Chapter 20/21 Flashcards
(122 cards)
1
Q
The technology using in vitro molecular techniques that combine DNA fragments to produce novel arrangements is called _____ DNA technology.
A
recombinant
2
Q
What is the purpose of gene cloning?
A
to produce many copies of a DNA molecule of interest
3
Q
A small DNA molecule that can replicate independently within a host cell and thus make many copies of an inserted gene is called a(n) ______.
A
vector or plasmid
4
Q
What is the term that describes a cell that contains a DNA cloning vector?
A
host cell
5
Q
What is recombinant DNA technology?
A
the production of new arrangements of DNA
6
Q
A small circular DNA molecule that is often used as a vector in gene cloning is called a(n) ______.
A
plasmid
7
Q
To make many copies of a gene, you would _______ that gene.
A
clone
8
Q
What do you call the DNA sequence in a vector that allows the replication enzymes of the host cell to make multiple copies of the vector?
A
Origin of replication
9
Q
Why would one use a vector with a selectable marker?
A
to identify cells containing the vector
10
Q
How does a bacterial cell use restriction enzymes?
A
to protect the cell against invasion by bacteriophages
11
Q
A resistance gene that allows a host cell containing a vector to grow on a toxic substance is called a(n) _______ ______.
A
Selectable marker
12
Q
Restriction endonucleases are used in gene cloning to ______.
A
cut the DNA backbone prior to inserting the DNA to be cloned.
13
Q
When cloning a gene, why must the chromosomal DNA and the plasmid DNA be cut with the same restriction enzyme?
A
the sticky ends of the plasmid DNA will be complementary to the sticky ends of the chromosomal DNA
14
Q
If the two ends of a vector cut with a restriction enzyme ligate back together without an insert, a(n) _____ vector has been created.
A
Recircularized
15
Q
Many species of bacteria make restriction enzymes to protect themselves from invasion by _________.
A
Bacteriophages
16
Q
The enzyme that uses RNA as a template to make a complementary strand of DNA is called _______ _______.
A
Reverse transcriptase
17
Q
Order the following steps in cloning a gene,
A
- Chromosomal DNA is isolated and cut with a restriction enzyme, the plasmid DNA is cut with the same enzyme
- The digested chromosomal DNA and plasmid DNA are incubated together
- Ligation by DNA ligase produces recombinant vectors
18
Q
When DNA is made using RNA as the starting material, the DNA is called _____ DNA.
A
complementary
19
Q
A DNA library made with DNA generated by reverse transcriptase is called a ______.
A
cDNA library
20
Q
Polymerase chain reaction was developed by ______.
A
Kary Mullis
21
Q
You have a piece of RNA, and you want to synthesize a complementary strand of DNA. Which enzyme would you use?
A
reverse transcriptase
22
Q
When using PCR to amplify DNA, short oligonucleotides called primers ______.
A
flank the region of DNA to be amplified
23
Q
In PCR, the two primers bind to specific sites in the ______ and flank the gene to be amplified.
A
DNA
24
Q
If you wanted a collection of only transcribed DNA, you would construct a ______.
A
cDNA library
25
Primers are chosen for PCR based on ______.
knowing the DNA sequences flanking the gene of interest
26
In PCR, the template DNA is ______.
the DNA to be amplified
27
In PCR, the temperature must be ______ from the denaturation temperature in order for primers to anneal.
lowered
28
Order the steps in one cycle of a PCR reaction, placing the first step at the top.
1. denaturation
2. primer annealing
3. primer extension
29
In PCR, primer extension refers to the synthesis of ______ starting at the primers.
complementary DNA
30
Primer annealing occurs when ______.
short oligonucleotides bind to DNA flanking the gene of interest
31
To perform PCR, a machine called a(n) ______ automates the timing of each cycle.
thermocycler
32
If you wanted a collection of only transcribed DNA, you would construct a ______.
cDNA library
33
the enzyme ____ _____ is used when PCR employed to detect and quantify the amount of a specific RNA
reverse transcriptase
34
In PCR, each cycle uses the products of the previous cycle as templates. What do you call this?
a chain reaction
35
Which fluoresces under UV light and can be used to detect DNA in a gel?
ethidium bromide
36
The step in PCR that occurs when Taq polymerase starts at the primers and catalyzes the synthesis of complementary DNA is called _____ ______.
Primer extension
37
What is the technique that allows one to determine the amount of template DNA present when the PCR cycles began?
real-time PCR
38
In PCR, the template DNA is ______.
the DNA to be amplified
39
How is the amount of DNA produced during real-time PCR measured?
by measuring the fluoresence emitted by the probe added to the PCR mixture
40
The TaqMan probe is an oligonucleotide that can be used to follow ______. It has a reporter molecule at one end and a quencher molecule at the other end.
real-time PCR
41
Reverse transcriptase PCR can be used to ______.
detect and quantify the amount of a specific RNA
42
During the initial phase of a real-time PCR experiment, called the ______ phase, the amount of PCR products is small and reagents are not limiting, so the amount of product nearly doubles with each cycle.
exponential
43
How is ethidium bromide used to analyze amplification by PCR?
Ethidium bromide stains DNA, allowing the size of a fragment in a gel to be determined.
44
Methods that produce two or more genetically identical individuals are referred to as reproductive _____.
Cloning
45
How is the TaqMan probe used to monitor real-time PCR?
as amplification increases, fluorescence increases
46
Order the steps that were used to create Dolly, the sheep cloned from somatic cell DNA, placing the first step at the top.
1. mammary cells from an adult sheep were removed and grown in the lab; researches extracted the nucleus from an egg cell from a different sheep
2. electrical pulses were used to fuse the diploid mammary cell with the enucleated egg cell
3. the zygote began embryonic development
4. the resulting embryo was implanted into the uterus of a surrogate mother sheep
47
The cells that construct our bodies from a fertilized egg are called ______ cells.
stem
48
The early mammalian embryo contains _____ ______ cells, which are pluripotent cells found in the inner cell mass of the blastocyst.
embryonic stem
49
A stem cell that can differentiate into almost every cell type in the body, but has lost the ability to produce an entire, intact individual is called ______.
pluripotent
50
Hematopoietic stem cells populate blood and lymphoid tissues and are ______.
multipotent
51
Embryonic stem cells are found in ______.
the blastocyst
52
Which component of bone marrow is useful to patients with certain types of cancers?
stem cells
53
The cells that construct our bodies from a fertilized egg are called _____ cells.
stem
54
A significant breakthrough in research in the use of stem cells for therapy was achieved in 1998 when two separate teams showed that ______.
ES and EG cells can be propagated in the lab
55
Embryonic stem cells are _____ which means that they can differentiate into almost every cell type of the body, but a single embryonic stem cell has lost the ability to produce an entire, intact individual.
pluripotent
56
DNA sequencing allows researchers to determine the ____ _____ of DNA found in genes and other chromosomal regions
base sequence
57
Stem cells that can differentiate into several cell types, but far fewer than an embryonic stem cell, are said to be
multipotent
58
The Maxam and Gilbert method of DNA sequencing used chemicals that cleaved the DNA at ______.
specific bases
59
If the oxygens on carbons 2 and 3 of the sugar of a nucleotide have been removed, as shown in the image, the nucleotide is referred to as a(n)
dideoxyribonucleotide
60
Chain termination occurs when a dideoxyribonucleotide is incorporated into a growing DNA strand because there is no ______ group.
3'- OH
61
Site-directed mutagenesis allow a researcher to make a mutation ______.
at a specific of DNA
62
How is site-directed mutagenesis useful in the study of genes and proteins?
the mutated gene can be introduced into a living organism to see how the mutation affects the organism
63
An early method of DNA sequencing that involved the base-specific chemical cleavage of DNA was developed by ______.
Maxam and Gilbert
64
Which component in the CRISPR-Cas9 system makes a double-strand break in DNA?
Cas9
65
If a dideoxyribonucleotide is incorporated into the growing strand of DNA during dideoxy sequencing, the strand can no longer grow as there is no 3'-OH group. This is called ______.
chain termination
66
When CRISPR-Cas is used for gene mutagenesis, what type of change does Cas9 make in the gene of interest?
double strand break
67
If a scientist wanted to determine how a specific mutation in a gene of interest affected an organism, which technique would be most useful?
site-directed mutagenesis
68
This technique is used to identify a specific RNA molecule within a mixture of RNA molecules.
northern blotting
69
The natural function of the CRISPR-Cas system in bacteria is to ______.
provide defense against bacteriophages
70
When the CRISPR-Cas system is used for gene mutagenesis, which two components are combined in the sgRNA?
crRNA and tracrRNA
71
Which technique is used to identify a particular protein in a mixture of proteins?
western blotting
72
In the CRISPR-Cas system, what part of the sgRNA is designed to be complementary to the gene to be mutated?
spacer region
73
In CRISPR-Cas9 mutagenesis, which type of change is observed in the target gene when nonhomologous end joining (NHEJ) repairs the double-strand break?
a small deletion causes a frameshift mutation
74
Cytogeneticists can distinguish one chromosome from another based on the _______ patterns that are obtained when chromosomes are treated with certain dyes.
band
75
The mapping technique that relies on the frequency of recombinant offspring for determination of the distance between genetic loci is ______mapping.
linkage
76
What is represented in a genetic map?
the locations of genes or other DNA segments along a chromosome
77
How can eukaryotic chromosomes be distinguished from one another with the microscope?
CHromosomes can be treated with dyes that produce unique banding patterns for each chromosome
78
In situ hybridization is a technique that is often used for ______ mapping.
cytogenetic
79
In linkage mapping, the distance between sites on the same chromosome is determined by calculating the frequency of ______.
recombinant offspring
80
During in situ hybridization, a DNA probe made from a cloned gene binds to ______.
its complementary sequence on a particular chromosome
81
Which of the following techniques is commonly used for cytogenetic mapping?
in situ hybridization
82
The mapping technique that relies on the frequency of recombinant offspring for determination of the distance between genetic loci is _____ mapping.
linkage
83
Arrange the steps involved in fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) in the correct order
1. treat cells with agents that cause them to swell and fix them onto a slide
2. denature chromosomal DNA
3. Hybridize chromosomal DNA to single-stranded DNA probes containing biotin
4. Add flurescently labeled avidin
5. View with a fluorescence microscope
84
During a researcher's in situ hybridization procedure, what causes the probe to stick to the chromosome?
complementary base pairing to the corresponding gene
85
A fluorescence microscope is used to detect bound DNA probes in FISH. To detect the fluorescent molecules, the sample is illuminated with light, and then the fluorescent molecules emit ______ wavelength light, which is transmitted and detected.
longer
86
What is the goal of cytogenetic mapping?
to localize a gene to a site within a chromosomal banding pattern
87
The location of a fluorescently labeled probe relative to the banding pattern of a chromosome is determined by comparing the results of a FISH experiment to a sample of chromosomes that have been stained with
Giemsa
88
A technique called chromosome painting can be used to ______.
determin the location of several fluorescently labeled probes simultaneously
89
In a FISH experiment, what molecule is incorporated into the single-stranded DNA probes that later allows for detection of the probes?
biotin
90
A segment of DNA that is located at a specific site along a chromosome and that has properties that allow it to be uniquely identified using molecular tools is called a molecular
marker
91
The locations of several probes labeled with different fluorescent molecules can be determined simultaneously in a type of FISH experiment called chromosome
painting
92
What was the first organism to have its genome completely sequenced?
Haemophilus influenzae
93
One of the methods that is used for genome-sequencing projects involves the sequencing of randomly generated DNA fragments followed by identification of overlapping regions in the DNA sequence. This method is called _______ sequencing.
shotgun
94
One of the goals of the Human Genome Project was to obtain a genetic linkage map of the human genome. This was accomplished by ______.
identifying millions of genetic markers and their locations on chromosomes
95
Developing technology for the management of human genome information was one of the goals of the Human Genome Project. To meet this goal, the Human Genome project developed ______.
analytical tools for interpreting genome information
96
In addition to the human genome, the genomes of Escherichia coli, Caenorhabditis elegans, and Mus musculus were sequenced as part of the Human Genome Project. These species were selected for genome sequencing because they are _______ organisms used for scientific research.
model
97
Which of the following is an accurate description of shotgun sequencing?
Random DNA fragments are sequenced, and overlapping parts of the sequence are identified
98
The Human Genome Project had a stated goal of developing programs focused on understanding and addressing the ethical, legal, and social implications of the Human Genome Project. An example of a genetic issue is the possibility that an individual who carries a deleterious allele could be discriminated against by a(n) ______.
medical insurance company
99
Comparative genomics is the study of genetic variation among ______.
different species
100
Identifying and localizing millions of genetic markers was an important procedure for the Human Genome Project's goal of obtaining a genetic _______ map of the human genome.
linkage
101
Many microorganisms that live in soil, water, and the human intestinal tract are difficult to study because ______.
researchers may not understand their growth requirements
they may require the presence of a complex microbial community
102
What is metagenomics?
the study of a complex mixture of genetic material from an environmental sample
103
Which of the following model organisms had their genomes sequenced as part of the Human Genome Project?
fruit fly
a flowering plant
mouse
Haemophilius influenzae
Escherichia coli
104
One of the ethical and legal issues that has been identified as a result of the Human Genome Project is whether ______.
individuals have a right to privacy regarding genetic information
105
The approach that uses information from genome projects to understand genetic variation among different populations is called ______ genomics.
comparative
106
A collection of genes from an environmental sample is called a ______.
metagenome
107
Arrange the steps involved in a metagenomic study in the correct order
1. obtain an enviromental sample
2. filter the sample to collect cells
3. lyse cells from the sample
4. extract and purify DNA
5. insert DNA into cloning vectors and transform them into host cells
6. sequence DNA
108
A gene chip is also called a ______.
DNA microarray
109
A DNA microarray is a silica or plastic slide that contains tens of thousands of ______ in an area the size of a ______.
different DNA sequences
postage stamp
110
In a metagenome sequencing project, DNA fragments from an environmental sample are cloned and transformed into host cells to produce a metagenomic _______ which is subjected to shotgun sequencing.
library
111
Which of the following are applications of metagenomics?
1. discovery of products synthesized by microbes, such as new antibiotics
2. Identification of the microbes in complex microbial communities
3. Identification of viruses in enviromental samples that can infect humans
112
In a DNA microarray experiment, a high fluorescence intensity in one spot means that ______.
a large amount of cDNA in the smaple hybridized to the DNA at that location
113
The technology that enables the expression of thousands of genes to be studied simultaneously is called a DNA ______.
microarray
114
The set of all RNA molecules that are transcribed in one cell or a population of cells is called the ______.
transriptome
115
Each spot in a DNA microarray contains ______ DNA from ______.
single-stranded
a specific gene
116
RNA-Seq is a method used to ______.
sequence complementary DNAs derived from RNAs
117
If you wished to compare the transcriptomes of healthy cells to diseased cells, which method would you choose?
RNA-sequencing
118
The transcriptome is the set of all ______ produced in one cell or a population of cells.
RNA molecules
119
In the RNA-sequencing (RNA-Seq) method, next-generation sequencing is used to find the order of nucleotides in ______.
cDNAs produced from RNAs
120
A knockout collection is a collection of organisms of the same species in which each strain ______.
has one gene knocked out
121
RNA-sequencing (RNA-Seq) is used to compare transcriptomes in ______.
1. different stages of development
2. response to different enviromental agents
3. healthy versus diseased cells
4. different cell types
122
