Chapter 5-9 Flashcards

(118 cards)

1
Q

What phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum works to stimulate underactive/lengthened myofascial tissue?

Inhibit

Lengthen

Activate

Integrate

A

Activate

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2
Q

Which of the following represents a contraindication for isolated strengthening?

​​​​​​​Pain during movement

Poor core stabilization strength

Diabetes

Older adults

A

​​​​​​​Pain during movement

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3
Q

What tempo is recommended for isolated strengthening exercise?

X/X/X

2/0/2

4/2/1

5/5/5

A

4/2/1

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4
Q

Which of the following muscles would benefit from isolated strengthening to help reduce synergistic dominance of the biceps femoris during leg curls?

Internal obliques

Gluteus maximus

Medial hamstrings

Gastrocnemius

A

Medial hamstrings

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5
Q

Which phase of the muscle action spectrum is the slowest during corrective exercise?

Eccentric

Amortization

Isometric

Concentric

A

Eccentric

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6
Q

Activation exercises may not be considered normal but are designed to provide isolated strengthening to specific muscles prior to moving into an integrated movement pattern by placing joints in the best position for which of the following?

Preferential activation

Ideal activation

Isometric activation

Positional isometrics

A

Preferential activation

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7
Q

According to recent research, which of the following may lead to increased core activation during a plank?

Relaxing the hip musculature

Isometric ankle plantarflexion

Performing a posterior pelvic tilt

Retracting and depressing the shoulder blades

A

Performing a posterior pelvic tilt

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8
Q

Jared is a beginner client with weight loss goals and several mild movement dysfunctions. During the beginning phases, the repetition range for Jared during resistance training should be which of the following?

Held stable for a prolonged time frame

Low repetition

High repetition

Moderate repetition

A

High repetition

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9
Q

In which phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum does activation occur?

First

Third

Fourth

Second

A

Third

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10
Q

The theoretical basis that attempting to strengthen muscles when joint motion restriction is present will provide less-than-optimal results and limited joint ROM comes in part from which of the following?

Clark’s models

Janda’s syndromes

Kendall’s postures

Mennell’s truisms

A

Mennell’s truisms

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11
Q

The isometric tempo should last approximately how long?

4 counts

1 count

2 seconds

3 counts

A

2 seconds

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12
Q

Greatest strength gains take place while the muscle is under resistance during what muscle action in isolation?

Shortening

Perturbating

Stabilizing

Lengthening

A

Lengthening

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13
Q

The Activation phase primarily focuses on correcting which of the following?

Lengthened muscles

Muscle imbalance

Lack of flexibility

Hypertonic muscles

A

Lengthened muscles

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14
Q

Isolated strengthening is a technique used to increase what?

Intramuscular coordination

Extensibility

Synergistic dominance

Activation

A

Intramuscular coordination

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15
Q

The fitness professional uses activations to provide strength to muscles that lack the ability to appropriately eccentrically decelerate unwanted joint actions and do what else?

Concentrically accelerate unwanted movement

Stabilize unwanted movement

Maximize force production

Alleviate joint pain

A

Stabilize unwanted movement

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16
Q

What type of activations will provide mild stress to muscles, which may be used as part of a recovery day?

Beginner-level activations

Moderate-level activations

Low-level activations

High-level activations

A

Low-level activations

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17
Q

The concentric tempo should last approximately how long?

4 seconds

2 seconds

3 seconds

1 second

A

1 second

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18
Q

Jamie demonstrated a posterior pelvic tilt during the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following is an appropriate activation exercise for Jamie?

Abdominal crunch on stability ball

Standing hamstring curl

Wall slides

Standing hip flexor

A

Standing hip flexor

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19
Q

The combination of enhanced motor unit activation, synchronization, and firing rate is known to increase what at that specific muscle?

Strength

ROM

Intermuscular coordination

Tenacity

A

Strength

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20
Q

Which phase of the Corrective Exercise Continuum works to re-educate the human movement system back into a functional synergistic movement pattern?

Inhibit

Lengthen

Activate

Integrate

A

Integrate

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21
Q

True or False? Multijoint exercises in all planes of motion from both bilateral and unilateral stances help increase intermuscular coordination and re-educate the neuromuscular system to maintain proper postural alignment during functional activity.

True

False

A

True

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22
Q

Which of the following is a precaution for integrated dynamic movement?

Neuromuscular disorders

Acute injury

Muscle tear

Pain

A

Neuromuscular disorders

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23
Q

How frequently should integrated dynamic movement be performed?

1 to 3 days per week

2 to 4 days per week

3 to 5 days per week

5 to 7 days per week

A

3 to 5 days per week

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24
Q

Overhead movements, often used in integrated dynamic movements, standing, unilateral and bilateral exercises, help to place increased stress on what other area?

Ipsilateral musculature

Core musculature

Triceps

Lats

A

Core musculature

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25
Kaden is a 45-year-old office work just beginning a corrective exercise program. What is an example of a total body primer exercise for more advanced programming in the future? Push up Ball squat with overhead press Barbell squat Seated overhead press
Ball squat with overhead press
26
In order to obtain neuromuscular efficiency and optimization of human movement, total-body integrated exercises are called on to provide and control which of the following? Balance Degrees of freedom Circumduction Joint ROM
Degrees of freedom
27
What should the fitness professional do when they first observe movement compensations during integrated movement in order to allow the athlete to cognitively process proper form? Decrease the load to require less from the muscles Stop the exercise Increase the load to demand more from the muscles Give verbal cues
Give verbal cues
28
Integration techniques are used to reeducate the Human Movement System back into what type functional movement pattern? Cooperative Length-tension Force-couple Synergistic
Synergistic
29
Which of the following describes the ability of different muscles in the body to work together to allow coordination of global and refined movements? Total body coordination Multiplanar coordination Intermuscular coordination Intramuscular coordination
Intermuscular coordination
30
What is the recommended order of progressions when considering planes of motion? Sagittal > Scapular > Rotational Frontal > Transverse > Sagittal Transverse > Sagittal > Frontal Sagittal > Frontal > Transverse
Sagittal > Frontal > Transverse
31
Recent research has found which of the following regarding the use of wobble boards, soft mats, and air-filled bladders? They may decrease joint stiffness. They may increase motor control. They are ideal for producing power. They are ideal for producing strength.
They may increase motor control.
32
What is the most appropriate verbal cue to use if a client demonstrates knee valgus upon landing? "Keep your knees directly over your ankles." "Keep your knees in line with your second and third toes." "Keep your knees behind your toes." "Keep your knees out wider than your fifth toe."
"Keep your knees in line with your second and third toes."
33
What is practiced with limited resistance with slow tempos and high repetitions so that the client can modify and rehearse quality movement? Postural efficiency Muscular efficiency Structural efficiency Movement efficiency
Movement efficiency
34
Strengthening of one side unilaterally can also increase the strength of which of the following? Ipsilateral limb Posteriorly rotated limb Anteriorly rotated limb Contralateral limb
Contralateral limb
35
Which phase of the muscle action spectrum leads to the most muscle damage, inflammation, impaired muscle function, and muscular soreness occurs, providing a good reason to limit the number of sets for the initial exerciser? Concentric acceleration The amortization phase Eccentric deceleration Isometric stabilization
Eccentric deceleration
36
What is the prime mover of a specific joint action regardless of concentric or eccentric muscle action? Protagonist Antagonist Agonist Type II muscle fibers
Agonist
37
During which phase of the muscle action spectrum are most strength gains developed? Eccentric deceleration Concentric acceleration Isometric stabilization The amortization phase
Eccentric deceleration
38
The backbone for the entire corrective exercise process is to first build strong rapport with clients. True False
True
39
Which of the following represents the correct way to talk to clients about corrective exercise during the initial session? Discuss all the things that are wrong with them that they need to fix. Use technical jargon, such as compensation, impairment, and dysfunction. Use common language and create an environment free from judgement. Focus the conversation on things that the client feels negatively about.
Use common language and create an environment free from judgement.
40
Which of the following common scenarios is responsible for creating LPHC postural imbalances in a large portion of the greater population? Occupational stress Extended periods of sitting Hypertension Inadequate sleep
Extended periods of sitting
41
Which assessment tool should be used first to qualify a new client for an increase in physical activity? Biometrics Lifestyle questions Hydration status PAR-Q
PAR-Q
42
True or False? One of the best predictors for the occurrence of future injuries is having been injured in the past. True False
True
43
Which of the following actions are outside the scope of practice for an individual who only has Certified Personal Trainer and Corrective Exercise Specialist credentials? Select all that apply. Manual therapy Exercise prescription Motivational coaching Goal setting Dietary counseling
Manual therapy Dietary counseling
44
True or False? Corrective exercise is intended to help clients directly manage issues of acute pain and injury rehabilitation. True False
False
45
What is the most accurate purpose of the Physical Activity Readiness Questionnaire (PAR-Q+)? It is used to help determine a person's musculoskeletal structural alignment during a series of movement patterns. It is used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity. It is used to help determine deficits in joint range of motion and to refine observations made in previous assessments. It is used to help determine if a person exhibits any compensation in posture while standing still.
It is used to help determine if a person is ready to undertake an increase in physical activity.
46
"Do you have any stressors in your personal life?" is an example of a question assessing this client aspect? Recreation Lifestyle Hobbies Occupation
Lifestyle
47
Which statement most accurately describes the potential impact a previous low-back injury could have on a client? Improved lumbar mobility Reduced proprioception Herniated disk No direct impact
Reduced proprioception
48
Which items should be considered when assessing the lifestyle of a client? Recreation or hobbies Medical history and past surgeries Pattern overload and repetitive movements Occupation and stress
Recreation or hobbies
49
In which component of a client intake screen would the question, "Do you feel like your work day is mentally stressful?" be most appropriate to ask? Lifestyle Occupation Biometrics Medical history
Occupation
50
Which statement most accurately defines the use of terminology such as compensation, impairment, and dysfunction when communicating with a client? The terms should be used openly. Should be used only outside of the gym. The terms should be avoided. The terms should be used during goal setting.
The terms should be avoided.
51
A client states he has a sharp pain in his right knee when he is completing his exercises. What should the Corrective Exercise Specialist do to ensure the client's safety? Suggest supplements for the client to take for these issues. Refer them to a qualified medical professional. Modify activity for the day and continue as normal for the next session. Continue the session as normal.
Refer them to a qualified medical professional.
52
It is recommended that adults sleep how many hours a night? 8 to 10 hours 8 to 9 hours 6 to 8 hours 10 to 11 hours
8 to 9 hours
53
Which of the following is a sign or symptom that would immediately require a fitness professional to stop activity and refer a client to the appropriate medical professional? A hunched over posture Difficulty performing a deep squat A painful, swollen joint Chronic knee instability
A painful, swollen joint
54
A client answered YES to the medical history question, "Has your doctor ever said you have a heart condition or high blood pressure?" How should the fitness professional react to stay within a Corrective Exercise Specialist's scope of practice? Make recommendations about how the client can reduce stress in their life. Make nutrition recommendations to help lower their blood pressure. Require the client to get clearance from their doctor before beginning an exercise program. Begin the client's movement assessment process.
Require the client to get clearance from their doctor before beginning an exercise program.
55
What assessment collects valuable subjective information and identifies "red flags" that may be the first glimpse at potential movement impairments? Mobility Assessment Client Intake Screen Static Posture Assessment Overhead Squat Assessment
Client Intake Screen
56
Which of the following mental health topics is likely within a fitness professional's scope of practice to discuss with a client? Occupational stress Confused thinking Substance abuse Excessive worrying
Occupational stress
57
What component of the initial session is essential for developing a long-lasting relationship with clients? Biometrics Goal setting PAR-Q+ Rapport building
Rapport building
58
This region of the body is most likely impacted by sitting most of the day? Knee Ankle LPHC Shoulder
LPHC
59
While conducting a client intake screen, Sherry noticed that her client has reported feeling sad, low energy, and irritable and has had a significant change in her nutrition habits. What is the most appropriate action for Sherry to take next? Refer the client to a licensed mental health professional. Make recommendations as to how to improve her mental health. Write a detailed nutrition plan for Sherry. Recommend medications and supplements to help Sherry feel better.
Refer the client to a licensed mental health professional.
60
What three words are often known to fitness professionals but may not be the best to use with clients when communicating regarding the corrective exercise process? Function, mobility, and comfort Rapport, empathy, and understanding Assessment, movement, and mobility Compensation, impairment, and dysfunction
Compensation, impairment, and dysfunction
61
"Do you feel energized throughout the day and prior to activities?" is a question that would be found in what section of the client intake screen? PAR-Q+ Lifestyle Occupation Medical history
Lifestyle
62
A new client says they work as a computer programmer. What is the primary consideration in designing their corrective exercise program? Inadequate sleep at night Increased risk of reinjury High blood pressure Extended periods of sitting
Extended periods of sitting
63
Which of the following statements most accurately provides an example of a SMART goal? To increase 5k run time by 5 minutes, in 10 weeks, by training distance running and sprints 4 days per week. To win a race at the end of the year by working as much as possible with a fitness professional. To increase marathon run time by 1 hour in 3 weeks by running on the treadmill 2 days per week. To increase 10k run time by 10 minutes by running every day on a treadmill.
To increase 5k run time by 5 minutes, in 10 weeks, by training distance running and sprints 4 days per week.
64
Why is wearing high heels daily a consideration for potential postural dysfunction? It signifies the potential for hypertension. It leads to high levels of occupational stress. It puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion. It reduces sleep quality and quantity.
It puts the ankles in chronic plantarflexion.
65
Which of the following statements describes the easiest method to assess one's hydration status? Calculate daily calories Observe urine color Get medically tested Measure the sweat rate
Observe urine color
66
During which part of the initial session would a fitness professional discuss a client's desire to win a 10km race next spring? Goal setting Static Posture Assessment Client Intake Screen PAR-Q+
Goal setting
67
What are the key components of the Cumulative Injury Cycle? Adhesion, dysfunction, and surgery Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms, and adhesions Synergistic dominance and movement impairments Muscle spasms, compensation, and injury
Tissue trauma, inflammation, muscle spasms, and adhesions
68
What is the long-term impact that repeated heavy lifting can have on the kinetic chain? Synergistic dominance Shoulder impingement Overpronation of the feet Breathing Pattern Dysfunction
Synergistic dominance
69
Which of the following statements accurately describes the effects of poor hydration levels on performance and movement? It makes high-intensity activities easier to perform. It causes a decrease in performance and overall health. Electrolytes work better when the body is slightly dehydrated. Poor hydration will make movements rapid and twitchy.
It causes a decrease in performance and overall health.
70
Knee injuries can cause a decrease in neural control to muscles that stabilize which two joints? Sacroiliac and acetabulofemoral Talocrural and subtalar Glenohumeral and radioulnar Patellofemoral and tibiofemoral
Patellofemoral and tibiofemoral
71
Which of the following muscles are commonly overactive/shortened for many people? Select all that apply. Pectoralis minor Lower trapezius Latissimus dorsi Psoas Gastrocnemius Gluteus maximus
Pectoralis minor Latissimus dorsi Psoas Gastrocnemius
72
What checkpoints should a Corrective Exercise Specialist focus on observing during a static postural assessment? Select all that apply. Foot and ankle Ankles and shins Knee Lower back LPHC Shoulders and thoracic spine Head and cervical spine
Foot and ankle Knee LPHC Shoulders and thoracic spine Head and cervical spine
73
True or False? To get the most optimal observations of a client’s static posture, it is best that they keep their athletic shoes on. True False
False
74
Which of Kendall’s posture types is characterized by excessive thoracic kyphosis and a posterior pelvic tilt that causes reduced lumbar lordosis? Lordotic posture Flat-back posture Sway-back posture Kyphosis-lordosis posture
Sway-back posture
75
Which common postural distortion pattern is characterized by a combination of flat feet, knee valgus, and an anterior pelvic tilt? Kyphosis-lordisis posture Upper Crossed Syndrome Flat-back posture Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome
Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome
76
What are common overactive/shortened muscles in the upper body? Rectus abdominis, transverse abdominis, gluteus maximus, and gluteus medius Middle and lower trapezius, rhomboids, serratus anterior, and deep cervical neck flexors Cervical extensors, pectorals, upper trapezius, and levator scapula Quadratus lumborum, piriformis, psoas, and soleus
Cervical extensors, pectorals, upper trapezius, and levator scapula
77
Which are the four dysfunctional spinal postures identified by Kendall? Upper Crossed Syndrome, Lower Crossed Syndrome, and kyphosis-lordosis Kyphosis-lordosis, Layered Crossed Syndrome, and text neck Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis Sway-back, lordotic, and Upper Crossed Syndrome
Lordotic, flat-back, sway-back, and kyphosis-lordosis
78
The Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture presents with which of the following static positions in the lower body? Posterior tilted pelvis, decreased lumbar lordosis, extended knees, and dorsiflexed ankles Excessive lumbar lordosis, anterior tilted pelvis, flexed hips, and flexed/hyperextended knees Decreased lumbar lordosis, extended hips, extended knees, and dorsiflexed ankles Lateral thoracic shift, decreased lumbar lordosis, posterior pelvic tilt, and extended knees
Excessive lumbar lordosis, anterior tilted pelvis, flexed hips, and flexed/hyperextended knees
79
Which issue can occur following an acute injury that leads to altered posture and movement patterns? Chronic muscle imbalances Corrective exercises become painful to perform Decreased total body strength Overlengthened tendons and ligaments
Chronic muscle imbalances
80
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in Pes Planus Distortion Syndrome? Gluteus maximus, hamstrings, abdominals, internal obliques, and vastus lateralis Abdominals, internal obliques, gluteus minimus and maximus, and tensor fascia lata Adductors, iliopsoas, peroneals, gastrocnemius, and soleus Hamstrings, gluteus maximus, medius, abdominals, and external obliques
Adductors, iliopsoas, peroneals, gastrocnemius, and soleus
81
The Kendall sway-back posture presents with which of the following static positions in the upper body? Forward head, extended cervical spine, and excessive thoracic kyphosis Neutral head, extended lumbar spine, and lateral thoracic shift Neutral head, neutral cervical spine, and flat thoracic spine Tilted head, flexed cervical spine, and flat upper thoracic spine
Forward head, extended cervical spine, and excessive thoracic kyphosis
82
Which upper-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall sway-back posture? Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and intercostals Middle trapezius, biceps, forearm flexors, and lower trapezius Rhomboids, scalenes, biceps, and triceps Middle trapezius, rhomboids, deltoids, and biceps
Upper trapezius, levator scapulae, pectoralis minor, and intercostals
83
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall sway-back posture? Intercostals, abdominals, internal obliques, and hip extensors Gluteus maximus, transversus abdominis, and rectus abdominis Gluteus medius, adductors, and quadriceps Lumbar extensors, hip flexors, quads, and adductors
Intercostals, abdominals, internal obliques, and hip extensors
84
Which lower-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall kyphosis-lordosis posture? Internal obliques, hip flexors, and lumbar extensors Quadriceps, hamstrings, and gluteus maximus Abdominals, gluteus maximus, medius, and hip extensors Hip extensors, tibialis posterior, and gluteus minimus
Internal obliques, hip flexors, and lumbar extensors
85
Which upper-body muscles are commonly overactive in the Kendall flat-back posture? Middle trapezius, rhomboids, deltoids, and biceps Middle trapezius, biceps, forearm flexors, and lower trapezius Rhomboids, scalenes, biceps, and triceps Pectoralis minor, shoulder adductors, upper trapezius, and levator scapulae
Pectoralis minor, shoulder adductors, upper trapezius, and levator scapulae
86
Which of the following are considered transitional movement assessments? Select all that apply. Overhead squat Single-leg squat Davies test Depth jump
Overhead squat Single-leg squat
87
What is the primary intention behind learning how to perform loaded movement assessments? To use them with all clients during all assessment sessions. To see how the body performs the primary movement patterns with additional resistance. To assess a client’s maximal strength and athletic performance. To observe a client’s dynamic posture in a real-world scenario.
To see how the body performs the primary movement patterns with additional resistance.
88
How deep should a client be instructed to squat to during the Overhead Squat Assessment? Femur parallel to the ground As deep as is possible Quarter squat depth Olympic deep-catch position
Femur parallel to the ground
89
Which movement impairments should the Corrective Exercise Specialist look for when observing a loaded squat from the anterior viewpoint? Select all that apply. Feet turn out Knee valgus or varus Heel rise Asymmetric weight shift
Feet turn out Knee valgus or varus Asymmetric weight shift
90
Which movement impairments are best observed using the loaded push and pull assessments? Select all that apply. Knee valgus Arms fall forward Scapular elevation Excessive cervical extension
Scapular elevation Excessive cervical extension
91
Which loaded primary movement pattern exercise is best to use to see if a client has the arms fall forward movement compensation? Goblet squat Standing overhead dumbbell press Cable chest press Standing tubing row
Standing overhead dumbbell press
92
Which of the following statements is true regarding the depth jump assessment? Select all that apply. Use it with advanced clients as a progression to the OHSA. Observe the assessment from the posterior viewpoint. Focus on the jump more than the landing. It is a predictor of repeat ACL injuries in clients who exhibit knee valgus. Do not perform it until transitional assessments are relatively impairment-free.
Use it with advanced clients as a progression to the OHSA. It is a predictor of repeat ACL injuries in clients who exhibit knee valgus. Do not perform it until transitional assessments are relatively impairment-free.
93
Which movement impairment is characterized by an upright trunk and more knee flexion excursion than hip flexion excursion? Knee valgus Knee varus Excessive anterior pelvic tilt Knee dominance
Knee dominance
94
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to scapular winging during the Davies test? Pectoralis minor Serratus anterior Lower trapezius Infraspinatus
Pectoralis minor
95
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to knee dominance during the split squat assessment? Gluteus maximus Gluteus medius Quadriceps complex Adductor complex
Gluteus maximus
96
Which of the following movement assessments would assess plyometric capabilities of the upper extremities? Overhead squat Depth jump Davies test Single-leg squat
Davies test
97
Which view allows for the optimal assessment of frontal plane movements (adduction and abduction)? Posterior Lateral Anterior Top
Anterior
98
Which movement assessment mimics movements associated with a walking and running gait and would be considered a regression from the single-leg squat assessment? Split squat Davies test Depth jump Overhead squat
Split squat
99
Which category of movement assessments includes the Davies test? Transitional Loaded Dynamic Static
Dynamic
100
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to the arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Lower trapezius Serratus anterior Infraspinatus Latissimus dorsi
Latissimus dorsi
101
Which movement assessment utilizes dumbbells to assess a vertical pushing movement? Standing push assessment Davies test Standing overhead press Standing pull assessment
Standing overhead press
102
What compensatory movements create an excessive anterior pelvic tilt? An upright trunk and knees in front of toes. The pelvis rolling forward and lumbar extension. The hip shifting toward one side or the other. The knees bowing inward.
The pelvis rolling forward and lumbar extension.
103
For which movement impairment would one see the knees bow outward? Excessive anterior pelvic tilt Knee valgus Knee dominance Knee varus
Knee varus
104
Which movement assessment is considered the best assessment of an individual's balance? Davies test Standing overhead dumbbell press Overhead squat Single-leg squat
Single-leg squat
105
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to a heel rise during the overhead squat assessment? Gluteus maximus Fibularis (peroneal) complex Anterior tibialis Quadriceps complex
Quadriceps complex
106
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to the arms falling forward during the overhead squat assessment? Cervical extensors Upper trapezius Latissimus dorsi Lower trapezius
Lower trapezius
107
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to scapular winging during the Davies test? Cervical extensors Latissimus dorsi Pectoralis minor Serratus anterior
Serratus anterior
108
Which muscle would be considered overactive/shortened, leading to scapular elevation during a loaded pulling movement? Infraspinatus Latissimus dorsi Upper trapezius Lower trapezius
Upper trapezius
109
Which category of movement assessments includes gait assessments? Transitional Loaded Dynamic Static
Dynamic
110
What dysfunctional movement is observed during scapular elevation? The shoulders moving upward toward the ears. The trunk leaning forward. The scapula protruding excessively from the back. The arms falling forward.
The shoulders moving upward toward the ears.
111
Which muscle would be considered underactive/lengthened, leading to excessive pronation during the overhead squat assessment? Peroneals complex Hamstrings complex TFL Posterior tibialis
Posterior tibialis
112
For which movement impairment would one see the arch of the foot collapse or malalignment of the Achilles tendon? Excessive pronation Heel raise Asymmetrical weight shift Feet turn out
Excessive pronation
113
What compensatory movements create an excessive posterior pelvic tilt? The pelvis rolling backward and lumbar flexion. The knees bowing outward. The pelvis rolling forward and lumbar extension. An upright trunk and knees in front of toes.
The pelvis rolling backward and lumbar flexion.
114
Which category of movement assessments includes the split squat? Loaded Transitional Dynamic Static
Transitional
115
What type of muscle contractions are common during the jumping phase of the depth jump? Concentric Isokinetic Isometric Eccentric
Concentric
116
Which type of movement assessment should always be performed first? Loaded Transitional Dynamic Static
Transitional
117
Which category of movement assessments includes the overhead squat? Dynamic Transitional Static Loaded
Transitional
118