chapter 6 departure Flashcards by Simone Quandt

When is an IFR flight plan required?
A- When less than VFR conditions exist in either Class E or Class G airspace and in Class A airspace.
B- In all Class E when conditions are below VFR, in Class A airspace, and in defense zone airspace.
C- In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace.

C- In Class E airspace when IMC exists or in Class A airspace

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Prior to which operation must and IFR flight plan be filed and an appropriate ATC clearance received?
A- Flying by reference to instruments in controlled airspace.
B- Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.
C- Takeoff when IFR weather conditions exist.

B- Entering controlled airspace when IMC exists.

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To operate under IFR below 18,000 feet, a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance prior to
A- entering controlled airspace.
B- entering weather conditions below VFR
C- takeoff.

A- entering controlled airspace.

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To operate an aircraft under IFR, a flight plan must have been filed and an ATC clearance received prior to
A- controlling the aircraft solely by use of instruments
B- entering weather conditions in any airspace
C- entering controlled airspace

C- entering controlled airspace

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When is an IFR clearance required during VFR weather conditions?
A- When operating in the Class E airspace.
B- When operating in a Class A airspace.
C- When operating in airspace above 14,500 feet.

B- When operating in a Class A airspace.

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Operation in which response requires filing an IFR flight plan?
A- Any airspace when the visibility is less than 1 mile.
B- Class E airspace when IMC and class A airspace.
C- Positive control area, Continental Control Area, and all other airspace, if the visibility is less than 1 mile.

B- Class E airspace when IMC and class A airspace.

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When departing from an airport located outside controller airspace during IMC, you must file an IFR flight plan and receive a clearance before
A- takeoff
B- entering IFR conditions
C- entering Class E airspace

C- entering Class E airspace

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No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless he/she files a flight plan
A- and receives a clearance by telephone prior to takeoff.
B- Prior to takeoff and requests the clearance upon arrival on an airway.
C- and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

C- and receives a clearance prior to entering controlled airspace.

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When may VFR waypoints be used on an IFR flight plan?
A- Never
B- Always
C- When filing a composite flight plan

A- Never

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During your preflight planning for an IFR flight, you determine that the first airport of intended landing has no instrument approach prescribed in 14 CFR part 97. The weather forecast for one hour before through one hour after your estimated time of arrival is 3000’ scattered with 5 miles visibility. To meet the fuel requirements for this flight, you must be able to fly the first airport of intended landing,
A- then to the alternate airport, and then for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed
B- then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
C- and then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

B- then to the alternate airport, and then for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

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What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planning ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
A- and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
B- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
C- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

B- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed

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What are the minimum fuel requirements in IFR conditions, if the first airport of intended landing is forecast to have a 1,500-foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility at flight-planned ETA? Fuel to fly to the first airport of intended landing,
A- and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
B- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed
C- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

C- fly to the alternate, and fly thereafter for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed

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When may a pilot file a composite flight plan?
A- When requested or advised by ATC
B- Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR
C- Any time a landing is planned at an intermediate airport.

B- Any time a portion of the flight will be VFR

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When filing a composite flight plan where the first portion of the flight is IFR, which fix(es) should be indicated on the flight plan form?
A- All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix
B- Only the fix where you plan to terminate the IFR portion of the flight
C- Only those compulsory reporting points on the IFR route segment

A- All points of transition from one airway to another, fixes defining direct route segments, and the clearance limit fix

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What is the recommended procedure for transitioning from VFR to IFR on a composite flight plan?
A- Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance
B- Upon reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact the nearest FSS and cancel your VFR flight plan, then contact ARTCC, request your IFR clearance
C- Prior to reaching the proposed point for change to IFR, contact ARTCC, request you IFR clearance, and instruct them to cancel the VFR flight plan

A- Prior to transitioning to IFR, contact the nearest FSS, close the VFR portion, and request ATC clearance

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What minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport, that has only a VOR approach with standard alternative minimums, for the airport to be listed as an alternate on the IFR flight plan?
A- 800-foot ceiling and 1 statute mile visibility
B- 800-foot ceiling and 2 statue miles visibility
C- 1,000-foot ceiling and visibility to allow descent from minimum en route altitude (MEA), approach, and landing under basic VFR

B- 800-foot ceiling and 2 statue miles visibility

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An airport may not be qualified for alternative use if
A- the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting.
B- the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area.
C- the only standard approach procedure is GPS.

C- the only standard approach procedure is GPS

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When your aircraft is equipped with a TSO-C129 or TSO-C196 GPS, an aircraft may not be qualified for alternate use if
A- the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate
B-the airport has only AWOS-3 weather reporting and no LAAS equipment operational
C- the airport is next to a restricted or prohibited area

A- the only standard approach procedure is GPS at the destination and alternate

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What are the alternate minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an airport that has a precision approach procedure?
A- 400-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility
B- 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility
C- 800-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility

B- 600-foot ceiling and 2 miles visibility

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When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure?
A- Ceiling 200 feet above the approach minimums and at least 1 statue mile visibility, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach
B- 600 foot ceiling and 2 statue miles visibility
C- Ceiling 200 feet above field elevation and visibility 1 statue mile, but not less than the minimum visibility for the approach.

B- 600 foot ceiling and 2 statue miles visibility

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What are the minimum weather conditions that must be forecast to list an airport as an alternate when the airport has no approved IAP?
A- The ceiling and visibility at ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively
B- The ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 2,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively
C- The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR

C- The ceiling and visibility at ETA must allow descent from MEA, approach, and landing, under basic VFR

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When a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport , which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?
A- 600-1 if the airport has an ILS.
B- Ceiling 200 feet above the published minimum; visibility 2 miles
C- The landing minimums for the approach to be used

C- The landing minimums for the approach to be used

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If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate, the landing minimums used at the airport should be the
A- minimums specified for the approach procedure selected
B- alternate minimums shown on the approach chart
C- minimums shown for that airport in a separate listing of “IFR Alternate Minimums.”

A- minimums specified for the approach procedure selected

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When making an instrument approach at the selected alternate airport, what landing minimums apply?
A- Standard alternate minimums (600-2 or 800-2).
B- The IFR alternate minimums listed for that airport.
C- The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected.

C- The landing minimums published for the type of procedure selected

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An airport without an authorized IAP may be included on an IFR flight plan as an alternate, if the current weather forecast indicates that the ceiling and visibility at the ETA will A-allow for descent from the IAF to landing under basic VFR conditions. B- be at least 1,000 feet and 1 mile. C- allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions

C- allow for a descent from the MEA, approach, and a landing under basic VFR conditions

Preferred IFR routes beginning with a fix indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix by A- the established airways(s) between the departure airport and the fix B- an instrument departure procedure (DP) or radar vectors. C- direct route only

B- an instrument departure procedure (DP) or radar vectors.

The most current en route and destination flight information for planning an instrument flight should be obtained from the A- ATIS broadcast B- AFSS C- Notices to Airman publications.

B- AFSS

What point at the destination should be used to compute estimated time en route on an IFR flight plan? A- The final approach fix on the expected instrument approach B- The initial approach fix on the expected instrument approach C- The point of first intended landing

C- The point of first intended landing

For aircraft other than helicopters, what forecast weather minimums are required to list an airport as an alternate on an IFR flight plan if the airport has VOR approach only? A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively B- Ceiling and visibility from 2 hours before until 2 hours after ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles respectively C- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 600 feet and 2 miles, respectively

A- Ceiling and visibility at ETA, 800 feet and 2 miles, respectively

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a precision approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums in order to list it as an alternate for he IFR flight? A- 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA. B- 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility from 2 hours before to 2 hours after your ETA C- 800-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA

A- 600-foot ceiling and 2 SM visibility at your ETA.

For aircraft other than helicopters, is an alternate airport required for IFR flight to ATL (Atlanta Hartsfield) if the proposed ETA is 1930Z? TAF KATL 121720Z 121818 20012KT 5SM HZ BKN030 FRM2000 3SM TSRA OVC025CB FROM 2200 33015G20KT P6SM BKN015 OVD040 BECMG 0608 02008KT BKN040 BECMG 1012 00000KT P6SM CLR= A- No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA B- No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to remain at or above 1,000 feet and 3 miles, respectively C- Yes, because the ceiling could fall below 2,000 feet within 2 hours before to 2 hours after the ETA

A- No, because the ceiling and visibility are forecast to be at or above 2,000 feet and 3 miles within 1 hour before to 1 hour after the ETA

For aircraft other than helicopters, what minimum conditions must exist at the destination airport to avoid the listing an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan when a standard IAP is available? A- From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 2 and 1/2 miles. B- From 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA, forecast ceiling 3,000, and visibility 3 miles. C- From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles

C- From 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA, forecast ceiling 2,000, and visibility 3 miles

For aircraft other than helicopters, under what conditions are you not required to list an alternate airport on an IFR flight plan if 14 CFR part 97 prescribes a standard IAP for the destination airport? A- When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude and the visibility is 2 miles more than the minimum landing visibility is 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport. B- When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport C- When the ceiling is forecast to be at least 1,000 feet above the lowest of the MEA, MOCA, or initial approach altitude within 2 hours of your ETA at the destination airport

B- When the weather reports or forecasts indicate the ceiling and visibility will be at least 2,000 feet and 3 miles for 1 hour before to 1 hour after your ETA at the destination airport

When may ATC request a detailed report of an emergency even though a rule has not been violated? A- When priority has been given. B- Any time an emergency occurs. C- When the emergency occurs in controlled airspace.

A- When priority has been given.

While on an IFR flight, a pilot has an emergency which causes a deviation from an ATC clearance. What action must be taken? A- Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible. B- Squawk 7700 for the duration of the emergency. C- Submit a detailed report to the chief of the ATC facility within 48 hours.

A- Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as possible.

If you are performing a VFR practice instrument approach and Radar Approach Control assigns an altitude or heading that will cause you to enter the clouds, what action should you take? A- Enter the clouds, since ATC authorization for practice approaches is considered an IFR clearance B- Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/ heading will not permit VFR. C- Abandon the approach and advice ATC of your intentions.

B- Avoid the clouds and inform ATC that altitude/ heading will not permit VFR.

What response is expected when ATC issues an IFR clearance to pilots of airborne aircraft? A- Read back the entire clearance as required by regulation. B- Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification C- Read-back should be unsolicited and spontaneous to confirm that the pilot understands all instructions.

B- Read back those parts containing altitude assignments or vectors and any part requiring verification

Which clearance items are always given in an abbreviated IFR departure clearance? (Assume radar environment.) A- Altitude, destination airport, and one or more fixes which identify the initial route of flight. B- Destination airport, altitude, and DP Name-Number-Transition, if appropriate. C- Clearance limit, and DP Name, Number, and/or Transition, if appropriate.

B- Destination airport, altitude, and DP Name-Number-Transition, if appropriate.

On the runup pad, you receive the following clearance from ground control: CLEARED TO THE DALLAS LOVE AIRPORT AS FILED- MAINTAIN SIX THOUSAND- SQUAWK ZERO SEVEN ZERO FOUR JUST BEFORE DEPARTURE- DEPARTURE CONTROL WILL BE ONE TWO FOUR POINT NINER. A- departure control frequency B- destination airport and route C- requested enroute altitude

B- destination airport and route

Which information is always given In an abbreviated departure clearance? A- DP or transition name and altitude to maintain. B- Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude. C- Altitude to maintain and code to squawk.

B- Name of destination airport or specific fix and altitude

An abbreviated departure clearance "....CLEARED AS FILED.." will always contain the name A- and number of the STAR to be flown when filed in the flight plan. B- of the destination airport filed in the flight plan C- of the first compulsory reporting point if not in a radar environment

B- of the destination airport filed in the flight plan

When departing from an airport served by a control tower, the issuance of a clearance containing a void time indicates that A- ATC will assume the pilot has not departed if no transmission is received before the void time B- the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time C- ATC will protect the airspace only to the void time

B- the pilot must advise ATC as soon as possible, but no later than 30 minutes, of their intentions if not off by the void time

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads "....CRUISE SIX THOUSAND...."? A- The pilot must maintain 6,000 feet until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure. B- Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion. C- The pilot may utilize any altitude from the MEA/MOCA to 6,000 feet, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC

B- Climbs may be made to, or descents made from, 6,000 feet at the pilot's discretion.

A "CRUISE FOUR THOUSAND FEET" clearance would mean that the pilot is authorized to A- vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC. B- climb to, but not descend from 4,000 without further ATC clearance C- use an altitude from minimum IFR to 4,000 feet, but must report leaving each altitude

A- vacate 4,000 feet without notifying ATC.

What is the recommended climb procedure when a nonradar departure control instructs a pilot to climb to the assigned altitude? A- Maintain a continuous optimum climb until reaching assigned altitude and report passing each 1,000 foot level B- Climb at a maximum angle of climb to within 1,000 feet of the assigned altitude, then 500 feet per minute the last 1,000 feet. C- Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute

C- Maintain an optimum climb on the centerline of the airway without intermediate level-offs until 1,000 feet below assigned altitude, then 500 to 1500 feet per minute

To comply with ATC instructions for altitude changes of more than 1,000 feet, what rate of climb or descent should be used? A- as rapidly as practicable to 500 feet above/below the assigned altitude, and then at 500 feet per minute until the assigned altitude is reached B- 1,000 feet per minute during climb and 500 feet per minute during descents until reaching the assigned altitude. C- As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude

C- As rapidly as practicable to 1,000 feet above/ below the assigned altitude, and then between 500 and 1,500 feet per minute until reaching the assigned altitude

which clearance procedures may be issued by ATC without prior pilot request? A- DP's, STARs, and contact approaches B- Contact and visual approaches C- DP's, STARs, and visual approaches

C- DP's, STARs, and visual approaches

What is the significance of an ATC clearance which reads"...CRUISE SIC THOUSAND...."? A- The pilot must maintain 6,000 until reaching the IAF serving the destination airport, then execute the published approach procedure B- It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000 C- The pilot is authorized to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000, but each change in altitude must be reported to ATC

B- It authorizes a pilot to conduct flight at any altitude from minimum IFR altitude up to and including 6,000

When ATC designs instrument procedures, unless otherwise stated or declared, ATC uses the standard IFR climb gradient of A- 500 feet per minute B- 400 feet per nautical mile C- 200 feet per nautical mile

C- 200 feet per nautical mile

What action is recommended if a pilot does not wish to use an instrument departure procedure? A- Advise clearance delivery or ground control before departure. B- Advise departure control upon initial contact C- Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

C- Enter "No DP" in the REMARKS section of the IFR flight plan.

A particular instrument departure procedure requires a minimum climb rate of 210 feet per NM to 8,000 feet. If you climb with a ground speed of 140 knots, what is the rate of climb required in feet per minute? A- 210 B- 450 C- 490

C- 490

Which procedure applies to instrument departure procedures? A- Instrument departure clearances will not be issued unless requested by the pilot. B- The pilot in command must accept an instrument departure procedure when issued by ATC C- If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description

C- If an instrument departure procedure is accepted, the pilot must possess a textual or graphic description

Which is true regarding the use of an instrument departure procedure chart? A- The use of instrument departure procedures is mandatory B- The use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure C- To use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess both the textual and graphic form of the approved procedure

B- The use an instrument departure procedure, the pilot must possess at least the textual description of the approved standard departure

What service is provided by departure control to an IFR flight when operating within the outer area of Class C airspace? A- Separation from all aircraft B- Position and altitude of all traffic within 2 miles of the IFR pilot's line of flight and altitude C- Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft

C- Separation from all IFR aircraft and participating VFR aircraft

When should your transponder be on Mode C while on an IFR flight? A- Only when ATC request Mode C. B- At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC C- When passing 12,500 feet MSL

B- At all times if the equipment has been calibrated, unless requested otherwise by ATC

During a flight, the controller advises "traffic 2 o'clock 5 miles southbound." The pilot is holding 20 degree correction for a crosswind from the right. Where should the pilot look for the traffic? A- 40 degrees to the right of the aircraft's nose B- 20 degrees to the right of the aircraft's nose C- Straight ahead

A- 40 degrees to the right of the aircraft's nose

What is meant when departure control instructs you to "resume own navigation" after you have been vectored to a Victor airway? A- You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment. B- Radar service is terminated. C- You are still in radar contact, but must make position reports.

A- You should maintain the airway by use of your navigation equipment.

What does the ATC term "Radar Contact" signify? A- Your aircraft has been identified and you will receive separation from all aircraft while in contact with this radar facility. B- Your aircraft had been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated. C- You will be given traffic advisories until advised the service has been terminated or that radar contact has been lost.

B- Your aircraft had been identified on the radar display and radar flight-following will be provided until radar identification is terminated.

Upon intercepting the assigned radial, the controller advises you that you are on the airway and to "RESUME OWN NAVAGATION." This phrase means that A- you are still in radar contact, but must make position reports B- radar services are terminated and you will be responsible for position reports C- you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation

C- you are to assume responsibility for your own navigation

When is radar service terminated during a visual approach? A- Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower B- Immediately upon acceptance of the approach by the pilot C- When ATC advices, "Radar service terminate; resume own navigation."

A- Automatically when ATC instructs the pilot to contact the tower

During a takeoff into IFR conditions with low ceilings, when should the pilot contact departure control? A- Before penetrating the clouds B- When advised by the tower C- Upon completing the first turn after takeoff

B- When advised by the tower

What responsibility does the pilot in command of an IFR flight assume upon entering VFR conditions? A- Report VFR conditions to ARTCC so that an amended clearance may be issued B-Use VFR operating procedures C- To see and avoid other traffic

C- To see and avoid other traffic

When is pilot on an IFR flight plan responsible for avoiding other aircraft? A- At all times when not in radar contact with ATC. B- When weather conditions permit, regardless of weather operating under IFR or VFR C- Only when advised by ATC.

B- When weather conditions permit, regardless of weather operating under IFR or VFR

When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff? A- When visibility is less than 1 mile. B- When parallel runways are in use. C- When departing from a runway intersection.

C- When departing from a runway intersection.

Under which of the following circumstances will ATC issues a VFR restriction to an IFR flight? A- Whenever the pilot reports the loss of ay navigational aid B- When it is necessary to provide separation between IFR and special VFR traffic. C- When the pilot requests it

C- When the pilot requests it

During a takeoff into IMC with low ceilings, you should contact departure A- before entering the clouds B- when the tower instructs the change C- upon reaching traffic pattern altitude

B- when the tower instructs the change

What is the pilot in command's responsibility when flying a propeller aircraft within 20 miles of the airport of intended landing and ATC requests the pilot to reduce speed to 160? (Pilot complies with speed adjustment.) A- Reduce TAS to 160 knows and maintain until advised by ATC B- Reduce IAS to 160 MPH and maintain until advised by ATC C- Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots

C- Reduce IAS to 160 knots and maintain that speed within 10 knots

Which lines should you cross when exiting the runway? A- Solid lines B- Striped lines C- Both solid and striped lines

C- Both solid and striped lines

Which of the following indications would a pilot see while approaching to land on a runway served by a 2-bar VASI? A- if on the glidepath, the near bars will appear red, and the far bars will appear white. B- If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white. C- if on the glidepath, both near bars and far bars will appear white.

B- If departing to the high side of the glidepath, the far bars will change from red to white.

The middle and far bars of a 3-bar VASI will A- both appear while to the pilot when on the upper glidepath B- constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the lower glidepath C- constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath

C- constitute a 2-bar VASI for using the upper glidepath

Tricolor Visual Approach Indicators normally consist of A- a single unit, projecting a three-color visual approach path B- three separate lights units, each projecting a different color approach path C- three separate light projecting units of very high candle power with a daytime range of approximately 5 miles

A- a single unit, projecting a three-color visual approach path

When on the proper glidepath of a 2-bar VASI, the pilot will see the near bar as A- white and the far bar is red B- red and the far bar as white C- white and the far bar as white

A- white and the far bar is red

If an approach is being made to a runway that has an operating 3- bar VASI and all the VASI lights appear red as the airplane reaches the MDA, the pilot should A- start a climb to reach the proper glidepath B- continue at the same rate of descent if the runway is in sight C- level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path

C- level off momentarily to intercept the proper approach path

Which is a feature of the tricolor VASI? A-One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber B- Two visual glidepaths for the runway C- Three glidepaths, with the center patch indicated by a white light

A-One light projector with three colors: red, green, and amber

Which approach and landing objective is assured when the pilot remains on the proper glidepath of the VASI? A- Continuation of course guidance after transition to VFR B- Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area C- Course guidance from the visual descent point to touchdown

B- Safe obstruction clearance in the approach area

Which type of runway lighting consists of a pair of synchronized flashing lights, one o each side of the runway threshold? A- RAIL B- HIRL C- REIL

C- REIL

The primary purpose of runway end identifier lights, installed at many airfields, is to provide A- rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility B- a warning of the final 3,000 feet of runway remaining as viewed from the takeoff or approach position C- rapid identification of the primary runway during reduced visibility

A- rapid identification of the approach end of the runway during reduced visibility

Which runway marking indicates a displaced threshold on an instrument runway? A- Arrows leading to the threshold mark B- Centerline dishes starting at the threshold C- Red chevron marks in the nonlanding portion of the runway

A- Arrows leading to the threshold mark

The 'runway hold position' sign denotes A- intersecting runways B- an entrance to runway from a taxiway C- an area protected for an aircraft approaching a runway

B- an entrance to runway from a taxiway

'Runway hold position' markings on the taxiway A-identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway B- identifies area where aircraft are prohibited C- allows an aircraft permission onto the runway

A-identifies where aircraft hold short of the runway

The 'No entry' sign identifies A- the exit boundary for the runway protected area B- an area that does not continue beyond intersection C- paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

C- paved area where aircraft entry is prohibited

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway , the 'taxiway directional sign' indicates A- direction to the take-off runway B- designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an interaction C- designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

B- designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an interaction

When exiting the runway, what is the purpose of the runway exit sign? A- Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway B- Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection C- indicates direction to take-off runway

A- Indicates designation and direction of exit taxiway from runway

A runway exit sign A- points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway B- designed an intersection of two or more runways C- indicates the direction to exit from a named taxiway onto a runway

A- points toward a named taxiway that leads off the runway

In the movement area of an airport, what does a "Destination" sign indicate? A- Direction to the takeoff runway B- Direction from taxiway to runway C- Direction from ramp to taxiway

A- Direction to the takeoff runway

The ILS critical area markings denote A- where you are clear of the runway B- where you must be to start your ILS procedure C- Where you are clear of the ILS critical area

C- Where you are clear of the ILS critical area

What altitude may a pilot on an IFR flight plan select upon receiving a VFR-On-Top clearance? A- Any altitude at least 1,000 feet above the meteorological condition B- Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions C- Any VFR altitude appropriate for the direction of flight at least 500 feet above the meteorological condition

B- Any appropriate VFR altitude at or above the MEA in VFR weather conditions

When must a pilot fly at a cardinal altitude plus 500 feet on an IFR flight plan? A- When flying above 18,000 feet in VFR conditions B- When flying in VFR conditions above clouds C- When assigned a VFR-On-Top clearance

C- When assigned a VFR-On-Top clearance

You have filed an IFR flight plan with a VFR-On-Top clearance in lieu of an assigned altitude. If you receive this clearance and fly a course of 180 degrees, at what altitude should you fly? (Assume VFR conditions.) A- Any IFR altitude which will enable you to remain in VFR conditions B- An odd thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet C- An even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet

C- An even thousand-foot MSL altitude plus 500 feet

Where are VFR-On-Top operations prohibited? A- In Class A airspace B- During off-airways direct flights C- When flying through Class B airspace

A- In Class A airspace

Which rules apply to the pilot in command when operating on a VFR-On-Top clearance? A- VFR only B- VFR and IFR C- VFR when "I the clear" and IFR when "in the clouds."

B- VFR and IFR

When can a VFR-On-Top clearance be assigned by ATC? A- Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable B- Any time suitable conditions exist and ATC wishes to expedite traffic flow C- When VFR conditions exist, but there is a layer of clouds below the MEA

A- Only upon request of the pilot when conditions are indicated to be suitable

Which ATC clearance should instrument-rated pilots request in order to climb through a cloud layer or an area of reduced visibility and then continue the flight VFR? A- To VFR-On-Top B- Special VFR to VFR Over-the-Top C- VFR Over-the-Top

A- To VFR-On-Top

When on a VFR-On-Top clearance, the cruising altitude is based on A- true course B- magnetic course C- magnetic heading

B- magnetic course

In which airspace is VFR-On-Top operation prohibited? A- Class B airspace B- Class E airspace C- Class A airspace

C- Class A airspace

What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000 feet? A- Even thousand-foot levels B- Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA. C- Odd thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA

B- Even thousand-foot levels plus 500 feet, but not below MEA.

What reports are required of a flight operating on an IFR clearance specifying VFR on Top in a nonradar environment? A- The same reports that are required for any IFR flight B- All normal IFR reports except vacating altitudes C- Only the reporting of any unforecast weather

A- The same reports that are required for any IFR flight

What minimums must be considered in selecting an altitude when operating with a VFR-On-Top clearance? A- At least 500 feet above the lowest MEA, or appropriate MOCA, and at least 1,000 feet above the existing meteorological condition B- At least 1,000 feet above the lowest MEA, appropriate MOCA, or existing meteorological condition C- Minimums IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected

C- Minimums IFR altitude, minimum distance from clouds, and visibility appropriate to altitude selected

When operating under IFR with a VFR-On-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained? A- The last altitude assigned by ATC B- An IFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown C- A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC

C- A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC

ATC has approved your request for VFR-on-top while on an IFR clearance. Therefore, you A-should set your transponder to code 1200 B- must fly appropriate IFR altitudes C-Must fly appropriate VFR altitudes

C-Must fly appropriate VFR altitudes

chapter 6 departure Flashcards

(100 cards)