Chapter 6: Experimental Design [1/2] Flashcards

(92 cards)

1
Q

Identify the meanings that are provided by the proposition that states that the world is publicly understandable

A

1) The world has a determinate structure
2) We can know that structure
3) This knowledge is available to everyone

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2
Q

True or false: If the world possessed a discernible pattern, it would be beyond one’s ken.

A

False

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3
Q

_____ is committed to the view that the world is a great machine, composed of minuscule particles of matter that interact with each other like tiny billiard balls.

  1. Raelianism
  2. Scientism
  3. Darwinism
  4. Positivism
A

Scientism

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4
Q

What are the following steps that are used in the scientific method; in order of their occurrence

A
  • Observe
  • Induce general hypothesis or possible explanation for what one has observed
  • Deduce specific things that must also be true if one’s hypothesis is true
  • Test the hypothesis by checking out the deduced implications
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5
Q

Hypotheses are needed for scientific observation because they _____.

A

help one distinguish relevant from irrelevant information

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6
Q

The proposition that states that _____ must be accepted before any scientific investigation can take place.

A

The world is publicly understandable

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7
Q

Clinical trials allow scientists to _____.

A

Control extraneous variables and test one factor at a time

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8
Q

If the world had no determinate structure, it couldn’t be understood scientifically because _____.

A

It couldn’t be explained or predicted

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9
Q

A mechanistic, materialistic, and atomistic world is inimical to human flourishing because it _____.

A

Treats humans like machines

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10
Q

A practice used in clinical trials to ensure that subjects don’t know which subjects are getting the experimental treatment or the placebo is referred to as _____.

A

Blinding

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11
Q

Scientific investigation can occur only after a hypothesis has been _____.

A

Formulated

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12
Q

Scientific hypotheses indicate what will happen if _____.

A

Certain conditions are realized

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13
Q

In the context of scientific methodology, scientists attempt to eliminate as many sources of doubt as possible by _____.

A

Formulating their hypotheses precisely and controlling their observations carefully

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14
Q

In medical research, clinical studies offer the strongest and clearest support for any claim that a treatment is effective because they _____.

A

can establish cause and effect beyond a reasonable doubt

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15
Q

Not all sciences can perform controlled experiments because _____.

A

Not all natural phenomena can be controlled

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16
Q

The scientific method can’t be identified with the experimental method since _____.

A

Many legitimate sciences don’t perform controlled experiments

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17
Q

The practice of blinding is followed in clinical trials to _____.

A

Avoid having knowledge of an experiment taint the results

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18
Q

No scientific hypothesis can be conclusively confirmed because _____.

A

The possibility of someday finding evidence to the contrary can’t be ruled out

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19
Q

Predictions can be derived from a hypothesis only _____.

A

In conjunction with a background theory

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20
Q

True or false: Knowledge requires the presence of reasonable doubt.

A

False: it requires the absence of reasonable doubt

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21
Q

Any hypothesis can be maintained in the face of seemingly adverse evidence if _____.

A

One is willing to make enough alterations in one’s background beliefs

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22
Q

Identify a true statement about geological and astronomical hypotheses.

  • They cannot be used to prove the determinate structure of the world.
  • They can usually be tested in a laboratory.
  • They cannot be used to predict future geological and astronomical events.
  • They can be tested in a field.
A

They can be tested in a field.

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23
Q

The extent to which a hypothesis systematizes and unifies one’s knowledge is determined by _____.

A

how well it meets the criteria of adequacy

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24
Q

Any procedure that serves systematically to _____ can be considered scientific.

A

Eliminate reasonable grounds for doubt

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25
There is no way to determine whether a hypothesis is true or false if it _____.
Cannot be tested
26
True or false: The results of scientific inquiry are final and conclusive.
False: they are never final and conclusive
27
If a prediction can be derived from a hypothesis and its background theory, but cannot be derived from its background theory alone, then the _____.
Hypothesis is testable
28
In the context of deriving predictions from a hypothesis, a _____ provides information about the objects under study as well as the apparatus used to study them.
background theory
29
Karl Popper realized long ago that untestable hypotheses _____.
cannot legitimately be called scientific
30
Identify a true statement of a scientific hypothesis: - No hypothesis can be conclusively refuted. - Evaluating scientific hypotheses produces final and conclusive outcomes. - A hypothesis will always develop to theory. - Predictions follow from individual hypotheses alone.
No hypothesis can be conclusively refuted.
31
No hypothesis is, strictly speaking, falsifiable because it is always possible to maintain a hypothesis in the face of unfavorable evidence by _____.
making suitable alterations in the background
32
Hypotheses produce understanding by _____.
systematizing and unifying one's knowledge
33
Samuel, a neuroscientist, proposed the theory of regenerative neurons that states that specialized brain cells can regenerate. According to this theory, humans are able to retain their memory because of the regenerative neurons, and without them people would not be able to retain any memory. Scientists hypothesized that patients with severe intellectual disabilities possess a negligible number of regenerative neurons. This was scientifically proven paving the way for new lines of research. In this scenario the hypothesis possesses the virtue of _____.
fruitfulness
34
A hypothesis, in conjunction with a background theory, must predict something more than what is predicted by the background theory alone for it to be _____.
Testable
35
The higher the scope of a hypothesis, the less likely it is to _____.
be false
36
A prediction tells one that if certain conditions are realized, then _____.
certain results will be observed
37
According to Karl Popper, what distinguishes genuine scientific hypotheses from pseudoscientific ones, is that: - scientific hypotheses do not require a background theory - pseudoscientific hypotheses are always true - pseudoscientific hypotheses produce accurate and precise results - scientific hypotheses are falsifiable
- scientific hypotheses are falsifiable
38
The string theory explains and predicts more diverse phenomena about the origins of the universe than Einstein's theory of relativity. Given the information, the string theory has greater _____ than Einstein's theory of relativity.
Scope
39
Identify the shortcomings of Karl Popper's claim that scientific hypotheses are falsifiable.
- Popper's claim does not explain why one holds on to some hypotheses in the face of adverse evidence. - No hypothesis is falsifiable.
40
The simpler a theory is, the less likely it is to be false because _____.
there are fewer ways for it to go wrong
41
A hypothesis possesses the virtue of _____ if it predicts new phenomena and opens up new lines of research even in the face of adverse evidence.
Fruitfulness
42
Mari and Jeff both propose a theory on the origin of the universe. Mari's theory has fewer assumptions than Jeff's theory. Given the information, Mari's theory is _____ than Jeff's theory.
simpler
43
The _____ of a hypothesis is the amount of diverse phenomena explained and predicted by it.
Scope
44
A hypothesis is more conservative when it _____.
conflicts with fewer well-established beliefs
45
It is important to know what the criteria of adequacy are and how to apply them to _____.
make rational choices among hypotheses
46
Iker and Dulce individually formulate a hypothesis on quantum particles. Dulce's hypothesis predicts and explains more diverse phenomena than Iker's hypothesis. Given the information, Dolce's hypothesis has greater _____ than Iker's hypothesis.
Scope
47
Charles Darwin published the Origin of Species, in which he argued that the theory of evolution by _____ provided the best explanation of a number of different phenomena.
Natural selection
48
The simpler of two hypotheses is the one that _____.
makes the fewest assumptions
49
According to Darwin, the process of _____ was the driving force behind the process of evolution.
Natural selection
50
Lavoisier's oxygen theory of combustion has fewer assumptions than the phlogiston theory. Given the information, Lavoisier's oxygen theory of combustion is _____ than the Phlogiston theory.
Simpler
51
Which of the following is true of scientific creationism? - It holds that the Earth's geology can be explained by the occurrence of various catastrophes. - It supports the claim that humans developed from the apes. - It holds that there is great variation even among members of the same species. - It claims that the Earth was created about 4.5 billion years ago.
It holds that the Earth's geology can be explained by the occurrence of various catastrophes.
52
The more conservative a hypothesis is, the more _____.
plausible it is
53
The best hypothesis is the one that _____.
explains a given phenomenon and meets the criteria of adequacy better than any of its competitors
54
Creationists do not believe that scientific creationism is scientific because they _____.
do not believe that evolution is a scientific theory either
55
Charles Darwin argued that the best explanation for facts such as anatomical resemblance between closely related species and close resemblance of embryos of distantly related species was that organisms _____.
adapt to their environment through a process of natural selection
56
True or false: Creationism is testable, leading to a number of their claims conflicting with well-established scientific findings.
True
57
Charles Darwin reasoned that when an inherited characteristic increased an organism's chances of living long enough to reproduce, that characteristic would _____.
be passed to the next generation
58
Identify the views of scientific creationism:
1) It holds that there is very little variation among members of the same species. 2) It holds that the universe, energy, and life were created from nothing relatively recently.
59
Duane Gish, senior vice president of the Institute for Creation Research, claims that neither scientific creationism nor the theory of evolution can be considered a science because _____.
both of their theory's are not testable
60
Creations claim that evolutionists _____ by dating rock strata by the fossil they contain and then by dating fossils by the rock strata in which they are found.
argue in circles
61
Creationism is testable because _____.
it makes a number of claims that can be checked by observation
62
_____ believe that the simplest fossils are often found at the lowest point in fossil beds because of the assumption that after the great Flood of Noah, the simplest forms would be the first to be deposited on the sea floor.
creationist
63
Identify the assumptions that make evolution simpler than creationism.
1) Evolution does not assume the existence of unknown forces. 2) Evolution does not assume the existence of God.
64
Michael Behe claims that many biological systems, such as cilium, vision, and blood clotting, are irreducibly complex because _____.
each of these systems would cease to function if any of their parts were removed
65
One piece of evidence that Darwin cited in favor of the theory of evolution is that there is a progression among fossils from the simplest, in the oldest strata, to the most complex, in the most recent layers. Creationists claims that this evidence is not evidence at all because _____.
the age of rock strata is determined by the complexity of the fossils it contains
66
Creationists believe that fossils are found in their present order because of their _____.
relative buoyancy
67
Since evolution assumes fewer assumptions than creationism, evolution is _____ than creationism.
Simpler
68
The study of extrasensory perception and psychokinesis is known as _____.
parapsychology
69
The perception of another's thoughts without the use of the senses is referred to as _____.
Telepathy
70
Michael Behe claims, in his theory of intelligent design, that it is _____.
physically impossible for certain biological systems to have been produced naturally
71
In a scientific experiment, Alexei is able to correctly describe objects placed at distant locations and in different rooms. In this example, Alexei has the ability of _____.
clairvoyance
72
Sasha has an uncanny ability to accurately foresee events that haven't occurred yet. In this case, Sasha has the ability of _____.
precognition
73
Perception that is not mediated by an organism's recognized sensory organs can be referred to as _____.
extrasensory perception
74
The ability to affect physical objects without the use of the body, that is, by simply thinking about them is referred to as _____.
psychokinesis
75
Jay, a nine-year-old with savant syndrome, is able to read others' thoughts without the use of any known senses. According to parapsychologists, Jay has the ability of _____.
Telepathy
76
J. B. Rhine was interested in psi phenomena because he believed that a widespread acceptance of materialism would _____.
have disastrous social consequences
77
The best explanation of J. B. Rhine's results of psi experiments, given all the opportunities for sensory leakage, is that the subject sensed the identity of the cards by _____.
Ordinary means
78
The phenomena that fall under the realm of extrasensory perception and psychokinesis are grouped under the heading _____ phenomena.
Psi
79
No amount of evidence can prove that psi is unreal because _____.
it's impossible to prove a universal negative
80
True or false: J. B. Rhine thought that if psi phenomenon were real, one would have to adopt the materialistic worldview.
False: J. B. Rhine thought that if psi phenomena were real, the materialist worldview would have to be abandoned and one more in tune with traditional values could take its place.
81
According to the sheep-goat effect hypothesis, the results of the psi experiments are influenced by the _____.
attitudes of the experimenter
82
In the context of the sheep-goat effect, every apparent counterexample can be explained away by _____.
appeal to the unconscious
83
In the context of J.B. Rhine's results of psi experiments, the reason that subjects sensed the identity of the cards by ordinary means renders as the best explanation because _____.
it's the simplest and the most conservative one that accounts for the data
84
The evidence currently available does not establish the existence of psi beyond a reasonable doubt because _____.
the experiments on which it is based are not repeatable
85
In a ganzfeld experiment, an experimenter has no way of knowing the content of a transmitted video clip because the _____.
video clip is chosen randomly by a computer
86
Lack of repeatable experiments in parapsychology shows that no one is justified in believing that psi exists because _____.
the evidence available does not establish the existence of psi beyond a reasonable doubt
87
Andy and Selena are researchers conducting experiments in telepathy. Andy believes in the existence of psi phenomena while Selena is a nonbeliever. According to the sheep-goat effect hypothesis, Andy's experiments _____ while Selena's experiments _____.
will be successful; will not be successful
88
Accepting the sheep-goat effect hypothesis would make the whole field of parapsychology _____.
untestable
89
Meta-analysis allows researchers to determine whether _____.
significant results are correlated with poor quality
90
The inability of other researchers to replicate the results of a psi experiment suggests that _____.
something other than psi may be responsible for the outcome
91
According to the sheep-goat effect hypothesis, the results of the psi experiments are influenced by the _____.
attitudes of the experimenter
92
A(n) _____ is a statistical procedure that combines the results of similar studies after first grading them in terms of quality.
Meta analysis