Chapter 34 Coronary Artery Disease and Acute Coronary Syndrome Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Chapter 34 Coronary Artery Disease and Acute Coronary Syndrome Deck (41)
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When developing a teaching plan for a 61-year-old man with the following risk factors for coronary artery disease (CAD), the nurse should focus on the

a. family history of coronary artery disease.
b. increased risk associated with the patient’s gender.
c. increased risk of cardiovascular disease as people age.
d. elevation of the patient’s low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level.


Because family history, gender, and age are nonmodifiable risk factors, the nurse should focus on the patient’s LDL level. Decreases in LDL will help reduce the patient’s risk for developing CAD.


Which nursing intervention will be most effective when assisting the patient with coronary artery disease (CAD) to make appropriate dietary changes?

a. Give the patient a list of low-sodium, low-cholesterol foods that should be included in the diet.
b. Emphasize the increased risk for heart problems unless the patient makes the dietary changes.
c. Help the patient modify favorite high-fat recipes by using monosaturated oils when possible.
d. Inform the patient that a diet containing no saturated fat and minimal salt will be necessary.


Lifestyle changes are more likely to be successful when consideration is given to the patient’s values and preferences. The highest percentage of calories from fat should come from monosaturated fats. Although low-sodium and low-cholesterol foods are appropriate, providing the patient with a list alone is not likely to be successful in making dietary changes. Completely removing saturated fat from the diet is not a realistic expectation. Up to 7% of calories in the therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) diet can come from saturated fat. Telling the patient about the increased risk without assisting further with strategies for dietary change is unlikely to be successful.


Which assessment data collected by the nurse who is admitting a patient with chest pain suggest that the pain is caused by an acute myocardial infarction (AMI)?

a. The pain increases with deep breathing.
b. The pain has lasted longer than 30 minutes.
c. The pain is relieved after the patient takes nitroglycerin.
d. The pain is reproducible when the patient raises the arms.


Chest pain that lasts for 20 minutes or more is characteristic of AMI. Changes in pain that occur with raising the arms or with deep breathing are more typical of musculoskeletal pain or pericarditis. Stable angina is usually relieved when the patient takes nitroglycerin.


Which information given by a patient admitted with chronic stable angina will help the nurse confirm this diagnosis?

a. The patient states that the pain “wakes me up at night.”
b. The patient rates the pain at a level 3 to 5 (0 to 10 scale).
c. The patient states that the pain has increased in frequency over the last week.
d. The patient states that the pain “goes away” with one sublingual nitroglycerin tablet.


Chronic stable angina is typically relieved by rest or nitroglycerin administration. The level of pain is not a consistent indicator of the type of angina. Pain occurring at rest or with increased frequency is typical of unstable angina.


After the nurse has finished teaching a patient about the use of sublingual nitroglycerin (Nitrostat), which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?

a. “I can expect some nausea as a side effect of nitroglycerin.”
b. “I should only take the nitroglycerin if I start to have chest pain.”
c. “I will call an ambulance if I still have pain after taking 3 nitroglycerin 5 minutes apart.”
d. “Nitroglycerin helps prevent a clot from forming and blocking blood flow to my heart.”


The emergency medical services (EMS) system should be activated when chest pain or other symptoms are not completely relieved after 3 sublingual nitroglycerin tablets taken 5 minutes apart. Nitroglycerin can be taken to prevent chest pain or other symptoms from developing (e.g., before intercourse). Gastric upset (e.g., nausea) is not an expected side effect of nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin does not impact the underlying pathophysiology of coronary artery atherosclerosis.


Which statement made by a patient with coronary artery disease after the nurse has completed teaching about therapeutic lifestyle changes (TLC) diet indicates that further teaching is needed?

a. “I will switch from whole milk to 1% milk.”
b. “I like salmon and I will plan to eat it more often.”
c. “I can have a glass of wine with dinner if I want one.”
d. “I will miss being able to eat peanut butter sandwiches.”


Although only 30% of the daily calories should come from fats, most of the fat in the TLC diet should come from monosaturated fats such as are found in nuts, olive oil, and canola oil. The patient can include peanut butter sandwiches as part of the TLC diet. The other patient comments indicate a good understanding of the TLC diet.


After the nurse teaches the patient about the use of carvedilol (Coreg) in preventing anginal episodes, which statement by a patient indicates that the teaching has been effective?

a. “Carvedilol will help my heart muscle work harder.”
b. “It is important not to suddenly stop taking the carvedilol.”
c. “I can expect to feel short of breath when taking carvedilol.”
d. “Carvedilol will increase the blood flow to my heart muscle.”


Patients who have been taking -adrenergic blockers can develop intense and frequent angina if the medication is suddenly discontinued. Carvedilol (Coreg) decreases myocardial contractility. Shortness of breath that occurs when taking -adrenergic blockers for angina may be due to bronchospasm and should be reported to the health care provider. Carvedilol works by decreasing myocardial oxygen demand, not by increasing blood flow to the coronary arteries.


A patient who has had chest pain for several hours is admitted with a diagnosis of rule out acute myocardial infarction (AMI). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to help determine whether the patient has had an AMI?

a. Myoglobin
b. Homocysteine
c. C-reactive protein
d. Cardiac-specific troponin


Troponin levels increase about 4 to 6 hours after the onset of myocardial infarction (MI) and are highly specific indicators for MI. Myoglobin is released within 2 hours of MI, but it lacks specificity and its use is limited. The other laboratory data are useful in determining the patient’s risk for developing coronary artery disease (CAD) but are not helpful in determining whether an acute MI is in progress.


Diltiazem (Cardizem) is ordered for a patient with newly diagnosed Prinzmetal’s (variant) angina. When teaching the patient, the nurse will include the information that diltiazem will

a. reduce heart palpitations.
b. decrease spasm of the coronary arteries.
c. increase the force of the heart contractions.
d. help prevent plaque from forming in the coronary arteries.


Prinzmetal’s angina is caused by coronary artery spasm. Calcium channel blockers (e.g., diltiazem, amlodipine [Norvasc]) are a first-line therapy for this type of angina. Lipid-lowering drugs help reduce atherosclerosis (i.e., plaque formation), and -adrenergic blockers decrease sympathetic stimulation of the heart (i.e., palpitations). Medications or activities that increase myocardial contractility will increase the incidence of angina by increasing oxygen demand.


The nurse will suspect that the patient with stable angina is experiencing a side effect of the prescribed metoprolol (Lopressor) if the

a. patient is restless and agitated.
b. blood pressure is 90/54 mm Hg.
c. patient complains about feeling anxious.
d. cardiac monitor shows a heart rate of 61 beats/minute.

Patients taking -adrenergic blockers should be monitored for hypotension and bradycardia. Because this class of medication inhibits the sympathetic nervous system, restlessness, agitation, hypertension, and anxiety will not be side effects.

Nadolol (Corgard) is prescribed for a patient with chronic stable angina and left ventricular dysfunction. To determine whether the drug is effective, the nurse will monitor for

a. decreased blood pressure and heart rate.
b. fewer complaints of having cold hands and feet.
c. improvement in the strength of the distal pulses.
d. the ability to do daily activities without chest pain.


Because the medication is ordered to improve the patient’s angina, effectiveness is indicated if the patient is able to accomplish daily activities without chest pain. Blood pressure and heart rate may decrease, but these data do not indicate that the goal of decreased angina has been met. The noncardioselective -adrenergic blockers can cause peripheral vasoconstriction, so the nurse would not expect an improvement in distal pulse quality or skin temperature.


Heparin is ordered for a patient with a non–ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI). What is the purpose of the heparin?

a. Heparin enhances platelet aggregation.
b. Heparin decreases coronary artery plaque size.
c. Heparin prevents the development of new clots in the coronary arteries.
d. Heparin dissolves clots that are blocking blood flow in the coronary arteries.


Heparin helps prevent the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin and decreases coronary artery thrombosis. It does not change coronary artery plaque, dissolve already formed clots, or enhance platelet aggregation.


When titrating IV nitroglycerin (Tridil) for a patient with a myocardial infarction (MI), which action will the nurse take to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

a. Monitor heart rate.
b. Ask about chest pain.
c. Check blood pressure.
d. Observe for dysrhythmias.


The goal of IV nitroglycerin administration in MI is relief of chest pain by improving the balance between myocardial oxygen supply and demand. The nurse also will monitor heart rate and blood pressure (BP) and observe for dysrhythmias, but these parameters will not indicate whether the medication is effective.


A patient with ST-segment elevation in three contiguous electrocardiographic (ECG) leads is admitted to the emergency department (ED) and diagnosed as having an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Which question should the nurse ask to determine whether the patient is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy?

a. “Do you have any allergies?”
b. “Do you take aspirin on a daily basis?”
c. “What time did your chest pain begin?”
d. “Can you rate your chest pain using a 0 to 10 scale?”


Thrombolytic therapy should be started within 6 hours of the onset of the myocardial infarction (MI), so the time at which the chest pain started is a major determinant of the appropriateness of this treatment. The other information will also be needed, but it will not be a factor in the decision about thrombolytic therapy.


Following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), a patient ambulates in the hospital hallway. When the nurse is evaluating the patient’s response to the activity, which assessment data would indicate that the exercise level should be decreased?

a. Blood pressure (BP) changes from 118/60 to 126/68 mm Hg.
b. Oxygen saturation drops from 99% to 95%.
c. Heart rate increases from 66 to 92 beats/minute.
d. Respiratory rate goes from 14 to 20 breaths/minute.


A change in heart rate of more than 20 beats over the resting heart rate indicates that the patient should stop and rest. The increases in BP and respiratory rate, and the slight decrease in oxygen saturation, are normal responses to exercise.


During the administration of the thrombolytic agent to a patient with an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse should stop the drug infusion if the patient experiences

a. bleeding from the gums.
b. increase in blood pressure.
c. a decrease in level of consciousness.
d. a nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia.


The change in level of consciousness indicates that the patient may be experiencing intracranial bleeding, a possible complication of thrombolytic therapy. Some bleeding of the gums is an expected side effect of the therapy but not an indication to stop infusion of the thrombolytic medication. A decrease in blood pressure could indicate internal bleeding. A nonsustained episode of ventricular tachycardia is a common reperfusion dysrhythmia and may indicate that the therapy is effective.


A patient is recovering from a myocardial infarction (MI) and develops chest pain on day 3 that increases when taking a deep breath and is relieved by leaning forward. Which action should the nurse take next?

a. Assess the feet for pedal edema.
b. Palpate the radial pulses bilaterally.
c. Auscultate for a pericardial friction rub.
d. Check the heart monitor for dysrhythmias.


The patient’s symptoms are consistent with the development of pericarditis, a possible complication of MI. The other assessments listed are not consistent with the description of the patient’s symptoms.


In preparation for discharge, the nurse teaches a patient with chronic stable angina how to use the prescribed short-acting and long-acting nitrates. Which patient statement indicates that the teaching has been effective?

a. “I will check my pulse rate before I take any nitroglycerin tablets.”
b. “I will put the nitroglycerin patch on as soon as I get any chest pain.”
c. “I will stop what I am doing and sit down before I put the nitroglycerin under my tongue.”
d. “I will be sure to remove the nitroglycerin patch before taking any sublingual nitroglycerin.”


The patient should sit down before taking the nitroglycerin to decrease cardiac workload and prevent orthostatic hypotension. Transdermal nitrates are used prophylactically rather than to treat acute pain and can be used concurrently with sublingual nitroglycerin. Although the nurse should check blood pressure before giving nitroglycerin, patients do not need to check the pulse rate before taking nitrates.


Three days after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI), a patient who is scheduled for discharge asks for assistance with hygiene activities, saying, “I am too nervous to take care of myself.” Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate?

a. Ineffective coping related to anxiety
b. Activity intolerance related to weakness
c. Denial related to lack of acceptance of the MI
d. Disturbed personal identity related to understanding of illness


The patient data indicate that ineffective coping after the MI caused by anxiety about the impact of the MI is a concern. The other nursing diagnoses may be appropriate for some patients after an MI, but the data for this patient do not support denial, activity intolerance, or disturbed personal identity.


When caring for a patient who is recovering from a sudden cardiac death (SCD) event and has no evidence of an acute myocardial infarction (AMI), the nurse will anticipate teaching the patient that

a. sudden cardiac death events rarely reoccur.
b. additional diagnostic testing will be required.
c. long-term anticoagulation therapy will be needed.
d. limited physical activity after discharge will be needed to prevent future events.

Diagnostic testing (e.g., stress test, Holter monitor, electrophysiologic studies, cardiac catheterization) is used to determine the possible cause of the SCD and treatment options. SCD is likely to recur. Anticoagulation therapy will not have any effect on the incidence of SCD, and SCD can occur even when the patient is resting.

A few days after experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI) and successful percutaneous coronary intervention, the patient states, “I just had a little chest pain. As soon as I get out of here, I’m going for my vacation as planned.” Which reply would be most appropriate for the nurse to make?

a. “What do you think caused your chest pain?”
b. “Where are you planning to go for your vacation?”
c. “Sometimes plans need to change after a heart attack.”
d. “Recovery from a heart attack takes at least a few weeks.”


When the patient is experiencing denial, the nurse should assist the patient in testing reality until the patient has progressed beyond this step of the emotional adjustment to MI. Asking the patient about vacation plans reinforces the patient’s plan, which is not appropriate in the immediate post-MI period. Reminding the patient in denial about the MI is likely to make the patient angry and lead to distrust of the nursing staff.


When evaluating the effectiveness of preoperative teaching with a patient scheduled for coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery using the internal mammary artery, the nurse determines that additional teaching is needed when the patient says which of the following?

a. “They will circulate my blood with a machine during the surgery.”
b. “I will have small incisions in my leg where they will remove the vein.”
c. “They will use an artery near my heart to go around the area that is blocked.”
d. “I will need to take an aspirin every day after the surgery to keep the graft open.”


When the internal mammary artery is used there is no need to have a saphenous vein removed from the leg. The other statements by the patient are accurate and indicate that the teaching has been effective.


A patient who is recovering from an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) asks the nurse about when sexual intercourse can be resumed. Which response by the nurse is best?

a. “Most patients are able to enjoy intercourse without any complications.”
b. “Sexual activity uses about as much energy as climbing two flights of stairs.”
c. “The doctor will provide sexual guidelines when your heart is strong enough.”
d. “Holding and cuddling are good ways to maintain intimacy after a heart attack.”


Sexual activity places about as much physical stress on the cardiovascular system as most moderate-energy activities such as climbing two flights of stairs. The other responses do not directly address the patient’s question or may not be accurate for this patient.


A patient with hyperlipidemia has a new order for colesevelam (Welchol). Which nursing action is most appropriate when giving the medication?

a. Have the patient take this medication with an aspirin.
b. Administer the medication at the patient’s usual bedtime.
c. Have the patient take the colesevelam with a sip of water.
d. Give the patient’s other medications 2 hours after the colesevelam.


The bile acid sequestrants interfere with the absorption of many other drugs, and giving other medications at the same time should be avoided. Taking an aspirin concurrently with the colesevelam may increase the incidence of gastrointestinal side effects such as heartburn. An increased fluid intake is encouraged for patients taking the bile acid sequestrants to reduce the risk for constipation. For maximum effect, colesevelam should be administered with meals.


The nurse is caring for a patient who was admitted to the coronary care unit following an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) and percutaneous coronary intervention the previous day. Teaching for this patient would include

a. when cardiac rehabilitation will begin.
b. the typical emotional responses to AMI.
c. information regarding discharge medications.
d. the pathophysiology of coronary artery disease.


Early after an AMI, the patient will want to know when resumption of usual activities can be expected. At this time, the patient’s anxiety level or denial will interfere with good understanding of complex information such as the pathophysiology of coronary artery disease (CAD). Teaching about discharge medications should be done closer to discharge. The nurse should support the patient by decreasing anxiety rather than discussing the typical emotional responses to myocardial infarction (MI).


A patient who has recently started taking pravastatin (Pravachol) and niacin (Nicobid) reports the following symptoms to the nurse. Which is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

a. Generalized muscle aches and pains
b. Dizziness when changing positions quickly
c. Nausea when taking the drugs before eating
d. Flushing and pruritus after taking the medications


Muscle aches and pains may indicate myopathy and rhabdomyolysis, which have caused acute kidney injury and death in some patients who have taken the statin medications. These symptoms indicate that the pravastatin may need to be discontinued. The other symptoms are common side effects when taking niacin, and although the nurse should follow-up with the health care provider, they do not indicate that a change in medication is needed.


A patient who is being admitted to the emergency department with intermittent chest pain gives the following list of medications to the nurse. Which medication has the most immediate implications for the patient’s care?

a. Sildenafil (Viagra)
b. Furosemide (Lasix)
c. Captopril (Capoten)
d. Warfarin (Coumadin)


The nurse will need to avoid giving nitrates to the patient because nitrate administration is contraindicated in patients who are using sildenafil because of the risk of severe hypotension caused by vasodilation. The other home medications also should be documented and reported to the health care provider but do not have as immediate an impact on decisions about the patient’s treatment.


Which assessment finding by the nurse caring for a patient who has had coronary artery bypass grafting using a right radial artery graft is most important to communicate to the health care provider?

a. Complaints of incisional chest pain
b. Pallor and weakness of the right hand
c. Fine crackles heard at both lung bases
d. Redness on both sides of the sternal incision


The changes in the right hand indicate compromised blood flow, which requires immediate evaluation and actions such as prescribed calcium channel blockers or surgery. The other changes are expected and/or require nursing interventions.


When caring for a patient who has just arrived on the medical-surgical unit after having cardiac catheterization, which nursing intervention should the nurse delegate to a licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

a. Give the scheduled aspirin and lipid-lowering medication.
b. Perform the initial assessment of the catheter insertion site.
c. Teach the patient about the usual postprocedure plan of care.
d. Titrate the heparin infusion according to the agency protocol.


Administration of oral medications is within the scope of practice for LPNs/LVNs. The initial assessment of the patient, patient teaching, and titration of IV anticoagulant medications should be done by the registered nurse (RN).


Which electrocardiographic (ECG) change is most important for the nurse to report to the health care provider when caring for a patient with chest pain?

a. Inverted P wave
b. Sinus tachycardia
c. ST-segment elevation
d. First-degree atrioventricular block


The patient is likely to be experiencing an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI). Immediate therapy with percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) or thrombolytic medication is indicated to minimize myocardial damage. The other ECG changes may also suggest a need for therapy, but not as rapidly.


When caring for a patient with acute coronary syndrome who has returned to the coronary care unit after having angioplasty with stent placement, the nurse obtains the following assessment data. Which data indicate the need for immediate action by the nurse?

a. Heart rate 102 beats/min
b. Pedal pulses 1+ bilaterally
c. Blood pressure 103/54 mm Hg
d. Chest pain level 7 on a 0 to 10 point scale


The patient’s chest pain indicates that restenosis of the coronary artery may be occurring and requires immediate actions, such as administration of oxygen and nitroglycerin, by the nurse. The other information indicates a need for ongoing assessments by the nurse.


A patient admitted to the coronary care unit (CCU) with an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) is restless and anxious. The blood pressure is 86/40 and heart rate is 123. Based on this information, which nursing diagnosis is a priority for the patient?

a. Acute pain related to myocardial infarction
b. Anxiety related to perceived threat of death
c. Stress overload related to acute change in health
d. Decreased cardiac output related to cardiogenic shock


All the nursing diagnoses may be appropriate for this patient, but the hypotension and tachycardia indicate decreased cardiac output and shock from the damaged myocardium. This will result in decreased perfusion to all vital organs (e.g., brain, kidney, heart) and is a priority.


When admitting a patient with a non–ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) to the intensive care unit, which action should the nurse perform first?

a. Obtain the blood pressure.
b. Attach the cardiac monitor.
c. Assess the peripheral pulses.
d. Auscultate the breath sounds.


Because dysrhythmias are the most common complication of myocardial infarction (MI), the first action should be to place the patient on a cardiac monitor. The other actions also are important and should be accomplished as quickly as possible.


Which information about a patient who has been receiving thrombolytic therapy for an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is most important for the nurse to communicate to the health care provider?

a. No change in the patient’s chest pain
b. An increase in troponin levels from baseline
c. A large bruise at the patient’s IV insertion site
d. A decrease in ST-segment elevation on the electrocardiogram


Continued chest pain suggests that the thrombolytic therapy is not effective and that other interventions such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI) may be needed. Bruising is a possible side effect of thrombolytic therapy, but it is not an indication that therapy should be discontinued. The decrease of the ST-segment elevation indicates that thrombolysis is occurring and perfusion is returning to the injured myocardium. An increase in troponin levels is expected with reperfusion and is related to the washout of cardiac markers into the circulation as the blocked vessel is opened.


The nurse obtains the following data when assessing a patient who experienced an ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) 2 days previously. Which information is most important to report to the health care provider?

a. The troponin level is elevated.
b. The patient denies ever having a heart attack.
c. Bilateral crackles are auscultated in the mid-lower lobes.
d. The patient has occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs).


The crackles indicate that the patient may be developing heart failure, a possible complication of myocardial infarction (MI). The health care provider may need to order medications such as diuretics or angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors for the patient. Elevation in troponin level at this time is expected. PACs are not life-threatening dysrhythmias. Denial is a common response in the immediate period after the MI.


A patient had a non–ST-segment-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI) 3 days ago. Which nursing intervention included in the plan of care is most appropriate for the registered nurse (RN) to delegate to an experienced licensed practical/vocational nurse (LPN/LVN)?

a. Evaluation of the patient’s response to walking in the hallway
b. Completion of the referral form for a home health nurse follow-up
c. Education of the patient about the pathophysiology of heart disease
d. Reinforcement of teaching about the purpose of prescribed medications


LPN/LVN education and scope of practice include reinforcing education that has previously been done by the RN. Evaluating the patient response to exercise after a NSTEMI requires more education and should be done by the RN. Teaching and discharge planning/ documentation are higher level skills that require RN education and scope of practice.


A patient who has chest pain is admitted to the emergency department (ED) and all of the following are ordered. Which one should the nurse arrange to be completed first?

a. Chest x-ray
b. Troponin level
c. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
d. Insertion of a peripheral IV


The priority for the patient is to determine whether an acute myocardial infarction (AMI) is occurring so that reperfusion therapy can begin as quickly as possible. ECG changes occur very rapidly after coronary artery occlusion, and an ECG should be obtained as soon as possible. Troponin levels will increase after about 3 hours. Data from the chest x-ray may impact the patient’s care but are not helpful in determining whether the patient is experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Peripheral access will be needed but not before the ECG.


After receiving change-of-shift report about the following four patients, which patient should the nurse assess first?

a. 39-year-old with pericarditis who is complaining of sharp, stabbing chest pain
b. 56-year-old with variant angina who is to receive a dose of nifedipine (Procardia)
c. 65-year-old who had a myocardial infarction (MI) 4 days ago and is anxious about the planned discharge
d. 59-year-old with unstable angina who has just returned to the unit after having a percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI)


This patient is at risk for bleeding from the arterial access site for the PCI, so the nurse should assess the patient’s blood pressure, pulse, and the access site immediately. The other patients should also be assessed as quickly as possible, but assessment of this patient has the highest priority.


To improve the physical activity level for a mildly obese 71-year-old patient, which action should the nurse plan to take?

a. Stress that weight loss is a major benefit of increased exercise.
b. Determine what kind of physical activities the patient usually enjoys.
c. Tell the patient that older adults should exercise for no more than 20 minutes at a time.
d. Teach the patient to include a short warm-up period at the beginning of physical activity.


Because patients are more likely to continue physical activities that they already enjoy, the nurse will plan to ask the patient about preferred activities. The goal for older adults is 30 minutes of moderate activity on most days. Older adults should plan for a longer warm-up period. Benefits of exercises, such as improved activity tolerance, should be emphasized rather than aiming for significant weight loss in older mildly obese adults


Which patient at the cardiovascular clinic requires the most immediate action by the nurse?

a. Patient with type 2 diabetes whose current blood glucose level is 145 mg/dL
b. Patient with stable angina whose chest pain has recently increased in frequency
c. Patient with familial hypercholesterolemia and a total cholesterol of 465 mg/dL
d. Patient with chronic hypertension whose blood pressure today is 172/98 mm Hg


The history of more frequent chest pain suggests that the patient may have unstable angina, which is part of the acute coronary syndrome spectrum. This will require rapid implementation of actions such as cardiac catheterization and possible percutaneous coronary intervention. The data about the other patients suggest that their conditions are stable.


A patient with diabetes mellitus and chronic stable angina has a new order for captopril (Capoten). The nurse should teach the patient that the primary purpose of captopril is to

a. lower heart rate.
b. control blood glucose levels.
c. prevent changes in heart muscle.
d. reduce the frequency of chest pain.


The purpose for angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors in patients with chronic stable angina who are at high risk for a cardiac event is to decrease ventricular remodeling. ACE inhibitors do not directly impact angina frequency, blood glucose, or heart rate.