chapter 61 Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse is teaching a client about management of migraine headaches. Which of the
following client statements indicates that the teaching has been effective?
a. “I will take the topiramate as soon as any headaches start.”
b. “I should avoid taking Aspirin and sumatriptan at the same time.”
c. “I will try to lie down someplace dark and quiet when the headaches begin.”
d. “A glass of wine might help me relax and prevent headaches from developing.”

A

C
It is recommended that the client with a migraine rest in a dark, quiet area. Topiramate is
used to prevent migraines and must be taken for several months to determine effectiveness.
Aspirin or other nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications can be taken with the triptans.
Alcohol may precipitate migraine headaches.

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2
Q

Which of the following parameters should the nurse assess when caring for a client who is
experiencing a cluster headache?
a. Nuchal rigidity
b. Projectile vomiting
c. Unilateral eyelid swelling
d. Throbbing, bilateral facial pain

A

C
Unilateral eye edema, tearing, and ptosis are characteristic of cluster headaches. Nuchal
rigidity suggests meningeal irritation, such as occurs with meningitis. Although nausea
and vomiting may occur with migraine headaches, projectile vomiting is more consistent
with increases in intracranial pressure (ICP). Unilateral sharp, stabbing pain, rather than
throbbing pain, is characteristic of cluster headaches.

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3
Q

A client has a tonic–clonic seizure while the nurse is in the client’s room. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take?
a. Insert an oral airway during the seizure to maintain a patent airway.
b. Restrain the client’s arms and legs to prevent injury during the seizure.
c. Avoid touching the client to prevent further nervous system stimulation.
d. Time and observe and record the details of the seizure and postictal state.

A

D
Because diagnosis and treatment of seizures frequently are based on the description of the
seizure, recording the length and details of the seizure is important. Insertion of an oral
airway and restraining the client during the seizure are contraindicated. The nurse may
need to move the client to decrease the risk of injury during the seizure.

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4
Q

An elementary teacher who has just been diagnosed with epilepsy after having a
generalized tonic–clonic seizure tells the nurse, “I cannot teach anymore, it will be too
upsetting if I have a seizure at work.” Which of the following responses by the nurse is
best?
a. “You may want to contact the Epilepsy Foundation for assistance.”
b. “You might benefit from some psychological counselling at this time.”
c. “The Department of Vocational Rehabilitation can help with work retraining.”
d. “Half of all clients with epilepsy are well controlled with antiseizure drugs.”

A

D
The nurse should inform the client that about 50% clients with seizure disorders are
controlled with medication and another 30% have a decrease in the intensity and
frequency of seizures. The other information may be necessary if the client seizures persist
after treatment with antiseizure drugs is implemented.

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5
Q

Which action will the nurse take when evaluating a client who is taking phenytoin for
adverse effects of the medication?
a. Inspect the oral mucosa.
b. Listen to the lung sounds.
c. Auscultate the bowel tones.
d. Check pupil reaction to light.

A

A
Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia, but does not affect bowel tones, lung sounds, or
pupil reaction to light.

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6
Q

A client found in a tonic–clonic seizure reports afterward that the seizure was preceded by
numbness and tingling of the arm. Which of the following types of seizures should the
nurse document based upon this finding?
a. Atonic
b. Partial
c. Absence
d. Myoclonic

A

B
The initial symptoms of a partial seizure involve clinical manifestations that are localized
to a particular part of the body or brain. Symptoms of an absence seizure are staring and a
brief loss of consciousness. In an atonic seizure, the client loses muscle tone and (typically)
falls to the ground. Myoclonic seizures are characterized by a sudden jerk of the body or
extremities.

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7
Q

The nurse is obtaining a health history and physical assessment from a client with possible
multiple sclerosis (MS). Which of the following assessments should the nurse include?
a. Assess for the presence of chest pain.
b. Inquire about any urinary tract problems.
c. Inspect the skin for rashes or discoloration.
d. Question the client about any increase in libido.

A

B
Urinary tract problems with incontinence or retention are common symptoms of MS.
Chest pain and skin rashes are not symptoms of MS. A decrease in libido is common with
MS.

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8
Q

A female client who has multiple sclerosis (MS) asks the nurse about risks associated with
pregnancy. Which of the following responses by the nurse is accurate?
a. “MS symptoms may be worse after the pregnancy.”
b. “Women with MS frequently have premature labour.”
c. “Symptoms of MS are likely to become worse during pregnancy.”
d. “MS is associated with a slightly increased risk for congenital defects.”

A

A
During the postpartum period, women with MS are at greater risk for exacerbation of
symptoms. There is no increased risk for congenital defects in infants born of mothers
with MS. Symptoms of MS may improve during pregnancy. Onset of labour is not
affected by MS.

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9
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with multiple sclerosis (MS) who is to begin treatment with
glatiramer acetate. Which of the following information should the nurse include in client
teaching?
a. Recommendation to drink at least 3–4 L of water daily
b. Need to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery
c. How to draw up and administer injections of the medication
d. Use of contraceptive methods other than oral contraceptives

A

C
Copaxone is administered by self-injection. Oral contraceptives are an appropriate choice
for birth control. There is no need to avoid driving or drink large fluid volumes when
taking glatiramer.

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10
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with epilepsy. Which of the following laboratory results
should the nurse expect?
a. Increased blood glucose

b. Decreased BUN
c. Increased creatinine
d. Decreased liver function tests

A

C
The blood work results of a client with epilepsy would show an increased creatinine level.
The other results that would be expected are a decreased blood glucose level, increased
BUN, and increased liver function tests.

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11
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with multiple sclerosis (MS) who has urinary retention
caused by a flaccid bladder. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take?
a. Teach the client how to perform self-catheterization.
b. Decrease the client’s fluid intake in the evening.
c. Suggest the use of incontinence briefs for nighttime use only.
d. Assist the client to the commode every 2 hours during the day.

A

A
Bladder control is a major problem for many patients with MS. Although anticholinergics
may be beneficial for some patients to decrease spasticity, other patients may need to be
taught self-catheterization. Decreasing fluid intake will not improve bladder emptying and
may increase risk for urinary tract infection (UTI) and dehydration. The use of
incontinence briefs and frequent toileting will not improve bladder emptying.

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12
Q

A client with Parkinson’s disease has a nursing diagnosis of impaired physical mobility
related to bradykinesia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the
plan of care?
a. Instruct the client in activities that can be done while lying or sitting.
b. Suggest that the client rock from side to side to initiate leg movement.
c. Have the client take small steps in a straight line directly in front of the feet.
d. Teach the client to keep the feet in contact with the floor and slide them forward.

A

B
Rocking the body from side to side stimulates balance and improves mobility. The client
will be encouraged to continue exercising because this will maintain functional abilities.
Maintaining a wide base of support will help with balance. The client should lift the feet
and avoid a shuffling gait.

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13
Q

A client has a new prescription for bromocriptine mesylate to control symptoms of
Parkinson’s disease. Which of the following information obtained by the nurse may
indicate a need for a decrease in the dose?
a. The client has a chronic dry cough.
b. The client has four loose stools in a day.
c. The client develops a deep vein thrombosis.

d. The client’s blood pressure is 90/46 mm Hg.

A

D
Hypotension is an adverse effect of bromocriptine mesylate, and the nurse should check
with the health care provider before giving the medication. Diarrhea, cough, and deep vein
thrombosis are not associated with bromocriptine mesylate use.

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14
Q

The nurse is providing teaching to a client with myasthenia gravis (MG) about
management of the disease? Which of the following information should the nurse include
in the teaching plan?
a. Perform physically demanding activities in the morning.
b. Anticipate the need for weekly plasmapheresis treatments.
c. Do frequent weight-bearing exercise to prevent muscle atrophy.
d. Protect the extremities from injury due to poor sensory perception.

A

A
Muscles are generally strongest in the morning, and activities involving muscle activity
should be scheduled then. Plasmapheresis is not routinely scheduled but is used for
myasthenia crisis or for situations in which corticosteroid therapy should be discontinued.
There is no decrease in sensation with MG, and muscle atrophy does not occur because
muscles are used during part of the day.

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15
Q

The nurse is assessing a client in the outpatient clinic who has restless legs syndrome.
Which of the following over-the-counter medications that the client is taking routinely
should the nurse discuss with the client?
a. Multivitamin
b. Acetaminophen
c. Ibuprofen
d. Diphenhydramine

A

D
Antihistamines can aggravate restless legs syndrome. The other medications will not
contribute to the restless legs syndrome.

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16
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) who is
hospitalized with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should be included in the
plan of care?
a. Assist with active range of motion.
b. Observe for agitation and paranoia.
c. Give muscle relaxants as needed to reduce spasms.
d. Use simple words and phrases to explain procedures.

A

A

ALS causes progressive muscle weakness. Clients should be guided to use
moderate-intensity, endurance-type exercises for the trunk and limbs, since this may help
reduce ALS spasticity. When hospitalized with other health concerns, it is important to
complete ROM to maintain strength. Psychotic symptoms such as agitation and paranoia
are not associated with ALS. Cognitive function is not affected by ALS, and the client’s
ability to understand procedures will not be impaired. Muscle relaxants will further
increase muscle weakness and depress respirations.

17
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is diagnosed with early Huntington’s disease (HD).
Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching plan for the
client, partner, and children?
a. Use of levodopa–carbidopa to help reduce HD symptoms.
b. Need to take prophylactic antibiotics to decrease the risk for pneumonia.
c. Lifestyle changes such as increased exercise that delay disease progression.
d. Availability of genetic testing to determine the HD risk for the client’s children.

A

D
Genetic testing is available to determine whether an asymptomatic individual has the HD
gene. The client and family should be informed of the benefits and problems associated
with genetic testing. Sinemet will increase symptoms of HD given that HD involves an
increase in dopamine. Antibiotic therapy will not reduce the risk for aspiration. There are
no effective treatments or lifestyle changes that delay the progression of symptoms in HD.

18
Q

The nurse assesses a client in the health clinic who has symptoms of a stooped posture,
shuffling gait, and pill rolling-type tremor. Which of the following topics should the nurse
include in the plan of care?
a. Oral corticosteroids
b. Antiparkinsonian drugs
c. The purpose of electroencephalogram (EEG) testing
d. Preparation for magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

A

B
The diagnosis of Parkinson’s is made when two of the three characteristic signs of tremor,
rigidity, and bradykinesia are present. The confirmation of the diagnosis is made on the
basis of improvement when antiparkinsonian drugs are administered. This client has
symptoms of tremor and bradykinesia; the next anticipated step will be treatment with
medications. MRI and EEG are not useful in diagnosing Parkinson’s disease, and
corticosteroid therapy is not used to treat it.

19
Q

The nurse is assessing a client at the health clinic who has a severe migraine headache and
tells the nurse about having four similar headaches in the last 3 months. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take initially?

a. Refer the client for stress counselling.
b. Ask the client to keep a headache diary.
c. Suggest the use of muscle-relaxation techniques.
d. Teach about the effectiveness of the triptan drugs.

A

B
The initial nursing action should be further assessment of the precipitating causes of the
headaches, quality, and location of pain, etc. Stress reduction, muscle relaxation, and the
triptan drugs may be helpful, but more assessment is needed first.

20
Q

The nurse is caring for a hospitalized client who has a moderate bilateral headache that
radiates from the base of the skull. Which of the following prescribed PRN medications
should the nurse administer initially?
a. Lorazepam
b. Acetaminophen
c. Morphine sulphate
d. Butalbital and Aspirin

A

B
The client’s symptoms are consistent with a tension headache, and initial therapy usually
involves a nonopioid analgesic such as acetaminophen, sometimes combined with a
sedative or muscle relaxant. Lorazepam may be used in conjunction with acetaminophen
but would not be appropriate as the initial monotherapy. Morphine sulphate and butalbital
and Aspirin would be more appropriate for a headache that did not respond to a nonopioid
analgesic.

21
Q

A client tells the nurse about using acetaminophen several times every day for recurrent
bilateral headaches. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Discuss the need to stop taking the acetaminophen.
b. Suggest the use of biofeedback for headache control.
c. Teach the client about magnetic resonance imaging (MRI).
d. Describe the use of botulism toxin (BOTOX) for headaches.

A

A
The headache description suggests that the client is experiencing medication overuse
headache. The initial action will be withdrawal of the medication. The other actions may
be needed if headaches persist.

22
Q

The health care provider is considering the use of sumatriptan for a client with migraine
headaches. Which of the following information obtained by the nurse is most important to
report to the health care provider?
a. The client has at least 1–2 cups of coffee daily.
b. The client has had migraine headaches for 30 years.
c. The client has a history of a recent acute myocardial infarction.
d. The client has been taking topiramate for 2 months.

A

C
The triptans cause coronary artery vasoconstriction and should be avoided in clients with
coronary artery disease. The other information will be reported to the health care provider,
but none of it is an indication that sumatriptan would be an inappropriate treatment.

23
Q

The nurse witnesses a client with a seizure disorder as the client suddenly jerks the arms
and legs, falls to the floor, and regains consciousness immediately. Which of the following
actions is priority for the nurse to take initially?
a. Assess the client for a possible head injury.
b. Give the scheduled dose of divalproex.
c. Document the timing and description of the seizure.
d. Notify the client’s health care provider about the seizure.

A

A
The client who has had a myoclonic seizure and fall is at risk for head injury and should be
evaluated and treated for this possible complication first. Documentation of the seizure,
notification of the seizure, and administration of antiseizure drugs also are appropriate
actions, but the initial action should be assessment for injury.

24
Q

Which of the following prescribed interventions will the nurse implement first for a
hospitalized client who is experiencing continuous tonic–clonic seizures?
a. Give phenytoin 100 mg IV.
b. Monitor level of consciousness.
c. Obtain computed tomography scan.
d. Administer lorazepam 4 mg IV.

A

D
To prevent ongoing seizures, the nurse should administer rapidly acting antiseizure drugs
such as the benzodiazepines. A CT scan is appropriate, but prevention of any seizure
activity during the CT scan is necessary. Phenytoin also will be administered, but it is not
rapidly acting. Clients who are experiencing tonic–clonic seizures are nonresponsive,
although the nurse should assess LOC after the seizure.

25
Q

The partner of a client with Parkinson’s disease (PD) is upset and asks the nurse why he is
no longer able to read the affectionate notes that the client writes for him. Which of the
following information is the basis for the nurse’s response?
a. Characteristic slow speech makes it difficult for the client with PD to put his or her
thoughts on paper.
b. Cogwheel rigidity makes it hard for the client to hold a pen.
c. Micrographia is common in clients with PD.
d. Depression often seen in PD leads to denying affectionate feelings.

A

C
The best answer is that the nurse’s response will be based upon the fact that micrographia
is handwriting deterioration and often occurs in clients with Parkinson’s disease. PD
clients have characteristic slow speech but that does not cause illegible writing. Cogwheel
rigidity makes it difficult to walk and balance. Although depression is common in PD, this
does not directly lead to denying affectionate feelings.

26
Q

Which of the following information about a client who is being treated with
carbidopa/levodopa for Parkinson’s disease is most important for the nurse to report to the
health care provider?
a. Shuffling gait
b. Tremor at rest
c. Cogwheel rigidity of limbs
d. Uncontrolled head movement

A

D
Dyskinesia is an adverse effect of the carbidopa/levodopa, indicating a need for a change
in medication or decrease in dose. The other findings are typical with Parkinson’s disease.

27
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with Parkinson’s disease who has decreased tongue
mobility and an inability to move the facial muscles. Which of the following nursing
diagnoses is of highest priority?
a. Activity intolerance related to immobility
b. Toileting self-care deficit related to impaired mobility
c. Ineffective health management related to difficulty managing complex treatment
regimen
d. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirements related to insufficient dietary
intake

A

D
The data about the client indicate that poor nutrition will be a concern because of
decreased swallowing. The other diagnoses also may be appropriate for a client with
Parkinson’s disease, but the data do not indicate they are current problems for this client.

28
Q

The nurse is assessing a client with myasthenia gravis. Which of the following parameters
is most important for the nurse to assess?
a. Check pupillary size.
b. Monitor grip strength.
c. Observe respiratory effort.
d. Assess level of consciousness.

A

C
Because respiratory insufficiency may be life threatening, it will be most important to
monitor respiratory function. The other data also will be assessed but are not as critical.

29
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with myasthenia gravis who has had a thymectomy and
receives the usual dose of pyridostigmine. An hour later, the client has nausea and severe
abdominal cramps. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
a. Auscultate the client’s bowel sounds.
b. Notify the client’s health care provider.
c. Administer the prescribed PRN antiemetic drug.
d. Give the scheduled dose of prednisone.

A

B
The client’s history and symptoms indicate a possible cholinergic crisis. The health care
provider should be notified immediately, and it is likely that atropine will be prescribed.
The other actions will be appropriate if the client is not experiencing a cholinergic crisis.

30
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of cluster headache who awakens during the
night with a severe stabbing headache. Which of the following actions should the nurse
take first?
a. Start the prescribed PRN oxygen at 8 L/minute.
b. Put a moist hot pack on the client’s neck.
c. Give the prescribed PRN acetaminophen.
d. Notify the client’s health care provider immediately.

A

A
Acute treatment for cluster headache is administration of 100% oxygen at 8–12 L/min for
15 minutes. If the client obtains relief with the oxygen, there is no immediate need to
notify the health care provider. Cluster headaches last only 60–90 minutes, so oral pain
medications have minimal effect. Hot packs are helpful for tension headaches but are not
as likely to reduce pain associated with a cluster headache.

31
Q

The nurse is teaching a client with Parkinson’s disease preventive measures to reduce the
risk of a fall. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching
session?
a. Point the toes downward when stepping.
b. Take two steps backward and three steps forward.
c. Rock from front to back when walking.
d. Drop rice kernels and step over them.

A

D

Patients who are risk for falling and tend to freeze while walking are at risk of falling.
Have the client learn to drop rice kernels and focus on stepping over them to help prevent
falls. Other measures include: pointing the toes upward, take one step backwards and two
steps forward; and, rock from side to side, rather than from front to back.