Chapter 3,10,11 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of diagnosis in physical therapy?

A

A: Diagnosis is the recognition of specific signs and symptoms that correlate with an identifiable disease or disorder. It involves differentiating similar signs and symptoms into a pattern that guides intervention.

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2
Q

this type of diagnosis is the process of comparing and contrasting patient data to appropriately include or exclude conditions, which helps develop an appropriate intervention strategy

A

differential diagnosis

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3
Q

What role do Physical Therapist Assistants (PTAs) play in differential diagnosis?

A

PTAs contribute by collecting data, assisting with assessments, and communicating findings to the physical therapist. PTAs must also develop problem-solving and clinical decision-making skills.

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4
Q

What is the main focus of physical therapy practice

A

Physical therapy practice focuses on musculoskeletal, neuromuscular, cardiopulmonary, and integumentary systems, and spans acute, rehabilitative, and chronic phases of patient care

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5
Q

What are the five key components of the Patient Management Process

A

What are the five key components of the Patient Management Process

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6
Q

is a comprehensive screening that includes tests, measures, and data collection from multiple sources such as the patient, family, and medical records.

A

Examination

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7
Q

assesses the patient’s overall health status, phase of healing, severity of pathology, systems involvement, and preexisting conditions or comorbidities

A

Evaluation

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8
Q

provides a label for recognizing specific signs and symptoms and helps differentiate between medical and physical therapy diagnoses

A

Diagnosis

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9
Q

predicts the outcome of the physical therapy plan of care (POC), including specific, measurable goals based on the patient’s condition

A

Prognosis

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10
Q

are actions taken by the PT or PTA (under supervision) to improve or resolve specific problems. They may involve collaboration with other healthcare providers.

A

interventions

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11
Q

skills including observation, listening, manual proficiency (e.g., ROM, MMT), motor and sensory screening, palpation, and communication

A

Key Assessment Skills

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12
Q

involves attentiveness, duplication, clarification, perception, summarization, and interest, which helps ensure clear understanding and effective communication

A

Active Listening

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13
Q

should include defensible documentation elements such as legibility, documentation of clinical decision-making, interventions, complications, goals, and changes in client status

A

Written Communication

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14
Q

warning signs that may indicate serious or emergent conditions, such as infections, inflammation, cancer, heart attack, or fractures, and warrant immediate referral

A

Red Flags

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15
Q

warning signs that suggest caution in treatment but are generally not as serious as red flags. Examples include sleep disturbances or low-grade fever

A

Yellow Flags

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16
Q

are observable findings (e.g., swelling, bruising

A

Signs

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17
Q

symptoms include chest pain, irregular heartbeat, breathlessness, fainting, fatigue, cyanosis, and edema.

A

Red Flags for Myocardial Infraction

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17
Q

affect the entire body and may indicate systemic disease. Examples include fever, malaise, fatigue, unexplained weight loss, and night sweats.

A

constitutional symptoms

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17
Q

reported by the patient and may not be visible (e.g., pain, fatigue).

A

Symptoms

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18
Q

What is the purpose of monitoring vital signs in physical therapy?

A

Vital signs provide an objective overview of cardiopulmonary function and body temperature, helping establish baseline data and monitor the patient’s condition during the episode of care

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19
Q

response including redness, swelling (edema), pain, and elevated skin temperature. It typically follows injury or trauma.

A

Inflammatory Response

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20
Q

How do infection symptoms compare to inflammation

A

infection symptoms mimic inflammation (redness, swelling, pain, and elevated temperature) but require careful monitoring, especially after musculoskeletal surgery

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21
Q

is a clot in a deep vein, often following surgery or injury, and can lead to serious complications like pulmonary embolism, stroke, or myocardial infarction.

A

Deep vein Thrombosis

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22
Q

is chronic swelling, typically of an extremity, caused by obstruction in the lymphatic system. It can be primary (genetic) or secondary (due to trauma or surgery)

A

Lymphedema

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23
a significant drop in blood pressure when moving from lying to standing. It is more common in elderly patients and requires safety precautions during treatment.
orthostatic hypotensiion
24
What type of signs, and symptoms are these difficulty breathing due to pneumonia, asthma, or pleurisy should be carefully monitored in physical therapy patients.
Pulmonary
25
complaints of pain in the lower back, pelvic region, or abdominal area. Additionally, assess symptoms like volume, color, and consistency of bowel movements and urine can be associated with 1______ and 2______ movements
Bowel and Bladder
26
What are these problems associated with? problems, such as anxiety, stress, or changes in behavior, can significantly affect treatment outcomes. Building trust through communication is essential.
psychological problems
27
What is the significance of differentiating low back pain from more serious conditions
Conditions such as tumors, spinal infections, fractures, or cauda equina syndrome must be considered. Red flags include unexplained weight loss, bowel/bladder changes, or sensory deficits in the lower extremities
28
What areas in the body should we consider the following conditions (Name 3 areas) Conditions include cancer, fractures, osteonecrosis, Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease, and slipped capital femoral epiphysis, among others.
Pelvis, Hip, Thigh
29
What areas in the body should we consider the following conditions (Name 4 areas) Conditions include arterial occlusive disease, DVT, compartment syndrome, septic arthritis, and cellulitis, especially post-surgery or trauma.
Knee, leg, Ankle, Foot
30
Potential Risk factors for this area include: heart attack, angina, pulmonary embolism, pneumonia, and gastrointestinal issues like gastric ulcers or gallbladder inflammation.
Thoracic Spine
31
What areas in the body should we consider the following conditions (name 2) Possible causes include myocardial infarction, cervical spine instability, neuropathy, and Pancoast tumors
Shoulder and Neck pain
32
What areas in the body should we consider the following conditions (name 3) Consider conditions like falls on outstretched hand (FOOSH), fractures, tendon injuries, infection, Raynaud’s disease, and complex regional pain syndrome (CRPS).
Elbow, Forearm, Head
33
What phase of bone healing would you find these characteristics Bone remodeling
5 or V
34
What phase of bone healing would you find these characteristics Calcification of fibrocartilage, woven bone.
3 or III
35
What phase of bone healing would you find these characteristics Cartilage presence within fracture
2 or II
36
What phase of bone healing would you find these characteristics Cartilage and calcification, fracture line consolidation
4 or IV
37
What phase of bone healing would you find these characteristics
Hematoma forms, fibrin clot formation, callus formation.
38
These are key objectives in 1.______management and 2._______ healing? 1.Understand bone healing phases. 2. Identify osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and osteocytes. 3. Discuss Wolff's Law. 4. Understand stress deprivation, immobilization, and normal physiologic stress. 5. Identify complications of bone healing.
1. Fracture 2. Bone
39
Cells that form bone matrix and synthesize type I collagen.
Osteoblasts
40
Cells responsible for bone resorption.
Osteoclast
41
Mature bone cells embedded within the mineralized bone matrix.
Osteocytes
42
Law that states that bone will adapt to the mechanical stresses placed on it, becoming stronger with increased stress and weaker with reduced stress.
Wolff's Law
43
What type of bone are these characteristics associated with Normal, mature lamellar bone.
Type I
44
What type of bone are these characteristics associated with Weak, immature woven bone (seen in embryos, newborns, and fractures).
Type II
45
What are the types of bones have these characteristics? Longer and Wider(eg. Femur Humerus)
Long Bones
46
What are the types of bones have these characteristics? Equal length and width (e.g., hands, feet)
Short Bones
47
What are the types of bones have these characteristics? Larger and protective (e.g., ribs, skull).
Flat Bones
48
This is the process of bone synthesis and resorption.
Bone Remodeling
49
What are 4 key factors in bone remodeling
Torsion, bending, compression, tension
50
What law is the statement below associated with? Bone adapts to mechanical load.
Wolff's Law
51
Compression produces an electric charge stimulating osteoblasts. When this occurs, what is it called?
Piezoelectric effect
52
Dense, compact bone found in the diaphysis of long bones.
Cortical Bone
53
Spongy, porous bone found in the metaphysis, more metabolically active.
Cancellous Bone
54
What are these factors associated with Skeletal system receives 5% to 10% of the total cardiac output * Nutrient artery * Metaphyseal-epiphyseal system * Periosteal system * Fractures, internal/external fixation devices, and joint implants devitalize the microcirculation
Vascular Supply to the Bone
55
is a condition characterized by decreased bone density, often due to greater osteoclast activity than osteoblast activity. -It makes bones weaker and more prone to fractures, with causes like menopause, immobilization, and steroid use
Osteoporosis
56
What complication of bone healing is associated with: Slower healing
Delayed Healing
57
What complication of bone healing is associated with: Failure to heal
Nonunion
58
What complication of bone healing is associated with: Bone heals in a non-anatomic position
Malunion
59
What type of fracture fixation is this? Uses plates, rods, and screws.
Rigid internal Fixation
60
What type of fracture fixation is this? Uses external devices with pins and bars to stabilize fractures.
External Fixation
61
What are the 3 methods listed below used for? 1.Bone grafts: Allograft or autograft. 2.Electromagnetic fields or Low-intensity ultrasound. 3.Ceramic bone graft substitutes: Hydroxyapatite, tricalcium phosphate
Stimulation of fracture repair
62
Name 3 affects of immobilization can have on bone healing?
1.Immobilization for over 1 week can slow bone remodeling. 2.After 3 months, bone strength can decrease by 55-60%. 3.Goal is to balance immobilization for healing with minimizing negative effects.
63
What are the items listed below referring to? 1. Improve fitness and maintain non-immobilized joints. 2. Minimize muscle atrophy and promote strength. 3. Protect the healing structure. 4. Teach safe transfers and gait.
Goals of Rehabilitation During Immobilization
64
Natural healing sequence includes a period of instability
Secondary-periosteal callus
65
What process is occurring 1.Fracture occurs. 2.Bleeding occurs; hematoma results. 3.Granulation tissue forms by the hematoma (callus). 4. Osteoblasts produce new bone. 5. Callus is reabsorbed and anatomic contour regained.
Bone Healing
66
The Primary function of ________ is to cover the ends of bones in synovial joints, providing a viscoelastic structure that bears compressive loads and resists wear and friction.
Articular Cartilage
67
_________composed primarily of water, type II collagen, and proteoglycans (glycosaminoglycans or GAGs). Chondrocytes make up only 5% of the cartilage.
Articular Cartilage
68
What are the zones of articular cartilage ( name 4)
1.Superficial zone 2.Middle or transitional zone 3.Deep zone 4.Zone of calcified cartilage
69
_______ makes up more than 50% of the dry weight of articular cartilage, with the majority being type II collagen. It provides tensile strength and structure.
Collagen
70
Articular cartilage lacks blood vessels, meaning it cannot form a fibrin scaffold or mobilize repair cells. This limits its ability to heal naturally. It is considered to be ________?
Avascular
71
______ can lead to atrophy, degeneration, chondrocyte necrosis, and subchondral bone lesions, particularly with prolonged or rigid _______? What is causing the negative effects on Articular Cartilage? Hint...The answer is the same for both blanks
Immobilzation
72
These are common cause or injury to________? Joint instability, blunt trauma, repetitive loading, and immobilization are common causes of degenerative joint disease and articular cartilage injury.
Articular Cartilage
73
These are the stages of ________ articular cartilage? 1.Fraying of hyaline cartilage 2.Blistering of the articular surface 3.Splitting of the articular surface
Degenerative
74
Superficial defects do not heal well due to the lack of vascularization, whereas deeper injuries expose blood vessels and stimulate an inflammatory response that leads to healing with type I collagen. However, the scar tissue remains inferior to normal cartilage. This is asscocated with what?
The healing process of articular cartilage
75
These are _______ methods to stimulate cartilage repair? 1.Limited weight-bearing activities 2.ROM exercises that don't produce pain or crepitus 3.Isometric exercises 4.Modified exercise regimens 5.Avoiding glucosamine/chondroitin and viscosupplementation
Noninvasive
76
_______ is a technique that stimulates mesenchymal stem cells in the subchondral bone to initiate a healing response for cartilage defects.
microfracture surgery
77
What is this 2 stage surgical procedure describing? 1.Harvesting articular cartilage from the trochlea or intercondylar notch. 2.Culturing the chondrocytes in a lab and re-implanting them 6–18 weeks later to generate new cartilage
autologous chondrocyte implantation (ACI)
78
____________is composed of water and type I collagen. It is found in the menisci of the knee, shoulder, and hip joints, and acts as a shock absorber.
fibrocartilage
79
The__________dissipates extreme compression loads, serves as a mechanical buffer between the tibia and femur, and limits knee hyperextension.
meniscus
80
These type of tears occur in people under 40, often due to compression, torque, or sudden movements.
Traumatic Tears
81
These type of tears occur in people over 40, often due to wear and tear over time
Degenerative Tears
82
The peripheral borders of the medial and lateral ___________(10-30% of the tissue width) are vascularized and can heal. Nonvascularized areas require partial or total meniscectomy
Meniscus
83
Surgical repair of the _________ depends on the injury's extent and location and may involve arthroscopic repair also know as a______?
1. Meniscus 2.meniscectomy
84
________is the process of new blood vessel formation, which helps in mobilizing repair molecules and undifferentiated cells that are necessary for cartilage healing.
Angiogenesis
85
With the examples give below what would be the grade of recovery Motor M0-M1 Sensory S0-S1
Poor
86
With the examples give below what would be the grade of recovery Motor M2 Sensory S2
Fair
87
With the examples give below what would be the grade of recovery Motor M3 Sensory S3
Good
88
With the examples give below what would be the grade of recovery Motor M4-M5 Sensory S4
Excellent
89
Inner most layer of arteries and veins containing connective tissue, endothelial cells, and a basement membrane
Tunica Interna
90
Medial layer of arteries and veins that consist of smooth muscle and connective tissue.
Tunica Media
91
Outermost layer of arteries and veins consisting of fibrous connective tissue that blends with loose surrounding connective tissue.
Tunica Adventitia or Externa
92
The most significant histochemical event in vascular response
intimal hyperplasia
93
symptoms include the traditional indications of pulselessness, pallor, paresthesia, pain and paralysis are what type of signs
Hard signs
94
These signs are a possible history of arterial bleeding, hematoma over a peripheral artery, and a neurologic deficit originating in a nerve adjacent to the injured artery
Soft sign
95
includes a spectrum of blood clotting pathologies from superficial thrombophlebitis to deep vein thrombosis
Venous Thromboembolism
96
Venous Thromboembolism can progress into a _________?
Pulmonary embolism
97
Factors like hypercoagulability, venous injury, venous stasis are part of the ________?
Virchow's Triad
98
Fracture of clavicle or first rib could injure what artery?
Subclavian
99
Fracture of neck or humerus, anterior dislocation of shoulder could injure what artery?
Axillary
100
Fracture of supracondylar area of the humerus or dislocation of the elbow could injury what artery?
Brachial
101
Fracture of shaft of femur could injure what artery?
Superficial femoral
102
Fracture of supracondylar area of femur or posterior dislocation of the knee could injure what artery?
Popliteal
103
Fracture of proximal tibia or fibula could injure what artery
Popliteal, tibioperoneal trunk, tibial, or peroneal
104
Fracture of distal tibia or fibula could injure what aretery.
Tibial or peroneal