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202v3 > Chapter 3 - General Flight Rules > Flashcards

Chapter 3 - General Flight Rules Flashcards

1
Q

How many hours of crew rest must commanders and supervisors ensure aircrew are provided prior to the beginning of the flight duty period?

202v3 para. 3.1

A

12 hours

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2
Q

Define crew rest

202v3 para. 3.1

A

“Crew rest is free time and includes time for meals, transportation, and an opportunity for at least 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep. Crew rest cannot begine until after the completion of official duties. Crew rest is compulsory for aircrew members prior to performingany duties involving aircraft operations and is a minimum of 12 non-duty hours before the flight duty period (FDP) begins.”

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3
Q

What is the definition of interrupted crew rest?

202v3 para. 3.1.2

A

“Any official business conducted after crew rest.”

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4
Q

May the PIC (or designee) initiate mission-related communication with official agencies without interrupting crew rest?

202v3 para. 3.1.2

A

Yes

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5
Q

What do you do if crew rest is interrupted?

202v3 para. 3.1.2

A

“If crew rest is interrupted, individuals will immediately inform the PIC or mission execution authority and will either begin a new crew rest period or not perform flight duties.”

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6
Q

Can you have your 12-hour crew rest waived after crew rest has already started?

202v3 para. 3.1.3

A

No, you must be notified prior to the start of crew rest

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7
Q

If crew rest has been waived, does the PIC have to accept the reduced crew rest?

202v3 para. 3.1.3

A

No

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8
Q

When may crew rest be reduced to a minimum of 10 hours by the PIC?

202v3 para. 3.1.4

A

When 3 or more consecutive days of flight duty periods of at least 12 hours occur

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9
Q

When does the flight duty period being and end?

202v3 para. 3.2.1

A

When an aircrew member first reports for official duty and ends after the final engine shutdown after the final flight of the completed mission

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10
Q

How long can the PIC extend FDP for unplanned mission delays?

202v3 para. 3.2.2

A

A max of 2 hours

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11
Q

What is deadhead time?

202v3 para. 3.3

A

It is an official duty performed by an aircrew member flying as a passenger while on flights orders and may be flown without crew rest

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12
Q

If you are planning to perform flight-related duties after deadhead time, do crew rest restrictions still apply?

202v3 para. 3.3.1

A

Yes

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13
Q

How are deadhead aircrew annotated on the Flight Authorization?

202v3 para. 3.3.3

A

“as mission essential personnel” (they’re not passengers)

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14
Q

What is the max flying time in 7 consecutive days? in 30 days? in 90 days?

202v3 para. 3.7

A

56 hours
125
330

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15
Q

Does cockpit rest reset required crew rest?

202v3 para. 3.5

A

no

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16
Q

When can Controlled Cockpit Rest be accomplished?

202v3 para. 3.5

A

When “authorized by the MAJCOM and only during non-critical phases of flight.”

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17
Q

For night operations, what must aircrew have?

202v3 para. 3.6.2

A

An operable flashlight

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18
Q

“Aircrew who require corrective spectacles will carry…?”

202v3 para. 3.7.1

A

“…a backup set of clear MAJCOM-approved corrective lenses while performing aircrew duties.”

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19
Q

Oxymetazoline/Phenylephrine nasal spray rules
(i.e. AFRIN)

202v3 para. 3.7.2.2

A

“may be carried should unexpected ear or sinus block occur during flight. NOTE: Not for treatment of symptoms prior to flight. If used, the member is considered duties not including flying (DNIF) until cleared by flight medicine.”

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20
Q

Are nicotine patches allowed in flight?

202v3 para. 3.11

A

Yes

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21
Q

Rules for cell phones while flying

202v3 para. 3.16.5

A

“Personnel will turn off the cellular function of devices while airborne… It is also USAF guidance to keep cellular devices off when airborne above a foreign territory. Note: This restriction exists to prevent potential disruption of the cellular ground network. It is unrelated to aircraft operations.”

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22
Q

Can EFBs be used a a PFR?

202v3 para. 3.17.1

A

No

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23
Q

Can aircrew hold EFBs in their hands during critical phases of flight?

202v3 para. 3.17.2

A

Yes, provided that it is operationally neccesary

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24
Q

If an airport has an operating control tower, what must aircrew attain from ATC? For what procedures do they need this for?

202v3 para. 3.18

A

A clearance.

A clearance is needed “before taxiing, proceeding onto a runway, takeoff or landing”

“If a taxi route requires crossing any runway, pilots will hold short until obtaining specific clearance to cross each runway.”

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25
Q

Are you required to read back all taxi and hold short instructions?

202v3 para. 3.18

A

Yes

26
Q

If you do not have supplemental oxygen, what altitude can you not operate above?

202v3 para. 3.21.1.1

A

14,000

27
Q

At what altitude must you use supplemental oxygen?

202v3 para. 3.21

A

Anytime the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 10,000 ft MSL

28
Q

“Ensure (how much?) oxygen for the planned mission is available to (whom?) before (when?)”

202v3 para. 3.21

A

“sufficient”
“all occupants”
“takeoff”

29
Q

“Pilots flying pressurized operations will maintain a cabin altitude below (how many?) feet…”

202v3 para. 3.21

A

10,000

30
Q

If any portion of your flight is conducted in IMC, at night, or with high-g maneuvering, how long can you remain inbetween 10,000 and 12,500 ft MSL without supplemental oxygen?

202v3 para. 3.21.1.3

A

1 hour

31
Q

How long can you be between 12,500 and 14,000 ft MSL without supplemental oxygen?

202v3 para. 3.21.1.3

A

30 minutes

32
Q

What must aircrew immediately report “to the appropriate controlling agency” in flight?

202v3 para. 3.20.1

A

-Hazardous weather conditions
-Wake turbulence
-Volcanic activity
-Large concentrations of birds or wildlife on or near the airfield
-Any other significant flight condition that may affect aviation safety

33
Q

Are you required to declare Min Fuel or Emer Fuel?

202v3 para. 3.20.2

A

Yes

34
Q

If your cabin altitude exceeds 18,000 ft MSL following a rapid D, what must happen after?

202v3 para. 3.21.5

A

You must be evaluated by a flight surgeon prior to further flight

35
Q

How many hours after landing can decompression sickness occur?

202v3 para. 3.21.6

A

Up to 12 hours

36
Q

If you experience hypoxia in flight, are you allowed to fly once you feel better after landing?

202v3 para. 3.21.7

A

No you must be evaluated by a flight surgeon

37
Q

“Turn on (which?) lights prior to (when?) and do not turn them off until (when?).”

202v3 para. 3.22.2

A

“anti-collision or strobe lights”
“engine start”
“after engine shutdown”

38
Q

Can you turn on landing lights prior to crossing the hold short line?

202v3 para. 3.22.3

A

No you must turn them on after takeoff clearance is received and the aircraft is on the active runway

39
Q

What must the yielding aircraft not do when avoiding traffic?

202v3 para. 3.24

A

They must not pass over, under, abeam or ahead of the other aircraft unless well clear

40
Q

“PIC will (do what?) to avoid collision, regardless of who has the right-of-way.”

202v3 para. 3.24

A

“take action necessary”

41
Q

Who has the right away over all air traffic?

202v3 para. 3.24.1

A

Aircraft in distress

42
Q

When an aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude, who has the right away?

202v3 para. 3.24.3

A

The aircraft to the other’s right

43
Q

What shall you do if you are approaching an aircraft head on?

202v3 para. 3.24.3

A

Each aircraft shall alter their course to their right

44
Q

If you are about to overtake an aircraft, who has the right away and what must you do?

202v3 para. 3.24.4

A

The overtaken aircraft has the right away. You, as the overtaker, must alter your course to the right

45
Q

Whom does an aircraft on final approach have the right of way over?

202v3 para. 3.24.5

A

Other aircraft on the ground or in the air

46
Q

If two or more aircraft are approaching to land, who has the right away?

202v3 para. 3.24.5

A

The aircraft at the lower altitude

47
Q

What is the order of priorities for right away for aircraft of different categories?

202v3 para. 3.24.2

A
  1. Balloons
  2. Gliders
  3. Aircraft towing or refueling other aircraft
  4. Airships
  5. Rotary- or Fixed-Wing
48
Q

Regardless if an operation is conducted under IFR or VFR, who must maintain vigilance for the see and avoid principle?

202v3 para. 3.25

A

Each pilot operating an aircraft

49
Q

If an ATC clearance is given to you containing altitude, restrictions, vectors, headings, altimeter settings, and runway assignments. Do you have to read them back, and if so in what order?

202v3 para. 3.26

A

Yes you must, and read them back in the order that they were given.

50
Q

Descent gradients in excess of what may induce spatial D?

202v3 para. 3.27

A

Greater than 10 degrees (1,000 ft per NM)

51
Q

Below what altitude should you avoid a descent gradient more than 10 degress NL?

202v3 para. 3.27

A

Below 15,000 ft

52
Q

What margin of error must you maintain your airspeed within (when ATC assigns you a speed)?

202v3 para. 3.28.1

A

+/- 10 knots or 0.02 mach

53
Q

If ATC tells you to “resume normal speed”, does that cancel the published speed restrictions on an instrument approach?

202v3 para. 3.28.2

A

No

54
Q

What is the approximate separation guide for operating near other aircraft?

202v3 para. 3.29

A

“Do not allow the aircraft to be flown so close to another that it creates a collision hazard… Use 500 feet of seperation as an approximate guide except for:
-Authorized formation flights.
-Emergency situations…”

55
Q

Under what areas and clearances must you squawk 4000?

202v3 para. 3.35.6

A

“[NAS Only] Aircraft operating VFR or IFR in restricted areas, warning areas, or on a VFR military training route (VR) will squawk 4000 unless another code has been assigned by ATC.”

56
Q

How will pilots respond to RAs given by the aircraft TCAS?

202v3 para. 3.37.1

A

“Pilots will respond to all RAs regardless of ATC instructions, right-of-way rules, cloud clearance requirements, or other VFR or IFR flight rules, as directed by TCAS unless doinbg so would jeopardize the safe operation of the aircraft (e.g., descent into obstacles).”

57
Q

How will pilots respond to TAs given by the aircraft TCAS?

202v3 para. 3.37.1.1

A

“Do not deviate from an assigned ATC clearance based solely on traffic advisory information. Attempt to attain visual contact and maintain safe separation.”

58
Q

“Formation leads will brief formation flight operations to (whom?)”

202v3 para. 3.41

A

“All participating aircraft.”

59
Q

Define Aerobatic flight

202v3 para. 3.42

A

“Aerobatic flight means an intentional maneuver involving an abrupt change in an aircraft’s attitude, an abnormal attitude, or abnormal acceleration, not necessary for normal flight.”

60
Q

“Pilots shall not operate an aircraft in aerobatic flight under any of the following circumstances:”

“Unless satisfying conditions outlines in paragraph 3.42.1”

202v3 para. 3.42.2

A

-Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
-Over an open air assembly of persons.
-Within the lateral boundaries of the surface areas of Class B, Class C, Class D, or Class E airspace designated for an airport.
-Within 4 nautical miles of the center line of any Federal airway.
-Below an altitude of 1,500 feet above the surface.
-When flight visibility is less than 3 statute miles.

61
Q

Simulated Flameout, Forced Landing, or Emergency Landing Patterns (SFO/ELP) maneuvers shall only be accomplished… (where?)

202v3 para. 3.47.6

A

“At controlled fields where…the facility air traffic manager shall issue a letter of agreement [LOA] with the apporpriate military authority and adjacent facilities as required.” (So you may only practice SFO/ELPs are LOA airfields)

202v3 (14 decks)

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