Chapter 3 - Normal Operating Procedures Flashcards
(118 cards)
1
Q
Can you carry cans of oil or hydraulic fluid in the aircraft?
A
Yes… supisingly you can put them in the WSSP
2
Q
Where will objects not be placed during start with the canopies open?
A
On top of the glareshield
3
Q
Normal recovery fuel in the T38?
A
As established locally, or 800 lbs, whichever is higher
4
Q
Minimum fuel in the T38
A
Declare when it becomes apparant you will land with less than 600 lbs
5
Q
Emergency fuel in the T38
A
Declare when it becomes apparant you will land with less than 400 lbs
6
Q
Taxi interval - staggared (day)
A
150 ft
7
Q
Taxi interval in trail
A
300 ft
8
Q
When can normal taxi spacing intervals be reduced?
A
When holding short of or entering a runway. Use caution to avoid jet blast when canopies are open
9
Q
Taxi spacing with ice or snow
A
Taxi on centerline with a minimum of 300 ft spacing
10
Q
Regardless of runway width, what clearance must be maintained between wingman and element leader for any formation takeoff?
A
At least wingtip clearance
11
Q
For a formation takeoff, place wingman on upwind side if crosswind component exceeds ___ knots.
A
5
12
Q
Do not takeoff with a RCR less than ___.
A
10
13
Q
For a single ship or interval takeoff, pilots will not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds ___ percent of the available runway
A
80
14
Q
For a formation takeoff, pilots will not take off if the computed takeoff roll exceeds ___ percent of the available runway
A
70
15
Q
Runway width needed for formation takeoff
A
150 ft
16
Q
Takeoff interval between aircraft or elements
A
10 seconds minimum
17
Q
Takeoff spacing when joinup will be conducted above the clouds
A
20 seconds minimum
18
Q
Day weather criterea for join-up underneath a ceiling
A
1500’ and 3
19
Q
Flight lead will maintain ___ knots until join up is accomplished unless briefed or directed otherwise
A
300
Standard at SPS is slightly different - see standards
20
Q
Flight lead will not normally exceed __ degrees of bank during a turning join-up
A
30
21
Q
For a SRJ, #2 will normally join to the __ side while the element will join to the __ side.
A
Left, Right
22
Q
Except for range procedures, min altitude for low altitude maneuvering.
A
500 ft AGL
23
Q
Min altitude during any portion of aerobatic maneuvering
A
5000 ft AGL
24
Q
Flight through wingtip vortices should be avoided. If it cannot be, what should you do?
A
Unload immediately to approx 1 G. Use asymmetric G limits if evaluating a jetwash induced over-G
25
Min airspeed for all maneuvering unless conducting training under a formal syllabus that specifies or allows it
150 KTS
26
Pilots will conduct a Gx anytime aircrews plan or are likely to maneuver above ____ Gs during the mission
5 (4 for UPT students)
27
Minimum seperation between aircraft during Gx
4000 ft (2T38v3 - General guidance)
6000 ft (Sheppard Standard)
28
Primary means of ensuring aircraft deconfliction during Gx
Visual lookout and formation contract
29
Conduct the Gx in the following airspace preference (4)
1. Special use airspace
2. Not in special use airspace but above 10,000
3. In a MTR or LL training route
4. Not in special use airspace and below 10,000
30
Pilots will not use rolling maneuvers to maintain or regain formation position below _____.
5000 ft AGL
31
Maximum flight size in IMC
4
32
Can you initiate a lead change from non wings level attitude? What if you are in limited visibility conditions?
Yes, No
33
Min altitude for changing lead over land, over water, and in IMC (or at night) unless on radar downwind (3 answers)
500ft, 1000ft, 1500ft AGL
34
When a flight member or element calls blind, initial actions for other flight member or element
1. Be directive
2. Make an informative position call
35
Min altitude seperation for deconfliction in double blind scenario
500 ft (11-2T38v3)
1000 ft is normal
36
What to do in the case there is no timely response to an initial blind call (3 things)
1. Maneuver away from last known position of #1
2. Alter altitude
3. Repeat blind call
37
Chase spacing
30-60 degree cone out to 1000 ft
38
Chase aircraft will stack no lower than lead aircraft below ____.
1000 ft AGL
39
What is the T38 approach category?
E
40
What to do if there are no published category E minimums on an approach?
Use category D minimums if...
1. Straight-in approach is flown
2. Aircraft is flown at final approach airspeed of 165 or less
3. Aircraft is flown at 260 knots true airspeed or less for missed approach (at higher pressure altitudes and temps, 260 knots true airspeed may not be compatible with published missed approach airspeeds and cat D should not be flown)
41
Instrument trail departure: min spacing
20 seconds
42
Instrument trail departure: airspeed / power control
1. Accelerate in AB to 250
2. Accelerate in Mil to 300
3. Climb at 300 knots setting 600 EGT until reaching cruise airspeed
43
Instrument trail departure: bank angle in turn
30 degrees
44
Instrument trail departure: min vertical separation until visual
1000 ft
45
If formation breakup must be accomplished in IMC, what information should lead transmit
Altitude, Airspeed, Heading, Altimeter (make sure also to accomplish a good alpha check)
46
Max number of aircraft for a formation penetration if weather at base of intended landing is less than overhead traffic pattern minimums
2
47
Formation penetration: when should wingman be placed on the correct side if formation landing is intended
Prior to weather penetration
48
VMC Drag: min weather
1500' and 3
49
VMC Drag: What to coordinate for if VMC drag is to be executed under IFR
Nonstandard formation
50
VMC Drag: min airspeed for either wing or lead
Final approach airspeed
51
VMC Drag: min spacing
3000 ft
52
VMC Drag: definition of latest drag point
Adequate time for wingman to establish required separation and then for the flight lead to slow to final approach airspeed prior to 3 nm from the runway. Normally accomplished prior to FAF or glideslope intercept for instrument final approaches
53
VMC Drag: what should wingman do if uncertain about spacing
Go around or execute the missed approach, notify ATC, comply with local procedures
54
Climbs or descents through icing conditions more severe than ____ are prohibited
light rime
55
T or F. The T38 can fly in areas of known or reported icing
False
56
G and bank limitations in high or hilly terrain
Positive G and 120 degrees of bank max
57
Do not stack lower than lead below ___.
1000 ft AGL
58
Min airspeed for low level navigation
300 KTS
59
During low altitude training, maintain a minimum of ___ above the highest terrain within ____ of the aircraft
500 ft, 1/2 nm
60
During low altitude training, pilots will set the altitude warning function to alert the pilot at no less than _____ percent of planned altitude during low-level operations
90%
61
What should be the reaction in low-level environment to task saturation, diverted attention, KIO, or emergencies
Climb to MSA or RAA
62
Reaction in low-level environment to birdstrike / aircraft loses canopy
Immediately select MIL or MAX on both engines and climb away from the ground
63
Weather minimums for visual low-level training
1500' and 3
3000' and 5 for VR routes
64
Night taxi spaxing
300 ft, taxi on centerline
65
T or F. Landing/taxi light will normally be used during all night taxi ops
True, unless it might interfere with the vision of another pilot
66
How to initiate brake release / gear retraction for night formation takeoff?
Radio
67
Desired touchdown point for a VFR approach
150 - 1000 feet (AFMAN, what does the 251 say about this?)
68
Min low approach altitude for chase aircraft in emergency
300 ft
69
Min weather for formation approach
500' and 1.5 miles vis
70
Max crosswind component: dry runway (solo UPT stud)
15 knots (including gusts)
71
Max crosswind component: wet runway (solo UPT stud)
10 knots (including gusts)
72
Min runway length with crosswind greater than 15 knots and no suitable barrier, for 60% and 100% flaps touch and go's
10,000
73
Do not perform ____ on runways without a suitable barrier when the crosswind component exceeds ____ knots
no-flap touch-and-gos, 15 knots
74
AETC: The speed at which the aircraft can experience an instantaneous engine failure and still accelerate to SETOS and takeoff in the remaining runway
Decision speed
75
AETC: The maximum speed to which the aircraft is able to accelerate with both engines operating in MAX, and either: Abort with Both Engines Operating (BEO) or abort with an Engine Failure (EF)
Refusal speed
76
AETC: Defined as the speed at which main gear lifts off the runway
Takeoff Speed (TOS)
77
AETC: Pilots will ensure calculated landing distance is less than or equal to which Declared Distance
Landing Distance Available (LDA)
78
AETC: Prior to performing a rolling takeoff, the pilot must consider TOLD with a runway length _____ less than the available runway.
300 ft
79
AETC: If performing a rolling takeoff, if using Declared Distances, subtract ____ ft from both ASDA and TORA calculations as applicable.
300 ft
80
AETC: Single ship rolling takeoffs are authorized only _____.
during daylight hours
81
AETC: Which type of arresting system is the only one suitable for stopping an aircraft with a travel pod?
BAK-15
82
AETC: Which type of arresting system is suitable only for clean aircraft?
MA-1A
83
AETC: Minimum runway length required for operations
8000 ft (OG/CC can waive this to 7000)
84
AETC: Required wingtip clearance for engine run-up with a solo in any position
50 ft
85
AETC: Min altitude for stalls or slow flight
8000 ft AGL
86
AETC: Max altitude for stalls or slow flight (and min power setting)
FL200, 80%
87
AETC: Max altitude and weather requirements for practice unusual attitude recoveries
FL240 and VMC
88
AETC: Do not fly formation above what altitude
FL350
89
AETC: Do not fly above this altitude except in case of emergency
FL390
90
AETC: It is prohibited to practice no-flap patterns and landings with more than ____ fuel.
2500 lbs
91
AETC: UFT pilots will accomplish a G-awareness exercise when maneuvers in excess of ___ Gs are anticipated
4
92
AETC: Low altitude training should commence no earlier than ___ after sunrise (___ in mountaneous terrain)
30 minutes, 1 hour
93
AETC: Plan to exit the low altitude structure no later than ___ prior to sunset (___ in mountaneous terrain)
30 minutes, 1 hour
94
AETC: Max airspeed for UFT low level training
420 knots
95
AETC: Min altitude for flying VFR point-to-point navigation missions
3000 ft AGL
96
AETC: All night landings require ___
operational glidepath guidance (precision approach or visual glidepath guidance)
97
AETC: All descents below MDA on a night nonprecision approach require ____
an operational visual approach system
98
AETC: For parallel runway configurations that do not allow for ____ to ____ ft of lateral spacing, local procedures can dictate spacing to a minimum of ___ ft of lateral spacing
4000, 6000, 2000
99
AETC: Max crosswind for single ship touch and go's for a dry runway
25 knots
100
AETC: Extended daylight definition. For local area training only, what daylight operations can be conducted during this time.
15 minutes before official sunrise - 15 minutes after official sunset. Daylight traffic pattern, and MOA operation.
101
AETC: What maneuveres may be performed during extended daylight?
Everything (all maneuvers normally accomplished during normal daylight hours) including solo syllabus sorties
102
AETC: Local training flights are not permitted over land when steady state surface winds (forecast or actual) in training or operating areas exceed ___ knots. Why?
35 knots. Hazard posed to crew members in case of ejection
103
AETC: Overwater wind/wave restriction for ejection considerations
10 ft waves, surface winds > 25 knots
104
AETC: Min weather for extended trail or aerobatics
3nm vis, clear of clouds, discernible horizon
105
80 OG: Tire restriction for main gear tires on out-and-back or cross country missions - Michelin tires
No cords are showing
106
80 OG: Tire restriction for main gear tires on out-and-back or cross country missions - Goodyear tires
Ensure no angled cords after the zero degree cords are showing
107
80 OG: The canopy jettison pin will not be removed until...
clear of any covered parking area
108
80 OG: Pilots will ensure ___ prior to arming the ejection seat via the SAFE/ARMED handle
both canopies are down and locked
109
80 OG: If both cockpits are occupied, what should be verbally confirmed prior to engine run up?
ISS in briefed position
110
80 OG: When the ambient temperture is less than ____ or the density altitude is _____ or below, turn on anti-ice prior to engine takeoff run-up and smoothly advance the throttle to MAX AB. Turn anti-ice off no earlier than ___ and no later than ____.
40 F (4 C), -1000, deselection of AB, the first level-off check
111
80 OG: For 3 and 4 ship formations, what will the last aircraft squawk until rejoined to standard formation?
4700 TA
112
80 OG: For a trail departure, when can lead direct the formation to switch to departure frequency?
When all aircraft are airborn or certain the barrier is no longer needed
113
80 OG: Departure speed / power for lead on a trail departure
300 KTS and 600 EGT in the climbout until rejoined (even above 10,000 ft MSL)
114
80 OG: Min altitude level-off block for 3-ship
2000'
115
80 OG: Min altitude level-off block for a 4-ship
3000'
116
80 OG: Normally, initiate VMC drag NLT ____ from the rwy
8 miles
117
80 OG: For VMC drag, lead will maintain ____ KCAS until ____ miles from the runway, then slow to final approach airspeed
180, 3
118
80 OG: When directed to drag, wingman will set what transponder code, and drag to what distance range.
0377, call "C/S, saddled" once 3000-6000 foot spacing is established
