CHAPTER 6 - ASSAULT LANDING ZONE OPERATIONS Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
What is considered a “standard operating strip”?
A
5,000 ft x 60 ft
2
Q
Define an ALZ
A
natural, semi-prepared, or prefabricated strip with surface, slope, dimensions, load-bearing capacity, and clearance from obstructions
sufficient to allow suitably-trained crews to takeoff/land in good weather conditions
3
Q
What AF pub can be used to find ALZ info?
A
AFI 13-217, Drop Zone and Landing Zone Operations
4
Q
What 3 categories are airfields generally divided into?
A
- high-strength
- marginal strength
- substandard
5
Q
Define High-Strength Airfield
A
paved runways either Rigid (concrete) or Flexible (asphalt) with a subgrade code indicating strength of soil bearing the runway environment
6
Q
Define Marginal Strength Airfield
A
temporary airfields with minimally surfaced or unsurfaced runways such as dirt, grass, gravel, coral, etc
surface/soil strength evaluated in terms of California Bearing Ratio
7
Q
What is CBR?
A
California Bearing Ratio
lower numerical values indicate lower subgrade strength - surfacing material is considered to be ineffective and only the subgrade soil is considered in defining the airfield strength
8
Q
What is the minimum soil strength required for operation on marginal strength airfields?
When should particular consideration be given to operations? (what value?)
A
CBR value of 3
CBR of 6 or less
9
Q
What can adverse soil characteristics result in?
A
poor braking, unpredictable rutting or other surface deterioration, airframe damage from thrown dirt/gravel, engine FOD
10
Q
What constitutes a “pass”?
A
1 landing plus 1 takeoff
11
Q
The number of passes is predicated on what?
A
aircraft weight and CBR
based on recommended tire pressures corresponding to 39% tire deflection for marginal strength airfields
12
Q
To prevent excessive tire damage what should you do?
A
do not exceed 39% tire deflection
13
Q
To minimize a/c and engine maintenance on marginal strength/substandard what are some things you can do?
A
- inflate/deflate MLG tires to recommended psi
- empty external fuel tanks
- do not exceed 10 kts while taxiing
- minimize braking if porpoising occurs
- minimize nose gear loads by using elevator during landing rollout and takeoff / load a/c to mid or aft CG
- minimize use of reverse
- shut off FS and cargo AC to prevent clogging of heat exchanger unit
- limit gross weight to 164K
14
Q
Define Substandard Airfields
A
may be either paved or unpaved and have unusually rough, undulating, pitted, or rutted runways
visible ruts
most likely not considered for normal/routine operations
15
Q
Operational feasibility on unsurfaced airfields depend on what?
A
soil type, soil moisture content, and operational frequency
16
Q
What do Ground Flotation charts do?
A
permit matching the loads that the aircraft imposes on an airfield to the strength capability of the airfield
17
Q
Ground flotation characteristics are correlated for the following 5 methods of evaluating runway strength:
A
- Footprint Loading (pressure) - same as tire inflation pressure
- Unit Construction Index (UCI) - determine characteristics of comparative a/c, seldom used
- Equivalent Single-Wheel Load (ESWL) - determined from geometry of multiple wheeled landing gears, number and size of tires, a/c weight. Where data are given in terms of ESWL, UCI & LCN values can be calculated
- Load Classification Number (LCN) - when this is used (primarily outside US), data shown on ground flotation charts can be used to estimate the capability of a/c to operate from given airfield
- CBR - represent required surface hardness for operation of a/c in terms of weight and number of passes
18
Q
Which fields can be evaluated in terms of CBR?
A
only unpaved surfaces
19
Q
To compute minimum runway required
unless otherwise specified, compute landing distance or ground roll with what?
A
4 engines in reverse and full brakes
20
Q
Minimum Runway Required
land with training crew
A
3,000 ft
or
ground roll + 1000 ft
whichever is greater
21
Q
Minimum Runway Required
takeoff with training crew
A
3,000 ft
or
ground run + 1,000 ft
or
AMFLMETO + 500 ft
whichever is greater
22
Q
Minimum Runway Required
land with sustainment training/operational crew
A
Ground roll + 500 ft w/ 4 engine reverse and full brakes
No wind, 150% tailwinds
23
Q
Minimum Runway Required
takeoff with sustainment training/operational crew
A
Ground run + 500 ft
or
AMFLEMTO, whichever is greater
No wind, 150% tailwinds
24
Q
What don’t we use MFLMETO?
A
does not provide adequate safety margins for engine loss below Vmca
takeoffs with field length between AMFLMETO and MFLEMETO require approval by the appropriate authority
25
How wide should taxiways be?
for single-direction operations they should be no less than 40 ft but should be made 60 ft wide to increase ease in turning off the runway
26
What should the dimensions of a parking apron be?
no less than 150 ft long and 150 ft wide
27
How far do overruns extend?
300 ft outward from the arrival and departure ends of the runway
28
Which Marine Corps beacon is compatible with the C-130?
PPN-19
29
What is the primary use of the IR-Cooled Descent?
remain in a sanctuary altitude as long as possible and then descend through threat engagement altitudes with a reduced IR and aural signature
30
What is the Random High Approach designed to do?
fly outside the effective range of small arms and descend within the protected airspace of the Base Defense Zone (BDZ)
31
Why should you use the Random Low or Shallow Approaches?
used to counter the threat of enemy aircraft, ADA, or certain types of SAMs
least effective in countering a small arms threat
32
What are the 5 random low approaches?
```
Straight-In
Teardrop
Abeam
Spiral
Downwind
```
33
Advantages of random low approaches
reduced exposure time to ADA and SAMs
| minimized overflight time of unsecured areas surrounding the airfield
34
Disadvantages of random low approaches
places aircraft in small arms envelope
closer to the ground
requires more aircrew proficiency and experience
navigation and ALZ acquisition more difficult
35
What are the parameters for a good final?
200-300 AGL
| 0.5 NM (no less than 0.25)
36
The LM will call Brown Out 3 times. Where is the dust each time he says it?
- when dust cloud obscures trailing edge of horizontal stabilizer
- obscures the leading edge of horizontal stabilizer
- obscures paratroop door windows
37
Define Takeoff Factor
combines the parameters of field pressure altitude and runway temperature
based on normal bleed air condition
38
Define Refusal Speed
based on runway available
max speed to which aircraft can accelerate with engines at takeoff power and then stop within the remainder of the runway available with 2 engines in reverse, 1 engine in ground idle, 1 prop fx'd and max anti-skid braking
39
What should you do if refusal speed is greater than the brake energy limit speed?
set refusal speed equal to brake energy limit speed
40
Define Critical Field Length
total runway distance required to accelerate on all engines to CEF speed, experience an engine failure, then continue the takeoff or stop within the same distance
41
Define Critical Engine Failure Speed
speed to which aircraft can accelerate, lose an engine, and then either continue the takeoff with the remaining engines or stop in the same runway distance.
42
Define Brake Energy Limit Speed
max speed at which anti-skid braking can be applied without exceeding the energy absorption limit of the brake system
43
Define Minimum Field Length for MAX Effort Takeoff
length of runway required to accelerate to CEF, experience an engine failure, and stop or continue acceleration to max effort takeoff speed within the remaining runway
44
Define max effort takeoff speed
1.05 Vmu4, 4-engine minimum unstick speed
45
What is Vmu4
4-engine minimum liftoff speed with aircraft at maximum pitch attitude on the ground
46
What is Vmu3
3-engine minimum liftoff speed with aircraft at maximum pitch attitude on the ground
47
Define 3 engine minimum liftoff speed
1.05 Vmu3, 3-engine minimum unstick speed
48
Define Minimum Field Length for ADJUSTED Max Effort Takeoff
distance required to accelerate on all engines to CEF, experience an engine failure, then in the same distance either stop or accelerate to liftoff at or above Vmca and the 3-engine minimum liftoff speed
49
On an AMFLMETO takeoff, what should you do if an engine fails after refusal speed?
accelerate to rotation speed and rotate toward the target pitch attitude
once airborne, adjust pitch attitude to accelerate to obstacle clearance speed while maintaining a climb
50
When should acceleration check time be made?
between brake release and either 60, 70, 80, 90, 100, 110, or 120 kts
use the highest of these speeds which will not exceed refusal -10 (rounded to the nearest 10 kts)
51
What tolerance is applied to acceleration check time?
3 kt tolerance applied to determine the minimum acceptable speed
52
Define Maximum Effort Takeoff Distance
distance required to accelerate from brake release to takeoff speed, liftoff, and climb to a 50 ft height.
53
The normal rotation speed is scheduled to ensure what?
that the liftoff speed is greater than the air minimum control speed and the obstacle clearance speed is at least 1.2 times the power off stall speed
54
The adjusted max effort takeoff rotation speed is scheduled to ensure what?
that liftoff speed is greater than the air minimum control speed and the 3-engine minimum liftoff speed
55
Define ground minimum control speed
minimum airspeed during the takeoff ground run at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control of the aircraft using the rudder control alone and takeoff safely using normal piloting skill while maintaining takeoff power on the remaining engine
56
What is the most critical condition for ground minimum control speed?
No. 1 engine failed at light gross weight
57
In general, what do the air minimum control speeds mean?
speed at which rudder and aileron control inputs can balance the yawing and rolling moments caused by the engine-out condition and aircraft can still maintain a straight course
58
Define Vmca1
min speed at which, when the critical engine fails, it is possible to maintain control of aircraft with the engine still inoperative and maintain straight flight with an AOB not to exceed 5 degrees
59
Attempting to maintain wings level with 1 engine out increases Vmca by how much with:
Flaps up
Flaps at 50
Flaps up - 23 KIAS
Flaps 50 - 43 KIAS
larger for flaps 50 because power restoration on operating outboard engine scheduled by ATCS has larger effect at lower airspeeds
60
Threshold Speed
100 flaps
Vs x 1.32
61
Threshold Speed
50 flaps
Vs x 1.28
62
Threshold Speed
0 flaps
Vs x 1.28
63
Threshold Speed
Max Effort
1.1 Vs + 5.5 KIAS
64
What is the minimum threshold speed for 100 flaps and why?
102 KIAS due to engine out control authority considerations
65
What is the minimum touchdown speed for 100 flaps and why?
95.5 KIAS due to engine out control authority considerations
66
What is the touchdown speed for 50/100 flaps, normal technique?
Threshold -6 kts
67
What is the max effort touchdown speed?
Vs x 1.1
68
The forces felt in the rudder pedals are always proportional to what?
the airflow on the rudder
69
At medium to high power and slow speed, large rudder deflections can cause sideslip to exceed how many degrees?
17 to 21 degrees
70
When the rudder is at extreme angles what can the rudder start to do?
float with the airflow
71
How can you recognize rudder force lightning?
What would happen if the pilot continues to push the pedals?
when the pedal begins to move more easily, and sideslip continues to increase
the rudder pedal force continues to decrease until the rudder floats toward full deflection by itself (rudder overbalance)
72
What will happen if rudder force lightning is not immediately corrected?
How much altitude could be loss trying to recover?
aircraft reaches extreme sideslip and may roll to a high angle of bank
Up to 5,000 ft
73
If rudder overbalance occurs above 150 kts what can occur?
rapid roll and yaw rates can develop, causing sever overstress of aircraft components - however, side forces and rudder forces are so high it is difficult to reach overbalance
74
When is rudder overbalance the easiest time to occur?
as airspeed is slowed and power is increased
rudder moves more easily to the left than to the right
more easily with gear up than down
75
When is rudder force lighting more likely to occur?
during a maximum effort takeoff, after the gear is raised
76
During an approach, when does full rudder input not result in rudder force lightning?
at approach speeds with the gear down and at FLT IDLE
rudder inputs for lineup during crosswinds does not present a hazard
77
What can cause the rudder forces and sideslip angles to reach rudder force lightning to decrease?
empennage anti-ice mode to keep vertical tail free of ice fails and ice builds up on the vertical tail
78
The sideslip angle that generates a SIDE SLIP alert can only be reached with what?
symmetric power
With asymmetric power - only the rudder special alert will occur
79
When does the LEFT or RIGHT RUDDER special alerts occur?
slightly before or at the sideslip angle where rudder force lightning begins
they occur if the pilot ignores a SIDE SLIP special alert or if no rudder is used during high asymmetric power conditions
80
What sort of pitching moment can accompany the rudder overbalance condition?
an obvious nose-up or a subtle nose-down pitching moment
81
If large yaw rates and roll rate are reached during the recovery from an extreme sideslip, how can fuel damage the aircraft?
fuel sloshing against the sides of the tank can cause structural damage
probability of damage increases with more fuel in the tank, with higher angles of bank, and higher roll and yaw rates.
82
If extreme sideslip results in an uncontrolled roll of more than 60 degrees AOB, what is required?
maintenance is required before the next flight
83
When should hot brakes be suspected?
after maximum braking during landing at heavy gross weight
84
When do peak temperatures occur in the brake assembly after a max braking operation?
1-5 minutes after
85
When do peak temperatures occur in the wheel and tire assembly after a max braking operation?
20-30 minutes after
86
Do not taxi or tow the aircraft for how long after overheated brakes have been cooled?
at least 15 minutes
87
Are max effort takeoffs approved with anti-icing fluids?
no
88
What should you do to rotation speed if type II/IV anti-icing fluid is used?
add 5 KIAS to normal rotation speed with a minimum rotation speed of 100 KIAS
89
What should you do if vertical tail is treated with anti-icing fluid?
rotation speed must be equal to refusal speed
if refusal speed is less than rotation speed, takeoff is not permitted
90
What does Runway Condition Reading (RCR) relate to?
average braking effectiveness of runway surface to braking capability of aircraft when depth of runway contaminant is LESS than 3mm.
91
What does Runway Surface Condition (RSC) relate to?
depth and type of runway covering such as water or slush, reported in tenths of an inch (1 inch = RSC of 10)
affects both the acceleration and stopping performance of aircraft
contaminants GREATER than 3mm.
92
What should you do if Vcef is higher than brake energy limit speed?
weight must be reduced
93
What should you do if refusal speed is higher than brake energy limit speed?
set refusal speed equal to brake energy limit speed
94
What is the 3 engine minimum liftoff speed based on?
aircraft capability with 50% flaps and power effects with 3 engines operating in ground effect
95
Is the Vmcg considered for AMFLMETO speed schedules?
no
96
Vmcg conditions:
1. ATCS operating
2. No. 1 engine failed with prop auto-fx'd
3. Max takeoff power on other engines
4. Max Rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs of rudder pedal force
5. Min takeoff weight
6. Flaps 50
7. No NWS required
8. Max lateral deviation from initial runway track of 30 ft
97
Vmca1 conditions?
1. ATCS operating
2. No. 1 engine failed with prop auto-fx'd
3. Max takeoff power on other engines
4. Max Rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs of rudder pedal force
5. Min flying weight
6. Zero rudder trim
7. Bank angle less or equal to 5 degrees away from failed engine
98
Loss of either hydraulic system results in what increase to Vmca:
Flaps up
Flaps 50
Why?
Flaps up - 36 kts (only 1300 lbs of px)
Flaps 50 - 20 kts (3000 lbs of px)
99
What should you do to obtain high boost with the flaps in the retracted position?
appropriate circuit breaker is pulled to disengage the flaps from the flap lever and the flap lever is then repositioned to correspond to a flap deflection of higher than 20%
100
Vmca2 conditions?
1. No. 1 and 2 engines failed. No. 2 prop auto-fx'd and No. 1 prop windmilling
2. Max takeoff power on other engines
3. Max Rudder deflection limited by 150 lbs of rudder pedal force
4. Min flying weight
5. Flaps 50
6. Bank angle 5 degrees away from failed engines
7. Rudder trim required for a 3 degree approach with 3 engines operating
8. Gear down
101
Attempting to maintain wings level with 2 engines out increases Vmca2 by how much with:
Flaps 50
24 KIAS
102
Define takeoff ground run
distance required to accelerate from brake release to liftoff
103
Takeoff distances are based on what?
Scheduled rotation and obstacle clearance speeds
104
What should you do if an engine failure occurs after rotation speed during a MAX effort takeoff?
do not attempt a maximum effort lift-off
reduce pitch attitude and increase airspeed as much as possible, obtaining air minimum control speed
105
When runway length available is equal to AMFLMETO distance, what airspeeds are the same?
refusal speed and Vcef
106
What does the CNI-MU NOT do to the rotation speed when you select AMAX in TOLD INIT?
does not increase rotation speed to Vmca if it is greater than minimum liftoff speed
107
If you increase the rotation speed during an adjusted max effort takeoff then what else do you need to account for?
increase in AMFLMETO
108
IPRA
What 3 points do you need to define?
IAF
RPI
MAF
109
IPRA
What should the distance between RPI-FAF be?
1-10 NM
110
IPRA
What should the distance between FAF-IF be?
5-15 NM
111
Briefly describe 3 different types of Combat Offload Methods
Method A - accelerate a/c out from under an unrestrained load. Ramp in ADS position
Method B - offload cargo onto metal drums. Ramp in ADS position
Method C - ramp is lowered to ground. Cargo offloaded directly onto ground using aux ground loading ramps
112
Use Method A to offload which type of cargo?
Single, multiple, ramp, or married pallets
airdrop platforms
CDS containers
113
When conducting Method A, how long should the ramp be?
at least 500 ft long but 1000 is desired
114
If conducting Method A without ballasts, how heavy can the cargo be?
does not exceed 12,000 lbs
115
What if offloading cargo heavier than 12000 lbs using Method A?
provided ballast or cargo equal to the difference between 12,000 lbs and the weights of the pallets or platforms (to be offloaded) remains in C-F compartments during offload.
For example: a 17,000 lbs married pallet or airdrop platform requires 5000 lbs of ballast or cargo to remain in C-F compartments during the offload
116
Method A
If CDS has CVR and over 12,000 lbs?
offload must be accomplished one side at a time
117
Method A
If CDS is non-CVR, single stick and under 12,000 lbs?
single stick may be offloaded
118
Method A
If CDS is non-CVR, total weight of bundles exceeds 12,000 lbs?
bundles should be restrained in groups of 4 or less and offloaded one group at a time
119
Use Method B to offload which type of cargo?
married pallets that do not fit the category for Method A or for which no ballast is available for married pallets weighing between 12000-15000 lbs.
120
How many drums and types of drums to be used for Method B?
4 serviceable 55-gallon drums under each pallet to be offloaded
121
What is the maximum weight for pallets to be off-loaded across the ramp at any one time when using Method B?
15000 lbs
122
Should you use Method B for airdrop-rigged platforms?
No
prevent binding the platform under the vertical restraint rails
123
Which checklist should you use for Method B?
Method C checklist
124
Use Method C to offload which type of cargo?
offload single or multiple pallets when other Combat Offload methods are not possible due to their requirements
125
Method C
raise the ramp how high off the ground?
Taxi how far forward?
12 inches
88 inches
126
Method C
Pallets are limited to what weight?
What will not be offloaded with this method?
8500 lbs
airdrop platforms/CDS
