
39
Solenoid size
30 nm
40
Composed of several solenoid units that are tightly looped.
Looped domain
41
Size of the looped domain
80-100 nm
42
Composed of several tightly looped domains.
Chromatin fiber
43
Size of Chromatin fiber
300 nm
44
What phase of the cell cycle is the chromosome most visible.
M phase
45
True or False. Somatic cells derived from members of the same species contain an identical number of chromosomes (diploid number, 2n)
True
46
Is a pair of chromosomes whose centromere location, size, and gene loci are identical.
Homologous chromosomes
47
Gene sites found on chromosomes.
Locus (plural. loci)
48
Alternative forms of a gene are called?
Alleles
49
True or False. The locus for a specific gene is present in both pairs of homologous chromosomes but they need not be identical in genetic sequence.
True.
50
Inheritance from two parents is called?
Biparental inheritance
51
Collection of all the genetic information contained in a haploid set of chromosomes.
Genome
52
True or False. Sex determining chromosomes (e.g. the X and Y chromosomes in humans) are not homologous in size, centromere placement, arm ratio, or genetic content.
True
53
True or False. Y chromosome humans are considerably smaller and lack most of the gene loci contained on the X.
True
54
The non-dividing phase of the cell cycle. Interval between divisions.
Interphase
55
What phase of the cell cycle does the cell exhibit cell growth, synthesis of proteins, and lasts about 5 hours in human cells?
G1 phase
56
True or False. Cells that enter G0 remain viable and metabolically active but are not proliferative.
True
57
True or False. Cancer cells apparently avoid entering G0 or pass through it very quickly.
True
58
What are the two pathways a cell in the G1 phase can proceed to?
1. withdraw from the cell cycle, enter G0, and become quiescent. 2. Become committed to proceed through G1, and initiate DNA synthesis.
59
True or False. Other cells enter G0 and never reenter the cell cycle. Still, other cells in G0 can be stimulated to return to G1 and thereby reenter the cell cycle.
True.
60
Lasts about 5 hours in humans.
G1 phase
61
Replication of the DNA (DNA synthesis) happens at what phase of the cell cycle.
S phase
62
Lasts about 7 hours in human cells.
S phase
63
In this phase, the cell undergoes further growth.
G2 phase
64
Lasts about 3 hours in humans.
G2 phase
65
Mitosis lasts how many hours in total?
1 hour
66
By the end of what phase the volume of the cell has roughly doubled, DNA has been replicated, and mitosis (M) is initiated.
G2 phase
67
What protein binds sister chromatids together?
Cohesin
68
In what phase of the cell cycle is cohesin formed?
S phase
69
Two pairs of centrioles migrate at the opposite poles of the cell, nuclear membrane, and nucleolus begin to disintegrate, and diffuse chromatin fibers have begun to condense.
Prophase
70
Area of differentiated cytoplasm where the centrioles are situated.
Centrosome
71
True or False. Plants with few exemptions, fungi, and certain algae seem to lack centrioles but spindle fiber is still present.
True
72
Period of migration of the double structured chromosomes to the equatorial plane.
Prometaphase
73
Is the midline region of the cell, a plane that lies perpendicular to the axis established by the spindle fibers.
Metaphase plate/ Equatorial plane
74
An assembly of multilayered plates of protein associated with the centromere.
Kinetochore
75
Lasts about 36 minutes in human cells.
Prophase
76
Lasts about 3 minutes in human cells
Metaphase
77
Centromere aligns on the metaphase plate.
Metaphase
78
Once properly attached to the spindle fibers during metaphase, the sister chromatids are disassociated from each other by a protein called?
Separase
79
What protein family protects the cohesin from being degraded by separase at the centromeric regions during metaphase?
Shugoshins
80
Lasts about 3 minutes.
Anaphase
81
Centromere split and the daughter chromosomes migrate at opposite poles.
Anaphase
82
Disjunction happens during what phase of cell division.
Anaphase
83
The process by which sister chromatids during mitosis and meiosis two, and homologous chromosomes during meiosis one separate from each other.
Disjunction
84
Each migrating chromatids during anaphase, and anaphase 2 are called?
Daughter chromosome
85
Lasts about 18 minutes.
Telophase
86
Daughter chromosomes arrive at the poles; cytokinesis commences.
Telophase
87
The division or partitioning of the cytoplasm.
Cytokinesis
88
True or False. In animal cells, a cell plate is synthesized and laid down across the region of the metaphase plate during cytokinesis.
False
89
True or False. In animal cells, complete constriction of the cell membrane produces the cell furrow characteristic of newly divided cells.
True
90
The chromosomes begin to uncoil and become diffuse chromatin once again, while the nuclear envelope reforms around them, the spindle fibers disappear, and the nucleolus gradually reforms and becomes visible in the nucleus during early interphase. Reverse prophase.
Telophase
91
Serve as “master control” molecules functioning in conjunction with proteins called cyclins.
Kinases
92
These molecules can add phosphates to other proteins.
Kinases
93
Formed when cyclin binds to kinases activating them at appropriate times during the cell cycle.
Cyclin - Cyclin-dependent kinase complex
94
Control the proceeding of one stage of the cell cycle to another.
Cell cycle checkpoints
95
At this checkpoint, the cell monitors size and DNA integrity.
G1/S checkpoint
96
True or False. If the cell has not reached its optimum size, the cell is not allowed to proceed to the S phase. If the DNA is damaged, it has to be repaired first.
True
97
At this checkpoint, the cell monitors DNA synthesis and damage. It facilitates DNA repair if damage in the DNA is detected.
G2/M checkpoint
98
Cell monitors spindle formation and attachment to kinetochores.
M checkpoint
99
When does the cell decide to exit the cell cycle?
During G1 phase. G0 phase is at the middle of the G1 phase.
100
Cyclins and CDKs present in G0 phase.
Cyclin C, and CDK3
101
Cyclins and CDKs present in G1 phase.
Cyclins D, E, and CDKs 2, 4, 6
102
Cyclins and CDKs present in S phase.
Cyclins A, E, and CDK 2
103
Cyclins and CDKs present in G2 phase.
Cyclin A, CDKs 1, 2
104
Cyclins and CDKs present in M phase.
Cyclin B, CDK1
105
Genetic material during leptonema is called?
Chromomeres
106
During this phase of prophase 1 of meiosis, paternally and maternally derived chromosomes undergo homology search.
Leptonema
107
Genetic material during zygonema is called?
Bivalent
108
During this phase of prophase 1 of meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair off or undergo synapsis forming bivalent.
Zygonema
109
Process wherein homologous chromosomes pair off.
Synapsis
110
True or False. The number of bivalents is equal to the diploid number of chromosomes.
False. Haploid number = bivalent number.
111
Homologous chromosomes undergo thickening and doubling to form a tetrad.
Pachynema
112
Consisting of two pairs of sister chromatids, each of which is joined at a common centromere.
Tetrad
113
Genetic information during the pachynema phase is called?
Tetrad
114
Formation of chiasmata.
Diplonema
115
Fragments from the maternal chromosomes exchange fragments from the paternal chromosome.
Crossing over
116
When does crossing over happen?
Diplonema of Prophase I
117
Chromosomes undergo terminalization.
Diakinesis
118
Homologous chromosomes that undergone crossing over align at the metaphase plate.
Metaphase I
119
During metaphase I, what structures are visible and appear to be the only factor associating the non-sister chromatids together?
Terminal chiastama
120
One-half of each tetrad (the dyad) is pulled toward each pole of the dividing cell.
Anaphase I
121
At the completion of a normal anaphase I, a series of dyads equal to ____ is present at each pole.
Haploid number of chromosomes
122
Nuclear membrane forming around the dyads. Chromosomes reach the opposite poles of the cell and cytokinesis proceeds.
Telophase I
123
This happens during faulty segregation during gamete, specifically during anaphase I and II.
Nondisjunction
124
This happens during Anaphase I where tetrads do not segregate causing one of the daughter cells to have 4 chromosomes and the other is deprived of any.
First division nondisjuction
125
This happens during Anaphase II where sister chromatids do not segregate causing one of the daughter cells to have 2 chromosomes and the other is deprived of any.
Second devision nondisjuction
126
The occurrence of this syndrome is correlated with maternal age because meiosis in females is arrested causing the ovum to be not renewed and aged. The aging process causes mutations that disrupt normal functioning.
Trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome)
127
A condition caused by having an extra copy of chromosome 21.
Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)
128
A condition caused by having an extra copy of chromosome 18.
Edward's syndrome (Trisomy 18)
129
A condition caused by having an extra copy of chromosome 13.
Patau's syndrome (Trisomy 13)
130
A phenomenon common on plants but very rare in animals, and is often caused by hybridization.
Polyploidy
131
A condition of having multiple sets of haploid genes.
Polyploidy
132
Individual that has more than two sets chromosome set all derived from a single species.
Autopolyploid
133
Organism that resulted from viable mating between two different but closely related species.
Allopolyploid
134
A chemical reagent that breakdowns spindle fibers to prevent the chromosome from segregating.
Colchicine
135
Produces a metabolite called taxol that disrupts the production of spindle fibers.
Taxos brevifolia
136
Produces vinblastine and vincristine that disrupts spindle fiber formation.
Cantharanthus roseus
137
Products/metabolites of rosy periwinkle that are used to treat leukemia.
Vinblastine and vincristine
138
Mutations that are known to exert an effect at one or another stage of the cell cycle.
Cell division cycle mutation

BIO 130.01 Genetics, Lecture (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions