Chapter 4 - Mutation and Variation Flashcards

(527 cards)

1
Q

Mutation

A

= a process that produces a gene or chromosome that differs from
the wild type

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Mutation =

A

the gene or chromosome that results from a mutational process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

mutant

A

a mutant is the organism or cell whose changed phenotype is attributed to a
mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

General Types of mutation

A
  1. Gene mutation = the allele of a gene changes (this chapter)
  2. Chromosome mutation = segments of chromosomes, whole chromosomes, or
    entire sets of chromosomes change
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does wild type (wt) mean?

A

Wild type is an arbitrary standard for what
“normal” is for an organism. Please remember that what is considered wild type today
may have been a mutant in the evolutionary past.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Direction of the mutation

A

Forward mutations are changes away from the wt
2. Reverse mutations (reversions) are changes from the mutant allele back to the
wt allel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Mechanisms for gene mutation

A
  1. Errors in DNA replication
  2. Errors in DNA repair
  3. Environmental mutagen causes DNA damage that is not repaired correctly
  4. Transposons and insertion sequences (a mobile DNA elements that can move
    from one location in the chromosome to another; the element may “jump” into a
    gene thereby mutating it)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why study gene mutation?

A
  1. Variants in genes (which are caused by mutations) are needed to study the
    transmission of traits
  2. Mutations can tell the researcher about the function of a gene product in a
    biological system
  3. Mutations are the basis for cancer and other genetic diseases
  4. Gene mutations serve as the source for most alleles in a population and is
    therefore the origin of genetic variation within a population
  5. Mutations drive evolution: mutations are the raw material upon which natural
    selection acts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Classification of mutations: Point of origin

A

Somatic mutations
a) mutations that are in the somatic tissues of the body
b) mutations are NOT transmitted to progeny
c) the extent of the phenotypic effect depends upon whether the mutation
is dominant or recessive (dominant mutations generally have a greater
effect)
d) the extent of the phenotypic effect depends upon whether it occurs
early or late in development (early arising mutations have a greater effect)
e) sectoring phenotypes may be seen when the mutation occurs during
embryonic development
f) cancer caused by somatic mutations

Germinal mutations
a) mutations that are in the germ tissues of the body
b) mutations MAY BE transmitted to progeny
c) dominant mutations are seen in first generation after the mutation
occurs
d) if a female gamete containing an X-linked mutation is fertilized, the
males will show the mutant phenotype
e) recessive mutations will only be seen upon the chance mating with an
individual carrying the recessive allele too; thus, the recessive mutation
may remain hidden for many generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Germinal mutations

A

a) mutations that are in the germ tissues of the body
b) mutations MAY BE transmitted to progeny
c) dominant mutations are seen in first generation after the mutation
occurs
d) if a female gamete containing an X-linked mutation is fertilized, the
males will show the mutant phenotype
e) recessive mutations will only be seen upon the chance mating with an
individual carrying the recessive allele too; thus, the recessive mutation
may remain hidden for many generations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Somatic mutations

A

a) mutations that are in the somatic tissues of the body
b) mutations are NOT transmitted to progeny
c) the extent of the phenotypic effect depends upon whether the mutation
is dominant or recessive (dominant mutations generally have a greater
effect)
d) the extent of the phenotypic effect depends upon whether it occurs
early or late in development (early arising mutations have a greater effect)
e) sectoring phenotypes may be seen when the mutation occurs during
embryonic development
f) cancer caused by somatic mutations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Classification of mutations:
Phenotypic effects

A
  1. Morphological mutations are mutations that affect the outwardly visible
    properties of an organism (i.e. curly ears in cats)
  2. Lethal mutations are mutations that affect the viability of the organism (i.e.
    Manx cat).
  3. Conditional mutations are mutations in which the mutant allele causes the
    mutant phenotype only in certain environments (called the restrictive condition).
    In the permissive condition, the phenotype is no longer mutant. (i.e. Siamese cat
    – mutant allele causes albino phenotype at the restrictive temperature of most of
    the cat body but not at the permissive temperature in the extremities where the
    body temperatures is lower).
  4. Biochemical mutations are mutations that may not be visible or affect a
    specific morphological characteristic but may have a general affect on the ability
    to grow or proliferate.
    a) Most microorganisms are prototrophs which means that they can grow
    on a simple growth medium including an energy source and inorganic
    salts. Biochemical mutations include those that affect proteins or enzymes
    required to grow on various nutrients or to synthesize various components.
    Thus, these mutations cause the microorganisms to become auxotrophs
    (they must be supplied with additional nutrients if they are to grow). For
    example, the bacterium Escherichia coli does NOT require the amino acid
    tryptophan for growth because they can synthesize tryptophan. However,
    there are E. coli mutants that have mutations in the trp genes. These
    mutants are auxotrophic for tryptophan, and tryptophan must be added to
    the nutrient medium for growth.
    b) Humans can also have biochemical mutations (also called inborn
    errors in metabolism). Such examples include hemophilia,
    phenylketonuria, and galactosemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Morphological mutations
A

are mutations that affect the outwardly visible
properties of an organism (i.e. curly ears in cats)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Lethal mutations

A

are mutations that affect the viability of the organism (i.e.
Manx cat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Conditional mutations

A

Conditional mutations are mutations in which the mutant allele causes the
mutant phenotype only in certain environments (called the restrictive condition).
In the permissive condition, the phenotype is no longer mutant. (i.e. Siamese cat
– mutant allele causes albino phenotype at the restrictive temperature of most of
the cat body but not at the permissive temperature in the extremities where the
body temperatures is lower).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Biochemical mutations

A

Biochemical mutations are mutations that may not be visible or affect a
specific morphological characteristic but may have a general affect on the ability
to grow or proliferate.
a) Most microorganisms are prototrophs which means that they can grow
on a simple growth medium including an energy source and inorganic
salts. Biochemical mutations include those that affect proteins or enzymes
required to grow on various nutrients or to synthesize various components.
Thus, these mutations cause the microorganisms to become auxotrophs
(they must be supplied with additional nutrients if they are to grow). For
example, the bacterium Escherichia coli does NOT require the amino acid
tryptophan for growth because they can synthesize tryptophan. However,
there are E. coli mutants that have mutations in the trp genes. These
mutants are auxotrophic for tryptophan, and tryptophan must be added to
the nutrient medium for growth.
b) Humans can also have biochemical mutations (also called inborn
errors in metabolism). Such examples include hemophilia,
phenylketonuria, and galactosemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Loss of function mutations

A

are those that destroy the function of the gene
product. Many times in diploid organisms, these are recessive mutations because
the other wild type allele still encodes a functional gene product. However, it is
possible to have a dominant loss of function mutation in which the mutant gene
product interferes with the activity of the gene product from the wild type allele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Null mutation =

A

loss of function mutation where gene product is
completely inactive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Leaky mutation =

A

loss of function mutation where gene product is not
completely inactive (partially active still)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Gain of function mutations

A

are those that produce a new function for the gene
product. Gain of function mutations are dominant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Mutation frequency =

A

of times mutation appears in the population / # of
individuals in the population where a population can be bacterial cells, people,
gametes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Mutation rate

A

= # of mutations / unit time where unit time can be per cell
division, cell generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Frequencies of mutations

A

Mutations are relatively rare.
4. Different genes have different mutation frequencies (Table 7-1)
5. Different organisms have different overall mutation frequencies (Table 7-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Detection of mutations in humans

A
  1. Detection of germinal dominant mutations by human pedigree analysis (shows
    up in the pedigree as the sudden appearance of a novel phenotype)
  2. Detection of germinal recessive mutations are more difficult because they
    remain masked by the dominant allele until the union of two heterozygotes
  3. Detection of germinal X-linked mutations arising in female gametes appear in
    some of the males in the generation after the mutation occurred.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Detection of mutations using the specific-locus test
a system for detecting recessive mutations in diploids. Heterozygote individual for gene(s)A that give phenotype A is crossed with a homozygous recessive individual for gene(s)a that gives phenotype a. The frequency of the mutant phenotype (a) is quantitated.
25
Detection of X-linked mutations in Drosophila using the ClB chromosome
The ClB chromosome is the X chromosome bearing the C allele which prevents crossover, the l allele which is a recessive lethal, and the Bar allele which is a dominant eye mutation
26
Microorganisms
Microorganisms allow for the use of selective systems for mutation detection vs. the screening systems used for higher organisms. A selective system is one in which the experimenter can DEMAND that the only individuals that grow or survive are the ones that have the mutation of interest. On the other hand, a screening system is one in which the experimenter must examine each individual to see if it has the mutation of interest.
27
Mutations and cancer
A. Cancer is a group of diseases characterized by rapid, uncontrolled proliferation of cells within a tissue resulting in the formation of a tumor. Cancer has many causes and phenotypes but the fundamental mechanism underlying all cancers is genetic. B. There are two types of genes that are involved in cancer formation. 1. Tumor suppressor genes are genes that encode a product that normally stops cell division. Mutations in these genes result in uncontrolled activation of cell division and therefore tumor formation. Mutations are generally recessive and thus you need mutations in both alleles to have cancer. A mutation in one allele predisposes the carrier to cancer. a) Rb gene - retinoblastoma (retinal cancer) b) BRCA1 - hereditary breast cancer gene c) p53 gene mutations are found in a variety of cancers including breast, lung, bladder, and colon cancers. Over 1/2 of all cancers are associated with p53. 2. Proto-oncogenes are genes that encode a product that normally controls cell division (kind of like an on/off switch). Mutations in these genes make the gene product permanently in the on position which results in uncontrolled activation of cell division and therefore tumor formation. a) N-ras – neuroblastoma (tumor formed of embryonic ganglion cells), leukemia b) N-myc – neuroblastoma c) man – mammary carcinoma
28
Tumor suppressor genes
1. are genes that encode a product that normally stops cell division. Mutations in these genes result in uncontrolled activation of cell division and therefore tumor formation. Mutations are generally recessive and thus you need mutations in both alleles to have cancer. A mutation in one allele predisposes the carrier to cancer. a) Rb gene - retinoblastoma (retinal cancer) b) BRCA1 - hereditary breast cancer gene c) p53 gene mutations are found in a variety of cancers including breast, lung, bladder, and colon cancers. Over 1/2 of all cancers are associated with p53.
29
Proto-oncogenes are genes that encode a product that normally controls cell division (kind of like an on/off switch). Mutations in these genes make the gene product permanently in the on position which results in uncontrolled activation of cell division and therefore tumor formation. a) N-ras – neuroblastoma (tumor formed of embryonic ganglion cells), leukemia b) N-myc – neuroblastoma c) man – mammary carcinom
Proto-oncogenes are genes that encode a product that normally controls cell division (kind of like an on/off switch). Mutations in these genes make the gene product permanently in the on position which results in uncontrolled activation of cell division and therefore tumor formation. a) N-ras – neuroblastoma (tumor formed of embryonic ganglion cells), leukemia b) N-myc – neuroblastoma c) man – mammary carcinom
30
30
Proto-oncogenes are genes that encode a product that normally controls cell division (kind of like an on/off switch). Mutations in these genes make the gene product permanently in the on position which results in uncontrolled activation of cell division and therefore tumor formaMutagens in genetic dissectiontion. a) N-ras – neuroblastoma (tumor formed of embryonic ganglion cells), leukemia b) N-myc – neuroblastoma c) man – mammary carci
A. Mutagens are agents that cause mutations at a rate higher than the spontaneous rate. B. Mutagens can be chemical (i.e. cigarette smoke, mustard gas) or radiation (i.e. UV, X-rays,
31
32
What is a mutation?
A recent and rare change in DNA sequence within a population. ## Footnote Mutations can arise spontaneously or be induced by environmental factors.
33
What is a polymorphism?
When multiple variants exist in a population and neither is clearly the 'normal' or wild-type. ## Footnote Polymorphisms indicate stable variations in a population.
34
What defines co-existing DNA variations?
When none of the sequence variants can be called the wild-type due to their frequency in the population, classified as polymorphisms. ## Footnote This reflects genetic diversity within a population.
35
What are the origins of mutations?
Mutations can be spontaneous or induced. ## Footnote Spontaneous mutations occur naturally, while induced mutations are caused by mutagens.
36
What are the types of mutations?
Mutations may involve: * Substitutions * Deletions * Insertions ## Footnote Each type alters the DNA sequence in different ways.
37
What functional consequences can a mutation lead to?
A mutation can lead to: * Loss of function * Gain of function ## Footnote Loss of function can result in partial or complete inactivation, while gain of function may provide new or enhanced activity.
38
What causes spontaneous mutations?
Natural errors such as: * Base mispairing * Insertions/deletions, especially in repetitive DNA sequences. ## Footnote These errors occur during DNA replication.
39
What triggers induced mutations?
Induced mutations are triggered by: * DNA damage * Misrepair * Sequence interruption ## Footnote Induced mutations can result from chemical, physical, or biological mutagens.
40
How can mutagenesis be used for gene identification?
By inducing mutations and observing phenotypes, researchers can link mutations to specific genes and pathways. ## Footnote This helps in understanding gene functions and interactions.
41
What are transposable elements (TEs)?
Also called 'jumping genes', TEs are dynamic parts of the genome that contribute to genetic variation and evolution. ## Footnote TEs can move within the genome, affecting gene expression.
42
What are the limits of mutant screening?
Challenges include: * Silent mutations (no phenotype) * Genetic redundancy (multiple genes compensate) * Embryonic lethality (mutation kills embryo) ## Footnote These factors make it difficult to identify and study mutations.
43
What is gene mutation convergence?
Mutations in different genes may cause the same phenotype due to interaction in the same pathway. ## Footnote This phenomenon complicates the understanding of genetic interactions.
44
What is complementation testing?
A method to determine whether two mutations affect the same gene (allelic) or different genes (non-allelic). ## Footnote This testing is crucial for genetic mapping and understanding gene function.
45
What is a mutation in genetic terms?
A recent and rare DNA sequence change in a population. ## Footnote Mutations can contribute to genetic diversity and evolution.
46
What is a polymorphism?
A variation in DNA sequence where neither variant is a clear wild-type. ## Footnote Polymorphisms are often common in populations.
47
What are the two main origins of mutations?
Spontaneous errors and induced mutations from mutagens. ## Footnote Spontaneous mutations occur naturally, while induced mutations result from external factors.
48
Name three types of mutations based on structural change.
* Substitution * Deletion * Insertion ## Footnote Each type of mutation affects the DNA sequence differently.
49
What are the two functional outcomes of mutations?
* Loss of function * Gain of function (possibly new function) ## Footnote Gain of function mutations can lead to novel traits or characteristics.
50
What typically causes spontaneous mutations?
Natural DNA replication errors, base mispairing, or insertions/deletions in repetitive sequences. ## Footnote These errors can occur during cell division.
51
How are induced mutations caused?
Through exposure to chemical, biological, or physical mutagens. ## Footnote Common mutagens include radiation and certain chemicals.
52
How can researchers use mutagenesis in genetics?
To identify genes related to phenotypes by observing effects of random mutations. ## Footnote This method helps in understanding gene functions and interactions.
53
What are transposable elements?
Mobile DNA sequences that are abundant and promote genetic diversity and evolution. ## Footnote They can move within the genome and affect gene expression.
54
What limits mutant screening efficiency?
* Silent mutations * Redundancy * Embryonic lethality ## Footnote These factors can obscure the effects of mutations during analysis.
55
Can different gene mutations produce the same phenotype?
Yes, if they affect the same pathway or function. ## Footnote This phenomenon illustrates the complexity of genetic interactions.
56
What does complementation testing reveal?
Whether mutations are in the same gene (allelic) or different genes (non-allelic). ## Footnote This testing is crucial for understanding genetic relationships.
57
What is a mutation?
A permanent change in the DNA sequence. ## Footnote Mutations can occur in coding or non-coding regions and may affect gene function, regulation, or be silent.
58
What is a mutant?
An organism or cell that carries a mutation. ## Footnote Mutants may display a different phenotype compared to the wild-type.
59
What is a polymorphism in genetics?
A common genetic variation present in at least 1% of the population. ## Footnote Polymorphisms are typically harmless and stable.
60
What is an insertion mutation?
A mutation involving the addition of one or more nucleotides into the DNA sequence.
61
What is a deletion mutation?
A mutation where one or more nucleotides are lost from the DNA sequence.
62
What happens in a substitution mutation?
A single base is replaced by another. ## Footnote Substitution mutations can be silent, missense, or nonsense.
63
What is a mutagen?
Any physical, chemical, or biological agent that increases the rate of mutation.
64
What are DNA replication errors?
Mistakes during DNA copying, such as mispairing of bases, which can cause mutations.
65
What is strand slippage?
A replication error where the DNA polymerase slips, especially in repetitive sequences, leading to insertions or deletions.
66
What is a biological mutagen?
A living agent that causes mutations, e.g., viruses inserting into the genome.
67
What is a chemical mutagen?
A compound that reacts with DNA to cause mutations (e.g., EMS, ethidium bromide).
68
What is a physical mutagen?
Physical factors like UV light or ionizing radiation that damage DNA and cause mutations.
69
What is mispairing in DNA replication?
A replication error where non-complementary bases are incorrectly paired (e.g., A with C instead of T).
70
What is a DNA loop in replication?
A bulge that forms when the DNA strand misaligns during replication or repair.
71
What is an SSR (Simple Sequence Repeat)?
Repeating sequences of 1–6 base pairs, prone to strand slippage and mutation.
72
What is an insertional mutagen?
A mutation caused by DNA insertion (like a transposon) that disrupts gene function. ## Footnote Insertional mutagens can lead to various genetic disorders or phenotypic changes in organisms.
73
What are Class I and Class II transposons?
Class I: retrotransposons (copy-paste); Class II: DNA transposons (cut-paste). ## Footnote Class I transposons move via an RNA intermediate, while Class II transposons move directly as DNA.
74
What is a transposon?
A mobile DNA sequence that can move to new genomic locations. ## Footnote Transposons can disrupt genes and contribute to genetic diversity.
75
How do retrotransposons move?
Via RNA intermediate and reverse transcription into DNA. ## Footnote This process is critical for the replication of retrotransposons within the genome.
76
What does reverse transcriptase do?
Converts RNA back into DNA. ## Footnote Reverse transcriptase is essential for the lifecycle of retroviruses, such as HIV.
77
What is the role of transposase?
Cuts and pastes DNA transposons during transposition. ## Footnote Transposase is crucial for the movement of Class II transposons.
78
What is a non-autonomous transposon?
A transposon that needs enzymes from another element to move. ## Footnote Non-autonomous transposons often rely on nearby autonomous transposons for their mobility.
79
What is an autonomous transposon?
A self-sufficient transposon that produces its own transposase. ## Footnote Autonomous transposons can independently move within the genome.
80
What are SINE, LINE, and Alu elements?
Repetitive mobile DNA elements; Alu is a common SINE. ## Footnote SINEs are typically shorter than LINEs and play roles in genomic evolution.
81
What is a P-element?
A Drosophila transposon used for genetic manipulation. ## Footnote P-elements are widely utilized in genetic research and biotechnological applications.
82
What is T-DNA?
DNA from Agrobacterium used to genetically modify plants. ## Footnote T-DNA is a key component in plant transformation techniques.
83
What is copy-and-paste transposition?
The transposon is duplicated and inserted elsewhere. ## Footnote This mechanism is characteristic of retrotransposons.
84
What is cut-and-paste transposition?
The transposon is excised and reinserted in a new location. ## Footnote This is a common mechanism for DNA transposons.
85
What is an alkylation agent?
A chemical that adds alkyl groups to DNA, causing mutations. ## Footnote Alkylation agents can lead to various types of DNA damage and mutagenesis.
86
What is EMS?
Ethyl Methanesulfonate, an alkylating mutagen that causes base substitutions. ## Footnote EMS is commonly used in laboratory settings to induce mutations for research purposes.
87
What is an intercalating agent?
A chemical that slips between DNA base pairs, distorting the double helix and causing insertions/deletions during replication. ## Footnote Example: ethidium bromide.
88
What is benzopyrene?
A potent carcinogen found in tobacco smoke that forms bulky DNA adducts, leading to mutations.
89
What does carcinogenic mean?
Any substance or agent capable of causing cancer by inducing mutations or disrupting cellular regulation.
90
What is ethidium bromide used for?
It is commonly used to stain DNA and is also a mutagen.
91
What is a thymine dimer?
A type of DNA damage caused by UV radiation where two adjacent thymine bases covalently bond, distorting DNA structure.
92
What is a mutant screen?
A technique used to identify individuals with mutations in a specific gene or pathway based on phenotype.
93
What is a loss-of-function mutation?
A mutation that results in a gene product with reduced or no function.
94
What is a gain-of-function mutation?
A mutation that leads to a gene product with enhanced, new, or unregulated function.
95
What is an amorph mutation?
A type of loss-of-function mutation where the gene product is completely inactive.
96
What is a null mutation?
A mutation that completely abolishes gene function—no protein made or protein is nonfunctional.
97
What is a hypomorph mutation?
A mutation that causes partial loss of gene function—reduced expression or activity.
98
What is a hypermorph mutation?
A mutation that results in increased gene function or activity.
99
What is a neomorph mutation?
A mutation that gives the gene product a new, abnormal function not seen in the wild-type.
100
What is a dominant negative mutation?
A mutant protein that interferes with the normal function of the wild-type protein, often forming nonfunctional complexes.
101
What are somatic cells?
All body cells excluding gametes; mutations here are not heritable but can lead to diseases like cancer.
102
What are germline cells?
Reproductive cells that pass mutations to the next generation. ## Footnote Germline cells include sperm and eggs.
103
What is a silent mutation?
A base change that does not alter the amino acid sequence. ## Footnote This is due to the redundancy of the genetic code.
104
What is an inter-genic region?
DNA located between genes, often regulatory. ## Footnote Mutations in these regions may affect gene regulation without altering protein coding.
105
What is redundancy in genetics?
Backup or overlapping gene functions that mask mutations. ## Footnote This means that a mutation in one gene may not show an effect because other genes can compensate.
106
What is an essential gene?
A gene necessary for organismal survival. ## Footnote Mutations in essential genes usually lead to embryonic lethality if not compensated.
107
What is a recessive lethal allele?
A lethal mutation only when homozygous. ## Footnote This means that the organism must have two copies of the mutant allele for it to cause death.
108
What does complementation testing determine?
Whether two mutations are in the same gene or different ones. ## Footnote This is done by combining mutations in a diploid cell or organism.
109
What's the difference between allelic and non-allelic mutations?
Allelic = same gene; Non-allelic = different genes. ## Footnote Allelic mutations refer to different mutations within the same gene.
110
What do cM₀, M₁, and M₂ refer to?
Generations in mutagenesis: cM₀ (treated), M₁ (1st), M₂ (2nd, screened). ## Footnote This notation is used to track generations in genetic studies.
111
What is lethality in genetics?
A mutation that causes death. ## Footnote This can occur during development or later in life.
112
What does allelic mean?
Mutations in the same gene. ## Footnote These mutations can be different forms of the same genetic locus.
113
What does non-allelic mean?
Mutations in different genes. ## Footnote These mutations may still produce similar phenotypes.
114
What is a complementation group?
A set of mutations that fail to complement each other — same gene. ## Footnote All mutations in this group affect the same gene's function.
115
What is CFTR?
A gene mutated in cystic fibrosis; encodes a chloride channel. ## Footnote This gene is crucial for fluid regulation in various tissues.
116
What causes cystic fibrosis?
Mutations in the CFTR gene leading to thick mucus buildup. ## Footnote This buildup occurs in the lungs and other organs, causing various health issues.
117
What is the ΔF508 (Phe508del) mutation?
A deletion of phenylalanine at position 508 in CFTR, leading to cystic fibrosis.
118
How does ΔF508 cause disease?
The CFTR protein misfolds and is destroyed before reaching the cell membrane.
119
What is Kalydeco (Ivacaftor)?
A drug that enhances function of some mutant CFTR proteins in cystic fibrosis patients.
120
What does fidelity refer to in the context of DNA?
Fidelity refers to how well DNA maintains its sequence during replication from one generation to the next.
121
What is a mutation?
A mutation is a change in the DNA sequence.
122
What term is used for an individual affected by a mutation that alters their phenotype?
Mutant
123
True or False: A change in DNA sequence is not considered a mutation unless it visibly affects traits.
False
124
How do mutations typically arise?
Mutations can arise naturally and are typically rare.
125
What is a polymorphism?
A polymorphism is a naturally occurring variation in DNA that is not clearly abnormal and occurs at a relatively high frequency in the population (>1%).
126
How do polymorphisms differ from mutations?
Polymorphisms are common and often harmless, while mutations are typically rare and can be harmful.
127
Fill in the blank: Polymorphisms are referred to instead of mutations because many traits don’t have a single _______.
[normal] type
128
What common biochemical processes give rise to both mutations and polymorphisms?
Replication errors and DNA damage.
129
What does the term polymorphism avoid suggesting?
That one allele is 'normal' or 'abnormal'.
130
Provide an example of a mutation.
A DNA change that causes a disease like cancer.
131
Provide an example of a polymorphism.
A DNA change that explains normal variation, like red vs. black hair.
132
What are molecular markers often used for in genetics research?
To track inheritance, identify genes, and study populations.
133
What does Figure 4.0.1 illustrate?
Mouse embryos, showing wild-type (normal development) and a mutant embryo with abnormal cranium development due to a gene mutation.
134
What does the fidelity of DNA refer to?
Its ability to accurately pass genetic information from one generation to the next.
135
What is a mutation?
A change in the DNA sequence that may or may not affect phenotype.
136
What defines a mutant?
An individual whose phenotype has been altered due to a mutation.
137
What is a polymorphism?
A common DNA sequence variant (>1% frequency) not considered abnormal.
138
What is the frequency threshold for a DNA change to be considered a polymorphism?
Greater than 1% in the population.
139
Can mutations and polymorphisms arise from the same biochemical processes?
Yes, both can result from errors like base mispairing or DNA damage.
140
Why do we use the term polymorphism instead of mutation in some cases?
To avoid implying that one allele is abnormal or inferior.
141
Give an example of a mutation.
A DNA change that causes cancer.
142
Give an example of a polymorphism.
A DNA variant that results in red hair instead of black.
143
What role do polymorphisms play in genetic research?
They serve as molecular markers for studying inheritance and population genetics.
144
What are mutations?
Changes in the DNA sequence ## Footnote Mutations can occur in several structural forms and result from different sources.
145
What is a deletion mutation?
Loss of one or more base pairs from the DNA sequence ## Footnote Can disrupt gene function by shifting the reading frame or removing essential coding regions.
146
What is an insertion mutation?
Addition of one or more base pairs into the DNA sequence ## Footnote May cause a frameshift mutation, especially if not in multiples of three, leading to incorrect protein translation.
147
What is a substitution mutation?
Replacement of one or more base pairs with different ones ## Footnote Can be silent, missense, or nonsense.
148
Define silent mutation.
No effect on protein ## Footnote A type of substitution mutation.
149
Define missense mutation.
Changes one amino acid ## Footnote A type of substitution mutation.
150
Define nonsense mutation.
Creates a premature stop codon ## Footnote A type of substitution mutation.
151
What are spontaneous mutations?
Occur naturally without external influence ## Footnote Caused by errors during DNA replication or natural biochemical decay.
152
What are induced mutations?
Result from exposure to mutagens ## Footnote May be introduced intentionally or unintentionally.
153
What is a mutagen?
Agents that increase mutation rate ## Footnote Can be biological, chemical, or physical.
154
Give an example of a biological mutagen.
Viruses that integrate into the genome ## Footnote Disrupt genes.
155
Give an example of a chemical mutagen.
Alkylating agents ## Footnote Other examples include intercalating agents and base analogs.
156
Give an example of a physical mutagen.
UV light ## Footnote Causes thymine dimers.
157
Fill in the blank: Mutations can be classified into three structural types: deletion, insertion, and _______.
substitution
158
What is a deletion mutation?
The loss of one or more base pairs from DNA. ## Footnote Deletion mutations can lead to frameshift mutations if they are not in multiples of three base pairs.
159
What is an insertion mutation?
The addition of one or more base pairs into DNA. ## Footnote Insertion mutations can also cause frameshift mutations, altering the reading frame of the genetic code.
160
What is a substitution mutation?
The replacement of one base pair with another in DNA. ## Footnote Substitution mutations can affect protein function depending on the nature of the change.
161
What are the three outcomes of a substitution mutation?
* Silent * Missense * Nonsense ## Footnote Silent mutations do not change the amino acid sequence, missense mutations change one amino acid, and nonsense mutations create a premature stop codon.
162
What is a spontaneous mutation?
A naturally occurring mutation due to internal processes like replication errors. ## Footnote Spontaneous mutations are part of normal cellular processes and can occur at any time.
163
What is an induced mutation?
A mutation caused by external agents known as mutagens. ## Footnote Induced mutations can significantly increase mutation rates compared to spontaneous mutations.
164
What are the three main classes of mutagens?
* Biological * Chemical * Physical ## Footnote Each class of mutagens can cause different types of mutations and have various mechanisms of action.
165
Give an example of a biological mutagen.
A virus inserting into a host genome. ## Footnote Biological mutagens can disrupt normal gene function and lead to diseases.
166
Give an example of a chemical mutagen.
Ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS), which alkylates DNA bases. ## Footnote Chemical mutagens can cause a wide variety of mutations depending on their structure and reactivity.
167
Give an example of a physical mutagen.
Ultraviolet (UV) light that causes thymine dimers. ## Footnote UV light can lead to errors during DNA replication if not properly repaired.
168
What is the role of DNA polymerase during DNA replication?
Typically inserts the correct complementary base and has proofreading mechanisms to catch and correct mistakes.
169
What happens if DNA replication errors are not repaired?
They become permanent mutations passed to daughter cells.
170
What is an example of mispaired bases during DNA replication?
G-T mispairing instead of proper A-T.
171
What can cause mispairing during DNA replication?
* Tautomeric shifts * Chemical modifications like alkylation * Other replication stress factors
172
What occurs if a DNA replication error, such as a G-T pair, is not repaired?
It becomes a permanent point mutation in subsequent generations.
173
What is strand slippage?
A loop forms due to misalignment between the template strand and daughter strand.
174
What happens when the loop is on the template strand during strand slippage?
Bases in the loop may be skipped, leading to a deletion in the new daughter strand.
175
What occurs when the loop is on the daughter strand during strand slippage?
The bases in the loop are re-replicated, causing an insertion.
176
In what types of DNA sequences is strand slippage especially common?
Repetitive sequences.
177
What are Simple Sequence Repeats (SSRs)?
Regions of DNA with repeats of 1–6 base pairs.
178
What is another term for Simple Sequence Repeats (SSRs)?
Microsatellites.
179
Why are SSRs and microsatellites considered mutation hotspots?
Due to strand slippage.
180
What are the characteristics of SSRs and microsatellites?
* Highly polymorphic * Useful in genetic mapping and forensic analysis
181
What is a major biological source of spontaneous mutation?
Errors during DNA replication ## Footnote Spontaneous mutations can arise from various processes, but replication errors are a significant contributor.
182
What happens if a mispaired base is not corrected during replication?
It becomes a permanent mutation in the next generation ## Footnote This can lead to inherited mutations in descendants.
183
What causes base mispairing during replication?
Tautomeric shifts, alkylation, or replication stress ## Footnote These factors can lead to incorrect base pairing, resulting in mutations.
184
What is strand slippage?
A replication error where a loop forms, causing misalignment between template and daughter strands ## Footnote This misalignment can lead to insertions or deletions.
185
What mutation occurs if the loop forms on the template strand during slippage?
A deletion in the daughter strand ## Footnote This results from the daughter strand losing nucleotides due to the misalignment.
186
What mutation occurs if the loop forms on the daughter strand during slippage?
An insertion in the daughter strand ## Footnote This results from the daughter strand gaining additional nucleotides.
187
What are SSRs (Simple Sequence Repeats)?
DNA regions with short, repeated sequences prone to strand slippage ## Footnote SSRs are significant in understanding genetic variation.
188
Why are SSRs also called microsatellites?
Because they are small, repetitive DNA segments useful for genetic analysis ## Footnote The term 'microsatellite' reflects their size and repetitive nature.
189
Why are microsatellites highly polymorphic?
Due to frequent insertions/deletions from strand slippage ## Footnote This polymorphism makes them useful for various genetic studies.
190
What are microsatellites used for in genetics?
Genetic mapping, forensic profiling, and population studies ## Footnote Their variability makes them ideal for these applications.
191
What are insertional mutations?
Mutations resulting from the insertion of foreign DNA into the genome ## Footnote Common sources include viruses, transposable elements, and other mobile DNA segments.
192
What can insertional mutations disrupt?
Coding sequences of genes and regulatory regions ## Footnote Disruption can destroy or alter protein function and affect gene expression.
193
What are gene fusions?
Combining parts of two different genes, potentially forming abnormal or novel proteins.
194
How can insertions occur?
Spontaneously as natural mutations or artificially through experimental methods ## Footnote This distinction is important in genetic research.
195
What is transposon-tagging?
A genetic technique using transposable elements as mutagens to disrupt genes and identify gene function.
196
What is the main use of transposon-tagging?
To study gene roles in model organisms.
197
What is a P Element?
A type of transposable element found in Drosophila, commonly used to induce mutations in labs.
198
What is T-DNA?
A modified DNA element from Agrobacterium tumefaciens used in plants to insert genes and create mutations.
199
True or False: Insertional mutations can only occur through artificial methods.
False.
200
Fill in the blank: Insertional mutations can cause _______ by combining parts of two different genes.
[gene fusions]
201
What is an insertional mutation?
A mutation caused by the insertion of foreign DNA into a genome, disrupting gene function or regulation. ## Footnote Insertional mutations can lead to various genetic disorders or phenotypic changes in organisms.
202
Name two biological agents that can cause insertional mutations.
* Viruses * Transposable elements (transposons) ## Footnote Both agents can integrate their genetic material into host genomes, leading to mutations.
203
What happens when a transposon inserts into a gene's coding region?
It may disrupt the gene, alter its expression, or fuse it with another gene. ## Footnote This can result in loss of function or gain of new functions in the affected genes.
204
Can insertional mutations occur naturally?
Yes, they can occur spontaneously during normal cellular processes. ## Footnote Natural insertional mutations contribute to genetic diversity and evolution.
205
What is transposon-tagging?
A lab technique using transposons to deliberately induce mutations and identify gene functions. ## Footnote This method allows researchers to study gene function by observing the effects of induced mutations.
206
What is the P element used for?
It's a transposable element used as a biological mutagen in Drosophila research. ## Footnote The P element facilitates the study of gene function and regulation in fruit flies.
207
What is T-DNA and where is it used?
T-DNA is a bacterial DNA segment used to mutate plant genes for research. ## Footnote T-DNA is often used in Agrobacterium-mediated transformation to introduce new traits into plants.
208
How do insertional elements affect gene regulation?
By disrupting promoter or enhancer regions, changing when and where genes are expressed. ## Footnote This can lead to altered phenotypes and can be a mechanism for gene expression changes.
209
What is gene fusion in the context of insertional mutations?
The merging of parts of two genes due to DNA insertion, potentially creating a novel gene product. ## Footnote Gene fusions can result in proteins with new functions, which may have implications in diseases like cancer.
210
What are Transposable Elements (TEs)?
Segments of DNA that can move from one location to another within the genome ## Footnote Also called mobile genetic elements or jumping genes
211
What is the process of movement for Transposable Elements called?
Transposition
212
In which organisms are Transposable Elements present?
Almost all organisms
213
What are the important roles of Transposable Elements?
* Gene disruption (causing mutation) * Phenotypic variation * Evolutionary change
214
How do TEs cause mutations?
By inserting themselves into coding or regulatory regions
215
What can the disruption caused by TEs do?
* Knock out gene function * Create new gene combinations * Cause instability in the genome
216
What are the two major classes of TEs in Eukaryotes?
* Class I TEs: Retrotransposons * Class II TEs: DNA Transposons
217
What is the mechanism of Class I TEs?
Copy-and-paste (original copy remains, new copy is inserted)
218
What enzymes are involved in Class I TEs?
* Reverse transcriptase * Integrase
219
What is an example of Class I TEs?
* LINEs * SINEs * Alu
220
What is the mechanism of Class II TEs?
Cut-and-paste (original copy is removed and reinserted)
221
What enzyme is used by Class II TEs?
Transposase
222
What are Autonomous TEs?
TEs that encode all necessary enzymes for their own transposition
223
What are Non-autonomous TEs?
TEs that rely on enzymes from other TEs
224
What percentage of the human genome consists of TEs?
Nearly 45%
225
Which class of TEs predominates in the human genome?
Class I elements (retrotransposons)
226
How many times is Alu, a SINE element, found in the human genome?
>1 million times
227
How do TEs compare in number to actual protein-coding genes in the human genome?
TEs far outnumber actual protein-coding genes (only ~21,000 genes)
228
How can cut-and-paste Class II TEs lead to increases in copy number?
Through DNA repair using a template that still contains the TE
229
What are transposable elements (TEs)?
Mobile DNA segments that can move within the genome, also called jumping genes. ## Footnote TEs can play significant roles in genome evolution and diversity.
230
What is transposition?
The process of TEs moving from one genomic location to another. ## Footnote This can lead to genetic variation and mutations.
231
How can TEs cause mutations?
By inserting into coding or regulatory regions, disrupting gene expression or function. ## Footnote This disruption can lead to various phenotypic effects.
232
What is the difference between Class I and Class II TEs?
Class I uses an RNA intermediate (copy-paste), Class II uses direct DNA movement (cut-paste). ## Footnote This fundamental difference affects their mechanisms of transposition.
233
What enzymes do Class I elements use?
Reverse transcriptase and integrase. ## Footnote These enzymes are crucial for the replication of RNA intermediates.
234
What enzyme do Class II elements use?
Transposase. ## Footnote Transposase facilitates the cut-and-paste mechanism of transposition.
235
What is an autonomous TE?
A TE that encodes all proteins required for its own transposition. ## Footnote Autonomous TEs can function independently in the genome.
236
What is a non-autonomous TE?
A TE that requires help from another TE to transpose. ## Footnote Non-autonomous TEs depend on the enzymes produced by autonomous TEs.
237
What is the most abundant SINE in humans?
Alu element, found over 1 million times. ## Footnote Alu elements are a significant component of the human genome.
238
How much of the human genome is made of TEs?
About 45%. ## Footnote TEs contribute to a large portion of the genomic architecture.
239
What are LINEs and SINEs?
Families of Class I retrotransposons in the human genome. ## Footnote LINEs (Long Interspersed Nuclear Elements) and SINEs (Short Interspersed Nuclear Elements) are key players in genomic structure.
240
How can Class II elements increase in copy number despite cut-paste?
If the excised site is repaired with a template that includes the TE. ## Footnote This can lead to an increase in the overall number of TEs in the genome.
241
What do TEs greatly increase in genomes?
The total DNA content of genomes ## Footnote TEs can copy themselves and insert into various locations, contributing to genome size.
242
What was once thought to be 'junk DNA' is now known to be?
TEs ## Footnote This highlights the functional significance of TEs in the genome.
243
How can TEs disrupt gene function?
By inserting into coding sequences and regulatory regions ## Footnote This affects both protein structure and gene expression levels.
244
What process leads to gene duplication via transposition?
Transposition ## Footnote Neighboring chromosomal regions may be carried along with the TE during this process.
245
What can happen to duplicated genes?
They can evolve separately and gain new functions ## Footnote This is a major mechanism in evolutionary innovation.
246
What can TE excision and reinsertion cause?
Break chromosomes and cause errors during repair ## Footnote This can result in rearrangements, deletions, or fusions of chromosomes.
247
What meiotic errors can repetitive TEs cause?
Homologous chromosomes can misalign ## Footnote This can lead to unequal crossing-over, resulting in duplication or deletion.
248
What happens during unequal crossing-over?
One chromosome gains extra material, the other loses material ## Footnote This leads to genetic imbalances in the offspring.
249
What is the conclusion regarding TEs?
TEs are not junk DNA ## Footnote They are recognized as genomic innovators and drivers of evolution.
250
True or False: TEs are considered useless in the genome.
False ## Footnote TEs are now acknowledged for their important roles in mutation, duplication, and rearrangement.
251
How do TEs affect genome size?
They expand genome size by copying and inserting themselves into new locations. ## Footnote Transposable elements (TEs) can increase the amount of DNA in a genome through their replication and insertion mechanisms.
252
Can TEs still be considered 'junk DNA'?
No, they play important roles in genome structure, evolution, and regulation. ## Footnote TEs are now recognized for their contributions to genetic diversity and regulatory functions.
253
What happens when TEs disrupt coding or regulatory regions?
They can inactivate or misregulate genes, leading to mutations. ## Footnote Disruption by TEs can have significant impacts on gene expression and functionality.
254
How can TEs cause gene duplication?
By accidentally carrying adjacent DNA during transposition. ## Footnote This process can lead to the creation of multiple gene copies, which can evolve independently.
255
What is the evolutionary importance of gene duplication?
It allows one gene copy to mutate and gain new functions. ## Footnote Gene duplication is a key mechanism in the evolution of new traits and functions in organisms.
256
How do TEs cause chromosome rearrangements?
By breaking DNA during excision/integration and causing faulty rejoining. ## Footnote These rearrangements can have significant effects on genome organization and function.
257
What is unequal crossing-over?
Misaligned pairing of homologous chromosomes during meiosis, often due to repetitive TEs, causing duplication/deletion. ## Footnote This process can lead to genetic diversity but may also result in harmful mutations.
258
Why do repeated TEs increase the risk of meiotic error?
Because they can cause mispairing between homologous chromosomes. ## Footnote The presence of repetitive sequences can lead to genomic instability during cell division.
259
What do transposable elements (TEs) do to the genome?
TEs actively shape the genome and drive evolutionary change ## Footnote TEs increase genome size and influence gene function.
260
How do transposable elements contribute to genome expansion?
By inserting copies of themselves throughout the genome ## Footnote This can lead to larger genomes in some organisms compared to others with the same gene count.
261
What are the effects of transposable elements inserting into a gene's coding or regulatory region?
* Block gene expression * Alter protein coding sequences * Cause disease or phenotypic change ## Footnote Disruption can lead to various genetic disorders.
262
What is gene duplication in the context of transposable elements?
When TEs accidentally carry nearby DNA and insert it elsewhere ## Footnote This can lead to the evolution of new gene functions.
263
What can happen during chromosomal breakage and rearrangement caused by TEs?
* Break chromosomes * Cause rearrangements (inversions or translocations) * Cause deletions if strand rejoining is incorrect ## Footnote These alterations can significantly impact genetic stability.
264
What is the significance of unequal crossing-over during meiosis related to TEs?
It leads to one chromosome gaining extra material (duplication) while the other loses material (deletion) ## Footnote This occurs due to misalignment of homologous chromosomes.
265
What was the former perception of transposable elements and how has it changed?
They were once considered 'junk DNA', but are now seen as: * Evolutionary drivers * Sources of genomic innovation * Agents of diversity and adaptation ## Footnote This shift in understanding highlights their importance in evolution.
266
What is Forward Genetics?
An approach used to identify which genes control specific biological traits ## Footnote It involves randomly inducing mutations, screening for altered phenotypes, and investigating mutated genes.
267
What are the steps involved in Forward Genetics?
1. Randomly induce mutations in a large population of organisms 2. Screen for individuals with altered phenotypes 3. Investigate which gene(s) are mutated to cause the observed phenotype ## Footnote These steps help in linking genes to specific traits.
268
How are mutations introduced in Forward Genetics?
Using mutagens (chemical, biological, or physical agents) to cause random mutations across the genome ## Footnote This creates a diverse pool of mutants with potential disruptions in different genes.
269
What is Mutant Screening?
A process where researchers observe a population for individuals with abnormal traits and select those mutants to identify the responsible genes ## Footnote This is a critical step in linking phenotypes to specific genetic mutations.
270
What model organism is commonly used in Forward Genetics studies?
Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly) ## Footnote This organism is favored due to its simple genetics and ease of manipulation.
271
What example is provided for learning and memory research in Drosophila?
Flies were mutagenized and screened for larvae unable to learn, specifically failing to associate a smell with a painful electric shock ## Footnote This indicates defective genes involved in learning and memory.
272
What broader relevance do the genes identified through forward genetic screens have?
They may help scientists understand cognitive processes and neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer’s disease ## Footnote Insights from simple organisms can inform human biology due to conserved molecular machinery.
273
True or False: Forward Genetics can provide insights into human biology.
True ## Footnote The conservation of molecular mechanisms allows findings in model organisms to be relevant to humans.
274
Fill in the blank: Forward Genetics works by inducing _______ in a population of organisms.
[random mutations]
275
What is Forward Genetics?
An approach used to identify which genes control specific biological traits ## Footnote It involves randomly inducing mutations, screening for altered phenotypes, and investigating mutated genes.
276
What are the steps involved in Forward Genetics?
1. Randomly induce mutations in a large population of organisms 2. Screen for individuals with altered phenotypes 3. Investigate which gene(s) are mutated to cause the observed phenotype ## Footnote These steps help in linking genes to specific traits.
277
How are mutations introduced in Forward Genetics?
Using mutagens (chemical, biological, or physical agents) to cause random mutations across the genome ## Footnote This creates a diverse pool of mutants with potential disruptions in different genes.
278
What is Mutant Screening?
A process where researchers observe a population for individuals with abnormal traits and select those mutants to identify the responsible genes ## Footnote This is a critical step in linking phenotypes to specific genetic mutations.
279
What model organism is commonly used in Forward Genetics studies?
Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly) ## Footnote This organism is favored due to its simple genetics and ease of manipulation.
280
What example is provided for learning and memory research in Drosophila?
Flies were mutagenized and screened for larvae unable to learn, specifically failing to associate a smell with a painful electric shock ## Footnote This indicates defective genes involved in learning and memory.
281
What broader relevance do the genes identified through forward genetic screens have?
They may help scientists understand cognitive processes and neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer’s disease ## Footnote Insights from simple organisms can inform human biology due to conserved molecular machinery.
282
True or False: Forward Genetics can provide insights into human biology.
True ## Footnote The conservation of molecular mechanisms allows findings in model organisms to be relevant to humans.
283
Fill in the blank: Forward Genetics works by inducing _______ in a population of organisms.
[random mutations]
284
What is forward genetics?
A strategy to identify genes by inducing mutations and screening for phenotypic changes.
285
What is mutant screening?
The process of searching for organisms with abnormal traits to identify the underlying genetic cause.
286
How are mutations introduced in forward genetics?
Randomly, using mutagens such as chemicals or radiation.
287
What organism is commonly used in forward genetic screens?
Drosophila melanogaster (fruit fly).
288
What learning defect was studied in mutant Drosophila larvae?
Inability to associate a specific odor with an electric shock.
289
Why are model organisms useful in genetic screening?
Their genes often function similarly to human genes, making discoveries applicable to human biology.
290
What human disease might benefit from insights gained via forward genetics?
Alzheimer’s disease.
291
What is the ultimate goal of forward genetics?
To discover genes responsible for particular traits or biological processes.
292
What are genetic screens?
Experimental techniques used to identify genes involved in specific biological processes and characterize gene function through observable mutant phenotypes ## Footnote Genetic screens help researchers understand the roles of different genes in various biological contexts.
293
How are genetic screens conducted?
A population is treated with a mutagen, creating random mutations throughout the genome ## Footnote Common mutagens include EMS and radiation.
294
What is the goal of mutating the germline in genetic screens?
To create heritable mutations that can be passed on to offspring ## Footnote Germline mutations occur in egg and sperm precursors.
295
What are germline cells?
Gametes and their precursors; mutations here are heritable ## Footnote Germline mutations can affect future generations.
296
What are somatic cells?
Body cells; mutations are not passed on ## Footnote Somatic mutations affect the individual but not their offspring.
297
How do researchers make mutations observable?
By crossing or mating mutagenized organisms and screening for new, visible phenotypes in the next generation ## Footnote This often involves allowing mutations to become homozygous or hemizygous.
298
What are loss-of-function mutations?
Mutations where the gene product is reduced or absent, usually recessive ## Footnote Types include amorph or null (complete loss) and hypomorph (partial loss).
299
What are gain-of-function mutations?
Mutations that cause overactivity of the gene (hypermorph) or a new function of the protein (neomorph) ## Footnote These mutations may be dominant.
300
What are antimorph (dominant negative) mutations?
Mutant gene products that actively interfere with the normal, wild-type protein, dominant and opposite to wild-type function ## Footnote Antimorphs can disrupt normal biological processes.
301
Fill in the blank: Genetic screens are used to identify genes involved in _______.
[specific biological processes]
302
True or False: Germline mutations are not passed on to offspring.
False
303
What is the goal of a genetic screen?
To identify and study genes based on the phenotypes caused by induced mutations.
304
What is used to induce mutations in genetic screens?
Mutagens like EMS (ethyl methanesulfonate), radiation, or chemical agents.
305
Why are germline mutations important in genetic screens?
Because they are heritable and can be passed to offspring for phenotype analysis.
306
What are somatic mutations?
Mutations in non-reproductive cells; they are not passed to offspring.
307
Why must mutagenized individuals be bred?
To produce homozygous or hemizygous offspring where recessive mutations become visible.
308
What are loss-of-function mutations?
Mutations that reduce or eliminate gene function.
309
What is an amorph or null mutation?
A complete loss-of-function mutation where the gene product is inactive or missing.
310
What is a hypomorph?
A partial loss-of-function mutation with reduced activity of the gene product.
311
What is a gain-of-function mutation?
A mutation that increases the gene product’s activity or creates a new function.
312
What is a hypermorph?
A gain-of-function mutation with overproduction or overactivity of a protein.
313
What is a neomorph?
A gain-of-function mutation that results in a new, abnormal protein function.
314
What is an antimorph mutation?
A dominant negative mutation that blocks or opposes wild-type gene function.
315
Are most mutations from genetic screens dominant or recessive?
Recessive.
316
What is the definition of an Amorph (Null) mutation?
Complete loss-of-function ## Footnote Produces no active product — zero function.
317
What is the effect of an Amorph mutation?
Produces no active product — zero function ## Footnote Often due to gene deletion or a nonfunctional protein.
318
What are the common causes of an Amorph mutation?
* No transcription (gene deletion, regulatory mutation) * A nonfunctional protein (e.g., nonsense mutation) ## Footnote These causes lead to a complete loss of gene function.
319
What is the dominance pattern of an Amorph mutation?
Usually recessive to wild-type ## Footnote Also called a null allele.
320
What is the definition of a Hypomorph mutation?
Partial loss-of-function ## Footnote Produces a weak or reduced function protein.
321
What is the effect of a Hypomorph mutation?
Produces a weak or reduced function protein ## Footnote This results in less effective gene product.
322
What are the common causes of a Hypomorph mutation?
* Less transcription * Protein is produced but is only partially functional ## Footnote This type of mutation is also known as a leaky mutation.
323
What is the dominance pattern of a Hypomorph mutation?
Usually recessive ## Footnote Both amorphs and hypomorphs are usually recessive because one wild-type copy is often haplo-sufficient.
324
What is the definition of a Hypermorph mutation?
Gain-of-function ## Footnote Produces too much of the normal protein or makes the protein overactive.
325
What is the effect of a Hypermorph mutation?
Produces too much of the normal protein or makes the protein overactive ## Footnote This can lead to increased activity of the gene product.
326
What are the common causes of a Hypermorph mutation?
* Enhanced transcription * Stabilization or activation of protein ## Footnote These factors contribute to the gain of function.
327
What is the dominance pattern of a Hypermorph mutation?
Usually dominant ## Footnote This indicates that the mutant phenotype is expressed over the wild-type.
328
What is the definition of a Neomorph mutation?
Gain-of-function, but with a new or different function ## Footnote The protein gains a novel activity not present in the wild-type.
329
What is an example of a Neomorph mutation?
Binds a new substrate, functions in a different tissue, or activates in a new time window ## Footnote This illustrates the novel activities conferred by Neomorph mutations.
330
What is the dominance pattern of a Neomorph mutation?
Usually dominant ## Footnote This means the new function is expressed over the wild-type function.
331
What is the definition of an Antimorph (Dominant Negative) mutation?
A dominant negative mutation ## Footnote The mutant protein blocks the function of the wild-type protein.
332
What is the effect of an Antimorph mutation?
The mutant protein blocks the function of the wild-type protein ## Footnote Often occurs when proteins function as dimers or complexes.
333
What is a common example of an Antimorph mutation?
One mutant copy poisons the entire protein complex ## Footnote This demonstrates the dominant negative effect on protein function.
334
What is the dominance pattern of an Antimorph mutation?
Dominant ## Footnote This is opposite in function to the wild-type.
335
How do geneticists identify mutation types?
By observing how they behave when: * Homozygous * Heterozygous with deletion, wild-type, or duplication alleles ## Footnote This helps in classifying mutations based on their effects.
336
What is an amorph mutation?
A complete loss-of-function mutation that produces no active product (null).
337
What is a hypomorph mutation?
A partial loss-of-function mutation that makes a weak or leaky protein.
338
What do amorphs and hypomorphs have in common?
Both are usually recessive to wild-type due to haplo-sufficiency.
339
What is a hypermorph mutation?
A gain-of-function mutation that increases the normal activity or amount of protein.
340
What is a neomorph mutation?
A gain-of-function mutation where the protein acquires a new or abnormal function.
341
What is an antimorph mutation?
A dominant negative mutation that interferes with the wild-type protein function.
342
Why are antimorphs dominant?
Because they act against the normal function, often poisoning protein complexes.
343
How do you identify a mutation type experimentally?
Cross the mutant with deletion, wild-type, and duplication alleles and observe the phenotype.
344
What are the five Muller’s Morphs?
* Amorph * Hypomorph * Hypermorph * Neomorph * Antimorph
345
What is a silent mutation?
A base substitution in DNA that does not affect the phenotype. ## Footnote The amino acid sequence of the protein may remain unchanged or the protein function is not affected.
346
Why are silent mutations common?
They often do not cause visible phenotypic effects and are often single base substitutions. ## Footnote This is due to the location of mutation and the degeneracy of the genetic code.
347
What types of regions can silent mutations occur in?
* Inter-genic regions (between genes) * Intron regions (within a gene but not translated) ## Footnote Mutations in these regions may not affect the final protein product.
348
What is the degeneracy of the genetic code?
The genetic code is redundant, meaning multiple codons code for the same amino acid. ## Footnote Example: GCT, GCC, GCA, and GCG all code for alanine.
349
What happens if a base change occurs within a codon?
It might still specify the same amino acid. ## Footnote This can lead to a silent mutation where the protein function is unaffected.
350
What are functionally tolerant substitutions?
Amino acid changes that do not alter the protein’s function. ## Footnote These changes are still considered silent in effect, as no phenotypic consequence is observed.
351
What is the significance of silent mutations?
They are usually harmless and useful for studying mutation rates without causing functional damage. ## Footnote They often go undetected unless DNA is sequenced directly.
352
True or False: Silent mutations can be detected without DNA sequencing.
False ## Footnote Silent mutations often go undetected unless DNA is sequenced directly.
353
Fill in the blank: Silent mutations are often _______ base substitutions.
single ## Footnote This characteristic contributes to their commonality.
354
What is a silent mutation?
A base change that does not affect the organism's phenotype. ## Footnote Silent mutations can occur in coding or non-coding regions.
355
Why are silent mutations common after mutagen treatment?
Because many changes occur in non-coding regions or don’t affect the protein product. ## Footnote Mutagens can induce various types of mutations, many of which are silent.
356
What are inter-genic regions?
Non-coding DNA regions located between genes. ## Footnote These regions can contain regulatory elements and are important for gene expression.
357
Can a base change in a coding region still be silent?
Yes, if the new codon codes for the same amino acid (due to genetic code degeneracy). ## Footnote Codons can vary while still coding for the same amino acid.
358
What is genetic code degeneracy?
The fact that multiple codons can specify the same amino acid. ## Footnote This property of the genetic code provides a buffer against mutations.
359
Give an example of codons that all code for the same amino acid.
GCT, GCC, GCA, and GCG all code for alanine. ## Footnote These are examples of synonymous codons for the amino acid alanine.
360
Can an amino acid change still result in a silent effect?
Yes, if the change doesn’t alter the protein’s function. ## Footnote Functional redundancy in proteins can allow for some variations without affecting overall activity.
361
Why might silent mutations not affect phenotype?
Because either the protein isn’t altered or the altered amino acid doesn’t affect function. ## Footnote Silent mutations can contribute to genetic variation without phenotypic consequences.
362
What is one reason mutations may not produce observable phenotypes?
Environmental Influence ## Footnote A gene's role might be essential in one condition but irrelevant in another, affecting phenotype expression.
363
How can environmental conditions affect phenotypes related to mutations?
A homozygous loss-of-function mutation might not show any phenotype under standard lab conditions but would show one in a different environment.
364
What is genetic redundancy?
Some genes in the genome perform overlapping or similar functions.
365
What happens if one gene is lost or mutated in the context of genetic redundancy?
Another gene compensates, so no phenotype appears, even though the gene is nonfunctional.
366
What are paralogs?
Evolutionarily related and functionally similar genes.
367
Why might mutant screens miss important genes?
Because no phenotype emerges when only one gene is mutated due to redundancy.
368
What are the limitations of mutant screening?
* It may not detect genes with redundant functions. * It may miss environment-specific phenotypes.
369
What is crucial for accurate gene function discovery?
Combining genetic screening with molecular tools and different conditions.
370
Fill in the blank: The effect of a mutation may depend on the _______.
[environment]
371
True or False: Mutations always produce observable phenotypes.
False
372
Why is the developmental stage important in observing traits?
Some traits can only be observed if the organism survives to a certain developmental stage, such as flower color in mature plants and eye color in flies after eye development. ## Footnote Traits that are not visible until a specific stage can lead to misleading conclusions if the organism does not reach that stage due to mutations.
373
What are essential genes?
Essential genes are genes required for survival or proper development. ## Footnote Mutations in essential genes can lead to the death of the organism before phenotypic analysis can occur.
374
What is a recessive lethal allele?
A mutation in an essential gene that causes homozygous individuals to die, often during the embryonic stage. ## Footnote These individuals will not be present among the surviving progeny, leading to gaps in phenotypic data.
375
How do lethal alleles affect genetic screens?
Lethal alleles can go undetected in normal mutant screens because dead embryos do not develop enough to be scored. ## Footnote This can distort expected phenotypic ratios in a monohybrid cross, such as a 1:0 ratio instead of the expected 3:1.
376
What phenotypic ratio distortion can occur due to recessive lethal alleles?
1:0 ratio, where all progeny show the same phenotype because the part that would show the mutation is missing due to death. ## Footnote This can mislead researchers about the inheritance patterns of traits.
377
Fill in the blank: Mutations in essential genes can ______ detection.
escape ## Footnote Phenotypic screening only captures what survives, making lethal mutations invisible unless specifically tested.
378
True or False: All traits can be observed regardless of the developmental stage of the organism.
False ## Footnote Some traits require the organism to reach a specific developmental stage to be visible.
379
What are essential genes?
Genes required for survival or normal development of an organism. ## Footnote Essential genes are critical for the organism's life cycle and functioning.
380
What is a recessive lethal allele?
A mutated allele that causes death when present in two copies (homozygous). ## Footnote This type of allele can significantly impact genetic studies and inheritance patterns.
381
Why might a mutation in an essential gene go unnoticed?
Because homozygous mutants die early and never reach the stage where phenotype can be observed. ## Footnote This phenomenon complicates the analysis of genetic traits.
382
Why can’t some phenotypes be scored in young organisms?
Because the trait requires a specific developmental stage (e.g., flower color, eye color). ## Footnote Certain traits manifest only after certain growth milestones.
383
What is the phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross with a recessive lethal allele?
1:0 (all surviving offspring show the same phenotype; lethals are missing). ## Footnote This ratio indicates that no individuals with the lethal phenotype are present.
384
Why is the 1:0 ratio equivalent to 3:0 in this context?
Because the expected 1 part with the mutant phenotype is missing due to death, so only the 3 wild-type-like individuals survive. ## Footnote This illustrates how lethal alleles affect expected genetic ratios.
385
How do recessive lethal alleles limit mutant screening?
They remove affected individuals from the population before scoring is possible. ## Footnote This creates challenges in identifying and studying certain genetic traits.
386
How are genes typically named?
Based on what goes wrong when the gene is mutated, not its normal function ## Footnote This leads to names that can be misleading, as they do not reflect the gene's wild-type function.
387
What is the mutant phenotype of the 'white' gene in Drosophila?
White eyes ## Footnote The wild-type allele of the 'white' gene causes red eyes.
388
What is the wild-type phenotype of the 'white' gene in Drosophila?
Red eyes ## Footnote This is the normal phenotype when the gene is not mutated.
389
Why can't the 'white' gene be named 'red'?
More than a dozen genes contribute to red eye pigment in flies ## Footnote These include genes like violet, cinnabar, brown, and scarlet.
390
What issue arises with naming lethal mutants?
They are often named for the way the organism dies, which can be vague or misleading ## Footnote Examples include even-skipped, hunchback, hairy, and runt.
391
What strategies do scientists use to reduce naming confusion of genes?
Assign gene numbers, chromosomal locations, or descriptive names based on: * Developmental roles * How the organism dies * Physical appearance of the mutant ## Footnote These strategies help clarify gene functions and characteristics.
392
How are many genes named in genetics?
After their mutant phenotype, not their normal function.
393
Why is the 'white' gene in Drosophila misleading?
Because its wild-type function gives red eyes, but it’s named after the mutant white eye phenotype.
394
What does the white gene do in wild-type fruit flies?
It imports pigment precursors to produce red eye color.
395
Why don’t we call the white gene 'red'?
Because many genes affect red eye color—naming them all 'red' would be confusing.
396
Name three genes involved in Drosophila eye color other than white.
* cinnabar * brown * violet * scarlet
397
What problem arises when naming lethal mutations?
The gene is named based on how the mutant dies, which can be vague or non-informative.
398
Give examples of descriptive gene names based on lethal phenotype.
* even-skipped * hunchback * hairy * runt
399
How do scientists avoid naming confusion?
By using gene numbers, chromosomal positions, or descriptive mutant-based names.
400
Why do we use complementation tests?
To determine if two different mutations affect the same gene or different genes in the same pathway ## Footnote This is important because multiple genes can produce the same observable trait.
401
What is the difference between allelic and non-allelic mutations?
Allelic mutations occur in the same gene, while non-allelic mutations occur in different genes affecting the same phenotype.
402
What is a complementation test?
An experimental method to combine two mutants with the same phenotype to see if they restore the wild-type phenotype in offspring.
403
How does a complementation test work?
Cross two mutant organisms and observe the offspring's phenotype to determine if complementation occurred.
404
What indicates that mutations are in different genes during a complementation test?
If the offspring show a normal phenotype, indicating complementation occurred.
405
What indicates that mutations are in the same gene during a complementation test?
If the offspring still show the mutant phenotype, indicating no complementation.
406
Fill in the blank: Complementation indicates mutations are in _______ genes.
different
407
Fill in the blank: No complementation indicates mutations are in the _______ gene.
same
408
What does complementation help clarify?
How many genes are involved in producing a phenotype.
409
What is required for purple pigment production in flowers?
Two genes working in sequence ## Footnote Gene A and Gene B are essential for the conversion of compounds leading to purple pigment.
410
What does Gene A encode?
Enzyme #1, converting compound #1 → compound #2 ## Footnote This is the first step in the biochemical pathway for purple pigment production.
411
What does Gene B encode?
Enzyme #2, converting compound #2 → purple pigment ## Footnote This is the final step in the biochemical pathway for producing purple pigment.
412
What is the phenotype of AABB?
Wild-type = purple ## Footnote AABB represents the genotype that leads to the production of purple pigment.
413
What is the phenotype of aaBB?
White (can't convert #1 to #2) ## Footnote This indicates a mutation in Gene A that prevents pigment production.
414
What is the phenotype of AAbb?
White (can’t convert #2 to pigment) ## Footnote This indicates a mutation in Gene B.
415
What is the result if either enzyme is non-functional in aaBb or AaBB?
Still white ## Footnote The flower remains white if either gene is mutated.
416
What is the genotype of the offspring when crossing aaBB and AAbb?
AaBb ## Footnote This represents the combination of alleles from both parents.
417
What does the AaBb offspring phenotype indicate?
Purple flower (wild-type phenotype) ## Footnote The presence of one working allele from each parent allows for enzyme production.
418
What does complementation show?
The mutations are in different genes ## Footnote This is a key aspect of how complementation tests determine genetic interactions.
419
What happens when two white-flowered plants have mutations in the same gene?
Offspring are still white (aaBB) ## Footnote This indicates that the mutations are allelic and do not complement each other.
420
What do complementation tests determine?
Whether similar phenotypes result from mutations in the same gene (allelic) or different genes (non-allelic) ## Footnote This is crucial for understanding genetic interactions and pathways.
421
Fill in the blank: Complementation restores the phenotype only when each parent contributes the gene the other _______.
lacks ## Footnote This is the fundamental principle behind complementation in genetics.
422
What question does a complementation test help answer?
Whether two similar mutant phenotypes are due to mutations in the same gene or different genes.
423
What are allelic mutations?
Mutations in the same gene.
424
What are non-allelic mutations?
Mutations in different genes.
425
What is a complementation test?
A test that crosses two mutants to see if their offspring recover the wild-type phenotype.
426
What does it mean if two mutations complement each other?
They are in different genes (non-allelic).
427
What does it mean if two mutations do not complement?
They are in the same gene (allelic).
428
What phenotype do offspring show if mutations are in the same gene?
The mutant phenotype (no complementation).
429
What phenotype do offspring show if mutations are in different genes?
The wild-type phenotype (complementation occurred).
430
What is required for purple pigment production in flowers?
Two genes working in sequence ## Footnote Gene A and Gene B are essential for the conversion of compounds leading to purple pigment.
431
What does Gene A encode?
Enzyme #1, converting compound #1 → compound #2 ## Footnote This is the first step in the biochemical pathway for purple pigment production.
432
What does Gene B encode?
Enzyme #2, converting compound #2 → purple pigment ## Footnote This is the final step in the biochemical pathway for producing purple pigment.
433
What is the phenotype of AABB?
Wild-type = purple ## Footnote AABB represents the genotype that leads to the production of purple pigment.
434
What is the phenotype of aaBB?
White (can't convert #1 to #2) ## Footnote This indicates a mutation in Gene A that prevents pigment production.
435
What is the phenotype of AAbb?
White (can’t convert #2 to pigment) ## Footnote This indicates a mutation in Gene B.
436
What is the result if either enzyme is non-functional in aaBb or AaBB?
Still white ## Footnote The flower remains white if either gene is mutated.
437
What is the genotype of the offspring when crossing aaBB and AAbb?
AaBb ## Footnote This represents the combination of alleles from both parents.
438
What does the AaBb offspring phenotype indicate?
Purple flower (wild-type phenotype) ## Footnote The presence of one working allele from each parent allows for enzyme production.
439
What does complementation show?
The mutations are in different genes ## Footnote This is a key aspect of how complementation tests determine genetic interactions.
440
What happens when two white-flowered plants have mutations in the same gene?
Offspring are still white (aaBB) ## Footnote This indicates that the mutations are allelic and do not complement each other.
441
What do complementation tests determine?
Whether similar phenotypes result from mutations in the same gene (allelic) or different genes (non-allelic) ## Footnote This is crucial for understanding genetic interactions and pathways.
442
Fill in the blank: Complementation restores the phenotype only when each parent contributes the gene the other _______.
lacks ## Footnote This is the fundamental principle behind complementation in genetics.
443
What does a complementation test assess?
Whether two mutants with the same phenotype have mutations in the same or different genes.
444
In the purple flower example, what is the role of gene A?
It converts compound #1 into compound #2.
445
What is the role of gene B in the purple pigment pathway?
It converts compound #2 into the final purple pigment.
446
What is the phenotype of aaBB?
White flower (mutation in gene A).
447
What is the phenotype of AAbb?
White flower (mutation in gene B).
448
What is the phenotype of AaBb (offspring of aaBB × AAbb)?
Purple flower (wild-type) — complementation occurred.
449
What does it mean if offspring from two mutants are still mutant?
The mutations are in the same gene (allelic) — no complementation.
450
What does it mean if offspring of two mutants show the wild-type phenotype?
The mutations are in different genes (non-allelic) — complementation occurred.
451
What are non-allelic mutations?
Mutations in different genes that affect the same pathway or trait.
452
What are allelic mutations?
Mutations in the same gene, even if in different locations or forms.
453
What is the purpose of a complementation test?
To determine if mutations are in the same gene or different genes.
454
What is the first step in performing a complementation test?
Cross the two pure-breeding homozygous mutants.
455
What should be observed in the F1 phenotype if no complementation occurs?
All F1 progeny have the mutant phenotype.
456
What does it imply if no complementation is observed?
The parents must have had mutations in the same gene.
457
What is the F1 genotype when no complementation occurs?
aaBB or AAbb.
458
What is concluded when mutations are allelic?
No complementation occurred.
459
What is observed in the F1 phenotype if complementation occurs?
All F1 progeny show the wild-type phenotype.
460
What does it imply if complementation occurs?
The parents had mutations in different genes.
461
What is the F1 genotype when complementation occurs?
AaBb.
462
What is concluded when mutations are non-allelic?
Complementation occurred.
463
What is restored when complementation occurs?
Function to the biochemical pathway.
464
What is the first key condition for a valid complementation test?
Mutants must be homozygous at the mutant locus.
465
What is the second key condition for a valid complementation test?
Mutations must be recessive.
466
What can mask complementation?
Dominant mutations.
467
What should be ensured about gene locus in each strain for a valid complementation test?
Only one gene locus should be mutated in each strain.
468
What can confuse the results of a complementation test?
Multiple mutations.
469
What is the goal of a complementation test?
To determine whether mutations with similar phenotypes are in the same gene or different genes.
470
What does it mean if F1 progeny from two mutants are still mutant?
The mutations are allelic (in the same gene); no complementation occurred.
471
What does it mean if F1 progeny are wild-type after a mutant cross?
The mutations are non-allelic (in different genes); complementation occurred.
472
What kind of mutations cannot be used in complementation tests?
Dominant mutations, because they override the presence of wild-type alleles.
473
What genotypes might cause a no-complementation result?
Either aaBB crossed with aaBB, or AAbb crossed with AAbb—mutations in the same gene.
474
What is the genotype of a successful complementation result in the F1?
AaBb—heterozygous at both loci, with one wild-type allele at each.
475
Why must the parent strains be pure-breeding for complementation testing?
To ensure both carry homozygous mutations that can be unambiguously tested in F1.
476
Can multiple mutations in one strain affect a complementation test?
Yes, it may fail to complement even if the two strains’ main mutations are in different genes.
477
What is Cystic Fibrosis?
CF is the most common life-limiting autosomal recessive disease in people of European descent. ## Footnote Frequency: 1 in 2,500 live births, with about 1 in 25 people being carriers.
478
What gene mutation causes Cystic Fibrosis?
Mutations in the CFTR gene (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator) cause CF. ## Footnote CFTR is responsible for encoding a chloride ion channel.
479
What role does CFTR play in normal cells?
CFTR encodes a chloride ion channel found in epithelial cells. ## Footnote It regulates liquid layer thickness on epithelial surfaces and is necessary for mucus clearance.
480
What is the consequence of CFTR mutations?
Mutations lead to impaired ion transport and mucus buildup. ## Footnote This results in increased infections, lung damage, and problems in multiple organs.
481
What is the most common mutation associated with Cystic Fibrosis?
The most common mutation is ΔF508 / PHE508DEL. ## Footnote It involves a deletion of three nucleotides, leading to loss of phenylalanine at position 508.
482
What does the ΔF508 mutation prevent?
It prevents proper folding of the CFTR protein in the endoplasmic reticulum. ## Footnote Misfolded CFTR is destroyed before reaching the cell membrane.
483
What percentage of CF cases in North America does the ΔF508 mutation account for?
About 70% of CF cases in North America. ## Footnote There is speculation that carriers may have had evolutionary advantages.
484
Which drug was approved for CF treatment in 2012?
Kalydeco was approved by FDA and Health Canada in 2012. ## Footnote It works on specific mutations like G551D.
485
What mutation does Kalydeco target?
Kalydeco targets the G551D mutation. ## Footnote G551D is a substitution of glycine for aspartic acid at position 551.
486
What is the cost of Kalydeco per year per patient?
The cost is approximately $250,000 per year per patient.
487
Is Cystic Fibrosis a monogenic disorder?
Yes, CF is a monogenic, autosomal recessive disorder. ## Footnote It has a clear molecular basis linked to the CFTR gene.
488
Fill in the blank: The channel that CFTR encodes opens in response to _______.
ATP
489
True or False: The CFTR channel functions properly in all CF patients.
False
490
What gene is mutated in cystic fibrosis?
CFTR (Cystic Fibrosis Transmembrane Conductance Regulator) ## Footnote The CFTR gene is crucial for the proper functioning of epithelial tissues.
491
What is the inheritance pattern of CF?
Autosomal recessive ## Footnote This means that an individual must inherit two copies of the mutated gene to express the condition.
492
What is the role of the CFTR protein?
It is a chloride ion channel that regulates ion and water movement in epithelial tissues. ## Footnote Proper CFTR function is essential for maintaining fluid balance in various organs.
493
What is the most common CF-causing mutation?
ΔF508 / PHE508DEL — deletion of phenylalanine at position 508. ## Footnote This mutation is responsible for a significant percentage of cystic fibrosis cases.
494
How does the ΔF508 mutation affect CFTR?
It causes misfolding, leading to degradation in the ER and absence at the membrane. ## Footnote This prevents the CFTR protein from reaching the cell surface where it functions.
495
What are some organs affected by CF?
Lungs, pancreas, liver, intestines, sweat glands, and reproductive organs. ## Footnote Cystic fibrosis can lead to severe complications in these organs due to thickened secretions.
496
What is the genotype of a carrier of CF?
Heterozygous for a CFTR mutation. ## Footnote Carriers do not show symptoms but can pass the mutation to their offspring.
497
What does the G551D mutation affect?
ATP binding, preventing channel opening. ## Footnote This mutation alters the CFTR protein's ability to function properly.
498
What drug treats some CFTR mutations by keeping the channel open?
Kalydeco ## Footnote Kalydeco is a CFTR modulator that improves function in specific mutations.
499
How much does Kalydeco cost per patient per year?
Around $250,000 ## Footnote The high cost of treatment can be a barrier for many patients.
500
Why might ΔF508 carriers have had an evolutionary advantage?
They may have had reduced water loss. ## Footnote This could have provided a selective advantage in certain environments, such as those with high prevalence of cholera.
501
What are the similarities between polymorphisms and mutations?
Both are changes in the DNA sequence
502
What is the key difference between polymorphisms and mutations?
Frequency and impact: polymorphisms are common (>1% of individuals), mutations are rare
503
What are some observable effects of polymorphisms?
May have no observable effect or result in normal variation like differences in eye color or blood types
504
What are mutations often associated with?
Disease or altered function
505
What types of mutations can substitutions result in?
* Silent * Missense * Nonsense
506
What are some causes of substitution mutations?
* Tautomeric shifts * Alkylating agents * Irradiation * Spontaneous replication errors
507
What is a deletion in a DNA sequence?
The loss of one or more nucleotides
508
What can cause deletions in a DNA sequence?
* Strand slippage during DNA replication * Radiation breaking DNA strands * Chemical mutagens * Errors during recombination
509
What is an insertion in a DNA sequence?
The addition of extra nucleotide bases
510
What are some causes of insertions in a DNA sequence?
* Strand slippage * Transposons * DNA polymerase errors * Chromosomal duplications
511
What health hazards are associated with smoking tobacco?
Contains benzopyrene, a potent mutagen linked to lung cancer
512
What is the effect of benzopyrene on DNA?
* Intercalating agent * Causes distortion of the double helix * Leads to point mutations and deletions
513
What hypothesis explains the skewed sex ratio in fruit fly mutagenesis?
A recessive, X-linked lethal mutation causes a 2:1 female-to-male ratio
514
How can the hypothesis about sex ratio be tested?
Perform a reciprocal cross and observe the survival of male offspring
515
What is the first step in screening for genes required for floral scent?
Mutagenize seeds (e.g., EMS treatment)
516
What does the 'fishy' mutant suggest?
A gene converts a smelly intermediate into a pleasant-scented final product
517
What does the 'nosmell' mutant suggest?
* Affects a gene upstream of fishy * May impact a transporter or enzyme essential for scent function
518
What is the expected frequency of dominant mutations?
Rarer than recessive mutations due to the requirement for gain-of-function
519
How can dominant mutations be screened?
Focus on the F₁ generation; any F₁ plant showing the trait suggests dominance
520
What type of mutagen is best for creating dominant mutations?
Point mutagens (e.g., EMS) are more likely to create dominant mutations
521
Which transposons are transcribed?
Class I transposons (retrotransposons) are transcribed into RNA
522
What is the screening plan for proline synthesis genes?
Mutagenize auxotrophic strain and select Pro⁻ mutants
523
How can different genes be distinguished in proline synthesis mutants?
* Mapping * Response to precursors * Complementation tests
524
What is the F₁ phenotype if mutants are in different genes?
Wild-type; F₁ would grow without proline
525
What is the F₁ phenotype if mutants are in the same gene?
Mutant; F₁ would fail to grow without proline