CHAPTER 6: PHYSICAL SECURITY Flashcards
1
Q
What process does a security manager use in establishing priorities in the protection of assets?
a. Audit survey
b. Security survey
c. Risk analysis or assessment
d. Inspection review
e. Both b and c
f. All of the above
A
E
2
Q
The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated on an analysis of which of the following?
a. Cost and vulnerability
b. Cost and criticality
c. Criticality and vulnerability
d. Vulnerability and environmental conditions
e. None of the above
A
C
3
Q
A critical on-site examination and analysis of a facility to ascertain the present security status and to identify deficiencies or excesses in determining the protection needed to make recommendations to improve overall security is the definition of a(n):
a. Full-field inspection
b. Inspection review
c. Audit survey
d. Security survey
e. None of the above
A
D
4
Q
What is a key consideration in a risk analysis or risk assessment process?
a. Vulnerability to attack
b. Probability of attack
c. Cost
d. Impact to the business if loss occurs
e. Both a and b
f. All of the above
A
F
5
Q
From a security perspective, what is the first factor to be considered in facility construction?
a. The identity of experienced consultants
b. An effective security plan
c. The building site itself
d. An architect with knowledge of physical security
e. None of the above
A
C
6
Q
Which of the following is not correct regarding a security education program?
a. Many people are naïve and trusting.
b. All installation personnel must be made aware of the constant threat of breaches of security.
c. Structural aids to security are valueless without active support of all personnel.
d. Security consciousness is an inherent state of mind.
e. None of the above.
A
D
7
Q
The most vulnerable link in any identification system is:
a. Poor quality of identification badges
b. Educational background of security officers
c. Not enough security officers assigned to control posts
d. Identification cards being too small
e. Perfunctory performance of duty
f. None of the above
A
E
8
Q
Which of the following is not true in regard to establishing and identifying personnel to control movement?
a. The identification card should be designed as simply as possible.
b. Detailed instructions should be disseminated as to where, when, and how badges should be worn.
c. Procedures should be designed to show employees what to do when an identification card or badge is lost.
d. The identification card or badge should be designed in a relatively complicated manner to avoid duplication.
e. Prerequisites for reissue should be devised and disseminated.
A
D
9
Q
The use of a simple code word or phrase during a normal conversation to alert other security personnel that an authorized person
has been forced to vouch for an unauthorized individual is termed:
a. Code one
b. SOS
c. Security alert
d. Duress code
e. Basic alert
A
D
10
Q
The practice of having at least two authorized persons, each capable of detecting incorrect or unauthorized procedures with respect to the task being performed, present during any operation that affords access to a sensitive area is referred to as the:
a. Two-man access procedure
b. Two-man control rule
c. Two-man rule
d. Controlled access rule
e. Information security rule
f. None of the above
A
C
11
Q
The designation and establishment of “restricted areas” according to army regulations is performed by the:
a. Joint Chiefs of Staff
b. National Security Agency
c. Secretary of Defense
d. Secretary of the Army
e. Military commander of the installation or facility
A
E
12
Q
Which of the following is not a known advantage of the establishment of restricted areas?
a. They provide an increase in security without slowdown in operation.
b. They provide increased security through buffer zones.
c. They allow for varying degrees of security as required.
d. They improve overall security.
e. They make it possible to have security compatible with operational requirements.
A
A
13
Q
A restricted area containing a security interest or other sensitive matter, in which uncontrolled movement can permit access to the
security interest or sensitive matter but within which access may be prevented by security escort and other internal restrictions and controls, is called a(n):
a. Exclusion area
b. Controlled area
c. Limited area
d. Sensitized area
e. None of the above
A
C
14
Q
What type of fencing is generally used for protection of limited and exclusion areas?
a. Concertina
b. Barbed tape
c. Barbed wire
d. Chain link
e. Wood
A
D
15
Q
Excluding the top guard, a chain-link fence for general security purposes should be:
a. 6 gauge
b. 7 gauge
c. 8 gauge
d. 9 gauge
e. 10 gauge
A
D
16
Q
In a chain-link fence with mesh openings for general security purposes, the openings should be no larger than:
a. 1⅕ in.
b. 2 in.
c. 2½ in.
d. 4 in.
e. 4½ in.
A
B
17
Q
Excluding the top guard, standard barbed-wire fencing that is intended to prevent human trespassing should not be less than:
a. 6 ft. high
b. 7 ft. high
c. 8 ft. high
d. 9 ft. high
e. 10 ft. high
A
B
18
Q
The federal specification regarding standard barbed-wire fencing that is twisted and double-strand is that it should be:
a. 8 gauge
b. 10 gauge
c. 12 gauge
d. 14 gauge
e. None of the above
A
C
19
Q
A standard barbed-wire, twisted, double-strand fence has how many point barbs spaced an equal distance apart.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
A
D
20
Q
The distance between barbed strands in a barbed-wire fence should not exceed:
a. 2 in.
b. 3 in.
c. 4 in.
d. 5 in.
e. 6 in.
A
E
21
Q
Top-guard supporting arms should be permanently affixed to the top of the fence posts to increase the overall height of the fence by at least:
a. 1 ft.
b. 1½ ft.
c. 2 ft.
d. 2½ ft.
e. 3 ft.
A
A
22
Q
A top guard must consist of:
a. Two strands of barbed wire or tape
b. Three strands of barbed wire or tape
c. Four strands of barbed wire or tape
d. Five strands of barbed wire or tape
e. Six strands of barbed wire or tape
A
B
23
Q
How many inches apart should strands of barbed wire or tape used as a top guard on a fence be spaced?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
e. 6
A
E
24
Q
Unavoidable drainage ditches, culverts, vents, ducts, and other openings should be protected by securely fastened welded-bar grills when they have a cross-sectional area greater than:
a. 10 in.2
b. 48 in.2
c. 64 in.2
d. 96 in.2
e. 104 in.2
A
D
25
Between the perimeter barrier and exterior structures should be a clear zone covering:
a. 10 ft.
b. 15 ft.
c. 20 ft.
d. 30 ft.
e. 40 ft.
C
26
As a general rule, between the perimeter barrier and structures within the protected area, except when a building is a part of the
perimeter barrier, there should be a clear zone of at least:
a. 10 ft.
b. 20 ft.
c. 30 ft.
d. 40 ft.
e. 50 ft.
E
27
Manhole covers ― in. or more in diameter should be secured to prevent unauthorized openings.
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40
e. 50
A
28
Which of the following characteristics of protective lighting is incorrect?
a. It may be unnecessary where the perimeter fence is protected by a central alarm system.
b. It usually requires less intensity than working light.
c. It may also provide personal protection by reducing advantages of concealment.
d. It should only be used as a psychological deterrent.
e. Such lighting is expensive to maintain.
E
29
Measured horizontally 6 in. above ground level and at least 30 ft. outside the exclusion area to barrier, the perimeter band of lighting must provide a minimum intensity of:
a. 0.2 foot-candle
b. 0.3 foot-candle
c. 0.4 foot-candle
d. 0.6 foot-candle
e. 0.10 foot-candle
A
30
Which of the following principles of protective lighting is not correct?
a. Lighting should be used with other measures, such as fixed security posts, fences, etc., and not used alone.
b. A large amount of light should be focused on security patrol routes.
c. Adequate, even light should be used on bordering areas.
d. There should be a high brightness contrast between an intruder and the background.
e. Glaring lights should be directed at the eyes of an intruder.
B
31
Lighting units of four general types are used for protective lighting. Which of the following is not used?
a. Emergency
b. Movable
c. Standby
d. Intermittent
e. Continuous
D
32
What is the most common protective lighting system, which consists of a series of fixed luminaries arranged to flood a given area
during the hours of darkness with overlapping cones of light?
a. Emergency lighting
b. Movable lighting
c. Standby lighting
d. Intermittent lighting
e. Continuous lighting
E
33
Piers and docks located on an installation should be safeguarded by illuminating both water approaches and the pier area. Decks on open piers should be illuminated to at least:
a. 0.5 foot-candle
b. 1.0 foot-candle
c. 1.5 foot-candles
d. 2.0 foot-candles
e. 3.0 foot-candles
B
34
Water approaches that extend to 100 ft. from the pier should be illuminated to at least:
a. 0.5 foot-candle
b. 1.0 foot-candle
c. 1.5 foot-candles
d. 2.0 foot-candles
e. 3.0 foot-candles
A
35
The US Army illumination intensity minimums for lighting the perimeter of a restricted area is:
a. 0.15 foot-candle
b. 0.40 foot-candle
c. 1.00 foot-candle
d. 2.00 foot-candles
e. 2.15 foot-candles
B
36
What agency should be consulted before installing protective lighting adjacent to navigable waters?
a. Local law enforcement agencies
b. The Department of Transportation
c. The Bureau of Customs
d. The US Coast Guard
e. Both a and b
D
37
The intrusion detection system in which a pattern of radio waves is transmitted and partially reflected back to the antenna is known as a(n):
a. Capacitance detection system
b. Ultrasonic detection system
c. Vibration detection system
d. Electromechanical detection system
e. Microwave detection system
E
38
The intrusion detection system that is used on safes, walls, and openings in an effort to establish an electrostatic field around an
object to be protected is known as a(n):
a. Capacitance detection system
b. Ultrasonic detection system
c. Contact microphone detection system
d. Microwave detection system
e. Radio-frequency detection system
A
39
An alarm system in which the installation-owned system is a direct extension of the police or fire alarm system is known as a(n):
a. Central station system
b. Local alarm system
c. Proprietary system
d. Auxiliary system
e. Bell-sound system
D
40
An alarm system that is monitored by an outside company to provide electric protective services in which they provide the appropriate actions is known as a(n):
a. Central station system
b. Local alarm system
c. Proprietary system
d. Auxiliary system
e. Bell-sound system
A
41
An alarm system whereby the central station is owned by and located within the installation being protected is known as a(n):
a. Central station system
b. Local alarm system
c. Proprietary system
d. Auxiliary system
e. Bell-sound system
C
42
The principle of the pin-tumbler lock can be traced back historically to:
a. Egyptians more than 4000 years ago
b. The Civil War period
c. The late eighteenth century
d. 1905
e. World War I
A
43
Which of the following is not true with regard to lock-and-key systems?
a. The locking system should be supplemented with other security devices.
b. Most key locks can be picked by an expert in a few minutes.
c. A high-quality pickproof lock is considered a positive bar to entry.
d. The lock is the most accepted and widely used security device of the basic safeguards in protecting installations.
e. Locks, regardless of quality or cost, should be considered as delay devices only.
C
44
Of the following locks, which type is generally considered to have the poorest security value?
a. An interchangeable core system
b. Conventional combination locks
c. Key locks
d. Manipulation-resistant combination locks
e. Both a and d
f. None of the above
C
45
The number of combinations possible with a lock that has 40 numbers and a 3-number combination is:
a. 12,000
b. 16,000
c. 32,000
d. 64,000
e. 86,000
D
46
Which lock is generally used on automobiles, desks, and cabinets?
a. Wafer
b. Ward
c. Pin tumbler
d. Combination
e. Cypher
A
47
Which of the following is not true with regard to door latches?
a. A dead-bolt latch is easy to install and can be used on almost any door.
b. Chain latches are highly recommended as effective security measures.
c. A dead-bolt latch is very expensive.
d. A dead-bolt latch increases the security posture of the facility.
e. Both b and c.
f. Both a and d.
E
48
An inventory of key systems should be conducted at least:
a. Weekly
b. Monthly
c. Quarterly
d. Semiannually
e. Annually
E
49
A sentry dog normally does not perform as well at:
a. Radar sites
b. Warehouses
c. Gasoline storage areas
d. Ammunition storage areas
e. Offices containing classified materials
C
50
Which of the following is more of a probable disadvantage in the use of sentry dogs?
a. A dog is more effective than a human during inclement weather.
b. A dog has a keen sense of smell.
c. A dog provides a strong psychological deterrent.
d. The type of dog best suited for security work is naturally dangerous.
e. A dog can detect and apprehend intruders.
D
51
In meeting federal specifications, insulated units must have the following fire-resistant minimum ratings:
a. Class 150: 2 h
b. Class 150: 4 h
c. Class 350: 1 h
d. Class 350: 3 h
e. Class 350: 4 h
C
52
In meeting minimal federal specifications, non-insulated security containers must satisfactorily pass a drop test of:
a. 15 ft.
b. 20 ft.
c. 22 ft.
d. 25 ft.
e. 30 ft.
E
53
In meeting minimal federal specifications, government security containers must be equipped with a combination lock capable of
resisting manipulation and radiological attack for:
a. 10 man-hours
b. 20 man-hours
c. 30 man-hours
d. 40 man-hours
e. 45 man-hours
B
54
Which of the following is not an approved UL safe classification?
a. 350-1
b. 350-2
c. 350-3
d. 350-4
e. None of the above
C
55
Underwriters Laboratories does independent testing on security containers that simulate a major fire where the heat builds up gradually to:
a. 750°F
b. 1000°F
c. 2000°F
d. 2500°F
e. 3000°F
C
56
The acceptable vault construction of insulated doors has a minimum reinforced concrete wall, floor, and ceiling of:
a. 4 ft.
b. 6 ft.
c. 8 ft.
d. 10 ft.
e. 12 ft.
B
57
Which of the following would be a UL computer media storage classification?
a. 100-4
b. 150-4
c. 250-4
d. 350-4
e. 450-4
B
58
Safes that are UL classified must be anchored to the floor or must weigh at least:
a. 750 lb.
b. 1000 lb.
c. 1500 lb.
d. 2000 lb.
e. 3000 lb.
A
59
Which of the following is not generally true regarding money safes?
a. Those manufactured prior to 1960 have round doors.
b. They provide good protection against fire.
c. They always have wheels.
d. Today, money safes have square doors.
e. Both b and c.
f. All of the above.
E
60
A “relock” on a vault door will automatically prevent the bolt mechanism from operating when:
a. A timer is used
b. A switch is flipped
c. There is an attack on the door or the combination lock
d. It is locked by remote control
e. All of the above
C
61
Money safes are classified by both Underwriters Laboratories and:
a. The Bureau of Standards
b. The American Society for Industrial Security
c. The Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation
d. The Insurance Services Office
D
62
Security vaults differ from safes in that:
a. They do not have both fire- and burglary-resistant properties
b. Steel is used
c. They are tested by UL for burglary resistance
d. They are permanently affixed to the building
e. None of the above
D
63
Most theft is committed by:
a. Professionals
b. Organized crime
c. Amateurs
d. Maladjusted criminals
e. Semiprofessionals
C
64
An experienced safecracker will ordinarily use which of the following methods?
a. Trying the maintenance standard combination
b. Trying the day combination
c. Trying the handle
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
D
65
Which of the following methods has not been used in recent years to crack open record and money safes?
a. Punching
b. Core drilling
c. Using a fluoroscope
d. Torching
e. Using a laser beam
E
66
The weakness of the burning bar as a burglary tool is that:
a. It will not burn through concrete
b. Its actual heat is not intense enough
c. It requires hydrogen tanks
d. It produces a large volume of smoke
e. All of the above
D
67
A 50% insurance discount is generally allowed to protect a safe if:
a. The premises are guarded by security guards
b. The premises are open 24 h/day
c. Multiple coverage is purchased
d. The safe is UL tested
e. The safe has wheels
B
68
Which of the following is not correct with regard to safes?
a. Money safes do not have accredited fire resistance.
b. UL classification labels are removed from all safes exposed to fires.
c. Record safes are designed to resist fires only.
d. Quality equipment should be purchased only from reputable dealers.
e. Insulation in record safes more than 30 years old may negate fire-resistant qualities.
f. None of the above.
F
69
The UL symbol “TRTL” indicates:
a. The type of locking devices used
b. That the safe is resistant to both torches and tools
c. That the safe is resistant to torches
d. That the safe is resistant to tools
e. None of the above
B
70
Vaults are designed to meet most fire protection standards that are specified by the:
a. Local fire department
b. American Society for Industrial Security
c. National Fire Protection Association
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
C
71
Fire-resistant safes must pass which of the following tests?
a. Explosion
b. Impact
c. Fire exposure
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
D
72
Which of the following methods of attacking newer-model safes is considered to be impractical?
a. Peel
b. Punch
c. Burn
d. Manipulation
e. Explosion
D
73
The temperature that paper may be destroyed at is:
a. 200°F
b. 250°F
c. 300°F
d. 350°F
e. 400°F
D
74
Electronic data and material can begin to deteriorate at:
a. 100°F
b. 125°F
c. 150°F
d. 200°F
e. 300°F
C
75
The maximum safe period of fire-resistant vaults is:
a. 2 h
b. 4 h
c. 6 h
d. 7 h
e. 8 h
C
76
The interior height of a vault should not exceed:
a. 8 ft.
b. 9 ft.
c. 10 ft.
d. 11 ft.
e. 12 ft.
E
77
The roof of a vault should be at least:
a. 3 in. thick
b. 4 in. thick
c. 5 in. thick
d. 6 in. thick
e. 8 in. thick
D
78
The control of traffic through entrances and exits of a protected area is referred to as:
a. Access control
b. Patrol management
c. Traffic stops
d. Traffic management
e. None of the above
A
79
A system whereby the alarm signal is heard only in the immediate vicinity of the protected area is known as a:
a. Local alarm system
b. Proprietary system
c. Central alarm system
d. Portable alarm system
e. None of the above
A
80
A system using inaudible sound waves to detect the presence of an intruder or other disturbance is known as a(n):
a. Motion detection system
b. Ultrasonic motion detection system
c. Sonic motion detection system
d. Vibration detection system
e. None of the above
B
81
Which one of the following is true regarding structural barriers?
a. Structural barriers serve as psychological deterrents.
b. The objective of barriers is to cause as much delay as possible.
c. A series of barriers is usually used in any effective physical protection plan.
d. A series of concentric barriers should separate the area to be protected.
e. Even with good planning, most structural barriers do not prevent penetration by humans.
f. All of the above.
F
82
Which of the following is not true regarding the use of security doors as barriers?
a. Locking hardware is an important aspect of door security.
b. The doorframe may be a weak point if not properly installed.
c. Door hinges may add to the weakness of a door if not properly installed.
d. The door is usually stronger than the surface into which it is set.
e. All of the above.
D
83
The weakest area in a window is usually:
a. The frame
b. The glass
c. The sash
d. Caulking
e. Both a and d
f. All of the above
C
84
Which of the following is considered to be the most resistant to a blast explosion?
a. Steel-frame building walls
b. Thick brick or concrete walls
c. Thick earthen barricades
d. Thick reinforced concrete walls
e. Wire-reinforced glass windows
D
85
Two sheets of ordinary glass bonded to an intervening layer of plastic material that is used in street-level windows and displays that need extra security is known as:
a. Tempered glass
b. Plastic-coated glass
c. Vinyl-coated glass
d. Laminated glass
e. Plate glass
D
86
Bullet-resistant glass is made of:
a. Reflected glass
b. Plate glass
c. Insulated glass
d. Laminated glass
e. None of the above
D
87
What type of glass would be better for a storefront in terms of resistance to breakage, resistance to heat or extreme cold, and
resistance to overall deterioration?
a. Laminated glass
b. Wired glass
c. Plate glass
d. Bullet-resistant glass
e. Acrylic material
E
88
The type of glass that is often used for both safety and security purposes because it is three to five times stronger than regular
glass and five times as resistant to heat is:
a. Reflective glass
b. Coated glass
c. Wired glass
d. Tempered glass
e. None of the above
D
89
The most widely used security device is:
a. An alarm system
b. A lock-and-key device
c. Protective lighting
d. CCTV
e. A fence
B
90
Which of the following locks has been in use the longest and has no security value?
a. The disk-tumbler lock
b. The warded lock
c. The wafer lock
d. The pin-tumbler lock
e. The lever lock
B
91
The lock that is mostly used today for cabinets, lockers, and safe-deposit boxes is:
a. The wafer lock
b. The disk-tumbler lock
c. The pin-tumbler lock
d. The lever lock
e. Any locking device
D
92
The most widely used lock in the United States today for exterior building doors and interior room doors is:
a. The disk-tumbler lock
b. The pin-tumbler lock
c. The lever lock
d. The wafer lock
e. None of the above
B
93
The best-known performance standard for guidance on the criteria of effective locking systems is published by:
a. Medeco
b. The Bureau of Standards
c. Underwriters Laboratories
d. Best Access Systems
e. None of the above
C
94
UL standards for the resistance to picking to align tumblers should be at least:
a. 3 min
b. 5 min
c. 10 min
d. 20 min
e. 30 min
C
95
The sensor that is used when air turbulence is present in the room being protected and when there are no potential false-
alarm sources outside the room and in the field of the detector is a(n):
a. Vibration detector
b. Microwave motion detector
c. Ultrasonic motion detector
d. Acoustic detector
e. None of the above
B
96
The sensor that is used when light air turbulence, vibration, or motion is present outside the room is a(n):
a. Vibration detector
b. Microwave motion detector
c. Ultrasonic motion detector
d. Acoustic detector
e. None of the above
D
97
Foil used as a detector on a glass window to signal a surreptitious or forcible entry is an example of a(n):
a. Vibration sensor
b. Microwave sensor
c. Capacitance sensor
d. Acoustic sensor
e. Electromechanical sensor
E
98
The type of sensor that is designed to place a current-carrying conductor between an intr uder and an area to be protected is
known as a(n):
a. Vibration sensor
b. Microwave sensor
c. Capacitance sensor
d. Acoustic sensor
e. Electromechanical sensor
E
99
Which of the following does not pertain to the foil-type sensor?
a. The cost of installation is cheap.
b. The cost of the sensor is cheap.
c. It acts as a psychological deterrent.
d. It is subject to false alarms because of breaks.
e. Small cracks in the tape, or foil, will disable it.
f. All of the above.
A
100
The kind of sensor that is based on the Doppler principle, named after the Austrian scientist who originated the concept, is a(n):
a. Capacitance sensor
b. Electromechanical sensor
c. Microwave sensor
d. Acoustic sensor
e. Photo sensor
C
101
The sound wave sensor is commonly referred to as a(n):
a. Radar detector
b. Proximity detector
c. Vibration detector
d. Ultrasonic detector
e. Electromechanical sensor
D
102
The type of sensor that is not influenced by exterior noise, reacts only to movement within a protected area, and can also be adjusted to the movement of air caused by a fire to activate the alarm is known as a(n):
a. Proximity sensor
b. Radar sensor
c. Vibration sensor
d. Ultrasonic sensor
e. Microwave sensor
D
103
An alarm system that uses a sound- or light-generating device, such as a bell or strobe lights, located on the exterior wall of the
protective area to call attention to a violation is known as a(n):
a. Intruder alarm
b. Local alarm
c. Direct alarm
d. Proprietary alarm
e. Central station alarm
B
104
An alarm system that is monitored by security personnel under the control of the owner of the establishment being protected is known as a(n):
a. Intruder alarm
b. Local alarm
c. Direct alarm
d. Proprietary alarm
e. Central station alarm
D
105
A visual indicator that displays several zones or buildings from which an alarm signal has originated is called a(n):
a. Zone alarm panel
b. Contact alarm panel
c. Break alarm panel
d. Annunciator
e. Trouble signal
D
106
Which of the following is true regarding CCTV?
a. CCTVs reduce the amount of security personnel assigned to monitor entrances and exits.
b. CCTVs are effective for control of personnel at entrances.
c. CCTVs can be used as a psychological deterrent.
d. CCTVs are equipped with pan/tilt/zoom and digital recording features.
e. Both a and b.
f. All of the above.
F
107
The degree of protection desired in any installation is predicated upon an analysis of the following two factors:
a. Cost and environmental conditions
b. Criticality and vulnerability
c. Cost and vulnerability
d. Cost and criticality
B
108
The process used by the security manager in establishing priorities of protection of assets is known as:
a. Security survey
b. Vulnerability study
c. Risk analysis
d. Inspection review
B
109
Lighting units of four general types are used for protective lighting systems. Which of the following is not used:
a. Continuous
b. Intermittent
c. Standby
d. Moveable
B
110
Which of the following is not an authentic characteristic of the guard operation?
a. Guards are costly.
b. Guards are generally recognized as an essential element in the protection of assets and personnel.
c. Guards are the only element of protection that can be depended upon to give complete security.
d. Guards can also perform as a public relations representative when properly trained.
C
111
Each guard post that is manned 24 h/day, 7 days a week requires:
a. Three guards
b. Six guards
c. Two guards
d. Four and a half guards
D
112
Usually, in facilities where visitors are to be escorted, this is done by:
a. Guards
b. Individuals being visited
c. Special escort service
d. Supervisor of unit visited
B
113
One of the main reasons for not arming private security guards is:
a. The cost of extra equipment
b. The extra salary costs
c. Very few are qualified to handle them
d. The typical business or government facility is not customarily a place where violent crime occurs
D
114
The argument usually used by contract guard representatives as a selling point in their service is:
a. That they are better trained
b. That they are nonunion
c. That they entail no administrative problems
d. The reduction in cost
D
115
The most important written instructions for the guard force are known as:
a. Memoranda
b. Post orders
c. High policy
d. Operational orders
B
116
Which of the following should be a required criterion of post orders?
a. Each order should deal with multiple subjects.
b. The order should be detailed.
c. The order should be written at the lowest level possible.
d. Orders should be indexed sparingly.
C
117
The guard’s primary record of significant events affecting facility protection is called the:
a. Guard log
b. Ingress log
c. Egress log
d. Daily record manual
A
118
A personal identification method based on the length of each finger of one hand from base to tip and the width of the hand inside
the thumb is called the:
a. Henry fingerprint system
b. Hand geometry identification
c. Bertillion method
d. Bausch–Lomb method
B
119
A visual indicator that shows from which of several zones or buildings an alarm signal has originated is called a(n):
a. Annunciator
b. Contact device
c. Break alarm
d. Cross alarm
A
120
A specially constructed microphone attached directly to an objector surface to be protected and that responds only when the protected object or surface is disturbed is known as a:
a. Parabolic microphone
b. Special audio device
c. Contact microphone
d. Surreptitious microphone
C
121
One of management’s most valuable tools is:
a. Matrix
b. Grid technique
c. Security survey
d. Questionnaire
e. None of the above
C
122
Risk can be defined as:
a. A situation involving exposure to danger
b. The possibility that something unpleasant will happen
c. A person or thing causing a risk that exposes others to danger or loss
d. Answers a and c
e. Answers a, b, and c
E
123
Which of the following are not human barriers?
a. Security guards
b. Patrol units
c. Guard dogs
d. Body guards
e. Military troops
C
124
The type of fire involving flammable or combustible liquids, gases, and greases, including gasoline, oil, paint, etc., where smothering action is required that interrupts the fuel oxygen of the heat triangle is classified as which of the following?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
e. Class E
B
125
Risk avoidance is:
a. After identifying vulnerability or risk, implementing counter measures to reduce the problem
b. Removing the problem by eliminating the vulnerability or risk
c. Spreading the procedure or operation into different departments or locations
d. Removing the vulnerability or risk to the company for the protection of an insurance policy
e. Planning for an eventual loss without the protection of insurance
B
126
Which of the following are not natural barriers?
a. Mountains
b. Deserts and plains
c. Moats
d. Cliffs
e. Water-covered areas (for example, around Alcatraz prison)
C
127
This type of fire usually involves a class A or B fire but also involves energized electrical equipment. A nonenergized agent is vital. When the agent melts, it forms an oxygen coating over the burning materials to suffocate them. Water and foam should not be used, because they can be conductive.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
e. Class E
C
128
Risk spreading is:
a. After identifying vulnerability or risk, implementing countermeasures to reduce the problem
b. Removing the problem by eliminating the vulnerability or risk
c. Spreading the procedure or operation into different departments or locations
d. Removing the vulnerability or risk to the company for the protection of an insurance policy
e. Planning for an eventual loss without the protection of insurance
C
129
Which of the following is not an energy barrier?
a. Continuous
b. Standby
c. Moveable
d. Immoveable
e. Emergency
D
130
Self-assumption is:
a. After identifying vulnerability or risk, implementing countermeasures to reduce the problem
b. Removing the problem by eliminating the vulnerability or risk
c. Spreading the procedure or operation into different departments or locations
d. Removing the vulnerability or risk to the company for the protection of an insurance policy
e. Planning for an eventual loss without the protection of insurance
E
131
This type of fire involves certain combustible metal, such as magnesium, sodium, potassium, and their alloys. A special dry powder that has a special smothering and coating agent should be used and is not suited for use on other classes of fires.
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
e. Class E
D
132
Risk reduction is:
a. After identifying vulnerability or risk, implementing countermeasures to reduce the problem
b. Removing the problem by eliminating the vulnerability or risk
c. Spreading the procedure or operation into different departments or locations
d. Removing the vulnerability or risk to the company for the protection of an insurance policy
e. Planning for an eventual loss without the protection of insurance
A
133
Risk transfer is:
a. After identifying vulnerability or risk, implementing countermeasures to reduce the problem
b. Removing the problem by eliminating the vulnerability or risk
c. Spreading the procedure or operation into different departments or locations
d. Removing the vulnerability or risk to the company for the protection of an insurance policy
e. Planning for an eventual loss without the protection of insurance
D
134
When using biometric devices, which of the following is the improper acceptance of an unauthorized user?
a. Type II
b. False acceptance rate (FAR)
c. Type I
d. False rejection rate (FRR)
e. Answers a and b
E
135
Which of the following is not a level of security:
a. Minimum security
b. Low-level security
c. High-level security
d. Lack of security
e. Maximum security
D
136
Which of the following are not structural or man-made barriers?
a. Fences
b. Barbed wire
c. Safes and vaults
d. Cliffs
e. Locking devices
D
137
When using biometric devices, which of the following is the improper rejection of a valid user?
a. Type II
b. False acceptance rate (FAR)
c. Type I
d. False rejection rate (FRR)
e. Answers c and d
E
138
Fires involving wood, cloth, paper, or rubber where water is used to quench the fire and cool the material below its ignition temperature are classified as which of the following?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D
e. Class E
A
139
Which of the following is the weakest point in a personnel identification system:
a. Hardware
b. Software
c. People
d. Structure
e. Environment
C
140
Which of the following is checked on a retina scan?
a. Pupil
b. Eye
c. Fingerprints
d. Blood vessels
e. DNA
D
