Chapter 7 Flashcards
(84 cards)
1
Q
Insertion of a gene from one organism into the genome of another from a different species creates:
a. gene libraries.
b. a transgenic organism.
c. a plasmid.
d. a clone.
e. restriction enzymes
A
a transgenic organism.
2
Q
Organisms produced with _____ are known as _____.
a. recombinant DNA; genetically modified organisms
b. whole organism cloning; transgenic organisms
c. recombinant DNA; whole organism clones
d. selective breeding; transgenic organisms
e. Bt crystals; bacterial plasmids
A
recombinant DNA; genetically modified organisms
3
Q
What is the target cell type for gene therapy to cure severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)?
a. red blood cells
b. white blood cells
c. stem cells
d. sperm cells
e. egg cell
A
stem cells
4
Q
What is a plasmid?
a. a circular piece of DNA that can be incorporated into the genome of a bacterium
b. a strand of DNA that is produced by bacteria for transgenic purposes
c. a piece of DNA that is unable to be cut by a restriction enzyme under any conditions
d. a piece of DNA that does not contain any genes expressed by the cell
A
a circular piece of DNA that can be incorporated into the genome of a bacterium
5
Q
Which laboratory tool is used to measure the length of STR regions?
a. Electrophoresis
b. CRISPR
c. plasmid vector
d. cloning
e. restriction enzymes
A
Electrophoresis
6
Q
Which example best represents cloning?
a. DNA from bacteria is inserted into the genome of soybean plants.
b. A bacterium divides by fission.
c. Many identical copies of a fragment of DNA are amplified.
d. A plasmid transfers a gene of interest into the genome of a different organism.
e. An organism is produced with recombinant DNA technology.
A
A bacterium divides by fission.
7
Q
In Canada, genetically modified canola plants were able to take over neighboring fields of crops due to which transgenic trait?
a. herbicide resistance
b. insect resistance
c. rapid growth
d. additional beta-carotene
e. more seeds
A
herbicide resistance
8
Q
The technique often used in forensics that identifies individuals based on their genetic differences is referred to as:
a. recombinant DNA.
b. DNA analyzing.
c. DNA screening.
d. DNA fingerprinting.
e. DNA cloning.
A
DNA fingerprinting.
9
Q
A researcher plans to use PCR to amplify a specific section of Arabidopsis thaliana genome. After adding A. thaliana DNA to the buffer solution, the researcher adds free nucleotides and DNA polymerase. What else must be added?
a. a primer
b. a pair of primers unique to each round of PCR
c. four primers, two for each strand of the double-stranded DNA
d. a pair of primers
e. a primer unique to each round of PCR
A
a pair of primers
10
Q
Herbicide and insect resistance are traits that have been inserted into the genomes of crops in the United States. Over _____ of soybean and cotton grown in the United States is genetically modified.
a. 100%
b. 90%
c. 70%
d. 60%
e. 30%
A
90%
11
Q
In order to identify an individual using DNA evidence left at a crime scene, forensic scientists analyze specific regions of the genome called:
a. clones.
b. recombinant DNA.
c. introns.
d. short tandem repeats (STRs).
e. plasmids.
A
short tandem repeats (STRs).
12
Q
Biotechnology:
a. has created crops that spread the ringspot virus.
b. is little more than science fiction.
c. has led to more incarcerations of innocent people.
d. comes with no potential drawbacks.
e. has led to improvements in diagnosing genetic diseases.
A
has led to improvements in diagnosing genetic diseases.
13
Q
The production of genetically identical cells, organisms, or DNA molecules is known as _____.
a. gene therapy
b. cloning
c. DNA fingerprinting
d. genetic engineering
e. biotechnology
A
cloning
14
Q
Modern corn is the result of:
a. Bt crystals.
b. recombinant DNA technology.
c. generations of selective breeding.
d. CRISPR technology.
e. cloning.
A
generations of selective breeding.
15
Q
Biotechnology:
a. does not really affect anyone’s everyday life, except for those involved in genetic testing or criminal justice.
b. does not have any ethical issues associated with it, unlike most branches of science.
c. is useful in terms of agriculture, but has yet to be applied to other areas of life.
d. is useful in terms of healthcare, but has yet to be applied to other areas of life.
e. has had limited success in curing diseases.
A
has had limited success in curing diseases.
16
Q
The production of genetically identical cells, organisms, or DNA molecules is known as _____.
a. gene therapy
b. cloning
c. DNA fingerprinting
d. genetic engineering
e. biotechnology
A
cloning
17
Q
Bt crystals are derived from:
a. daffodils.
b. cotton plants.
c. insect larvae.
d. corn kernels.
e. soil-dwelling bacteria.
A
soil-dwelling bacteria.
18
Q
What was the first application of recombinant DNA technology in human medicine?
a. editing human sperm and egg cells that carry genes that cause cystic fibrosis
b. inserting a functional gene that cures severe combined immunodeficiency disease into stem cells in the bone marrow of babies
c. production of human insulin in transgenic E. coli bacteria
d. recombinant human erythropoietin produced in cells derived from hamster ovaries
e. transgenic bacteria producing human growth hormone
A
production of human insulin in transgenic E. coli bacteria
19
Q
Which condition has been successfully treated using gene therapy?
a. severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
b. Alzheimer’s disease
c. type 1 diabetes
d. heart disease
e. blindness due to vitamin A deficiency
A
severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)
20
Q
The gene coding for Bt crystals has been genetically engineered into crop plants in order to:
a. make crops more sensitive to herbicides.
b. make crops less sensitive to herbicides.
c. make crops more resistant to insects.
d. make crops grow faster.
e. make crops develop larger fruits and vegetables.
A
make crops more resistant to insects.
21
Q
Which subdivision of biology has led to the most recent practical applications in the fields of agriculture, human health, and forensic science?
a. bacteriology
b. ecology
c. biochemistry
d. biotechnology
e. evolution
A
biotechnology
22
Q
Why are featherless chickens not widely produced by chicken farmers?
a. They are highly vulnerable to disease.
b. They must be produced in a laboratory setting.
c. They are still being tested under GMO safety regulations.
d. They produce a potential allergen carried by a transgene.
e. They pose an ecological risk for outcompeting natural chickens.
A
They are highly vulnerable to disease.
23
Q
Recombinant human growth hormone and recombinant human erythropoietin are two examples of products produced by:
a. transgenic organisms.
b. restriction enzymes.
c. DNA fingerprinting.
d. whole organism cloning.
e. PCR.
A
transgenic organisms.
24
Q
The combination of DNA from two or more sources into a product is called:
a. cloning.
b. recombinant DNA technology.
c. CRISPR.
d. genetic engineering.
e. a plasmid vector.
A
recombinant DNA technology.
25
What are short tandem repeats (STRs)?
a. sequences of DNA that repeat, over and over again
b. sequences of DNA that are conserved among every individual
c. cancerous DNA sequences found in affected individuals
d. the duplicated strands of DNA that are created during the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
e. sequences of DNA that are always found at the same location in the genome
sequences of DNA that repeat, over and over again
26
Which scenario best illustrates cloning?
a. A plasmid transfers a gene of interest into the genome of a different organism.
b. An organism is produced with recombinant DNA technology.
c. A bacterial cell divides, producing a genetically identical copy.
d. DNA from bacteria is inserted into the genome of soybean plants.
e. Many identical copies of a fragment of DNA are amplified
A bacterial cell divides, producing a genetically identical copy.
27
Why do scientists believe golden rice offers such promise?
a. Foreign genes inserted into its genome allow it to produce beta-carotene.
b. Individuals who suffer from type 1 diabetes can eat golden rice to help maintain blood glucose levels.
c. A gene from golden rice can be inserted into corn plants and acts as an insecticide.
d. It is engineered with genes that enable it to withstand drought for cultivation in dry climates.
e. It has a gene from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis inserted into its genome and is able to resist insect predation.
Foreign genes inserted into its genome allow it to produce beta-carotene.
28
Human growth hormone is produced by the _____, and erythropoietin is produced by the _____.
a. white blood cells; red blood cells
b. pituitary gland; white blood cells
c. pituitary gland; kidneys
d. kidneys; pituitary gland
e. pituitary gland; red blood cells
pituitary gland; kidneys
29
What roles do primers play in a polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
a. They are enzymes that polymerize the DNA nucleotides.
b. They cut the DNA at the region of interest.
c. They contain all of the DNA nucleotides that will be polymerized.
d. They direct the PCR to amplify the specific sequence of interest.
e. They compensate for the heating of the double-stranded DNA to prevent degradation.
They direct the PCR to amplify the specific sequence of interest.
30
Salmon that contain a growth hormone gene from Chinook salmon as well as featherless chickens produced by selective breeding are both examples of:
a. harmful organisms.
b. pest-resistant organisms.
c. genetically modified organisms.
d. genetically engineered organisms.
e. transgenic organisms.
genetically engineered organisms.
31
How do restriction enzymes recognize the correct location to make cuts in a DNA sample?
a. They make cuts at the beginning and end of introns.
b. They make cuts at random locations, resulting in DNA fragments of differing lengths.
c. They make cuts where the sequence is AAAA.
d. They make cuts every 150 bases.
e. They recognize a specific sequence of DNA and cut when they encounter that sequence.
They recognize a specific sequence of DNA and cut when they encounter that sequence.
32
Why are some experts concerned about the production of transgenic salmon?
a. Transgenic salmon are less nutritious than nonrecombinant forms.
b. Transgenic fish have been shown to transmit bacterial infections more often than wild populations.
c. Transgenic salmon may outcompete wild salmon for resources.
d. The genes from transgenic fish may spread to other aquatic species, leading to ocean crowding.
e. Fisheries specializing in nonrecombinant fish are losing money due to increased competition
Transgenic salmon may outcompete wild salmon for resources.
33
Without the Cas9 enzyme, researchers would not be able to:
a. identify a DNA sequence of interest.
b. synthesize an RNA guide molecule.
c. grow a gene library.
d. cut DNA at a precise location.
e. amplify a small piece of DNA.
cut DNA at a precise location.
34
Featherless chickens, produced through many generations of crossbreeding, would be an example of a(n):
a. gene library.
b. DNA fingerprint.
c. whole organism clone.
d. artificially selected organism.
e. genetically modified organism (GMO).
artificially selected organism.
35
All of these components are required for CRISPR except:
a. RNA complementary to gene of interest.
b. a plasmid.
c. restriction enzymes.
d. a DNA sequence of interest.
e. Cas9.
restriction enzymes.
36
What is NOT one of the major differences between selective breeding and the creation of transgenic organisms?
a. Transgenic organisms contain DNA from two or more species, whereas selectively bred organisms contain only one.
b. Transgenic organisms can be produced faster than selectively bred organisms, which can take many generations of breeding.
c. Selective breeding can only enhance traits already present in a population, whereas the creation of transgenic organisms can introduce all new traits to a population.
d. The creation of transgenic organisms is an unnatural process, whereas selective breeding is natural.
e. Selective breeding is a practice dating back to early agriculture, whereas transgenics is a relatively recent technology.
The creation of transgenic organisms is an unnatural process, whereas selective breeding is natural.
37
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) allows:
a. edits to be made to the DNA of sex cells so mutations can be eliminated prior to in vitro fertilization.
b. scientists to insert new DNA segments into plants and create genetically modified crops.
c. genetic engineers to clone whole organisms.
d. scientists to create stem cells that can be used to regenerate or repair damaged tissues.
e. multiple copies of DNA to be made.
multiple copies of DNA to be made.
38
What is one of the benefits of using recombinant DNA technology?
a. It takes slightly longer than traditional breeding methods to produce organisms with desired traits.
b. Organisms produced with recombinant DNA technology are all pest-resistant.
c. Organisms produced with recombinant DNA technology have no undesirable traits.
d. It can greatly increase the nutrient value of foods.
e. It can lead to an increase in genetic variation in crop plants.
It can greatly increase the nutrient value of foods.
39
Choose the list that includes the components necessary to carry out PCR.
a. DNA, DNA polymerase, restriction enzymes, and free nucleotides
b. DNA, restriction enzymes, a viral vector, and bacterial cells
c. DNA, an RNA guide molecule, Cas9, and a plasmid vector
d. DNA, DNA polymerase, primers, and free nucleotides
e. DNA, restriction enzymes, a plasmid vector, and bacterial cells
DNA, DNA polymerase, primers, and free nucleotides
40
A transgenic organism is:
a. an organism that is created by the use of plasma.
b. an organism that can transfer its genes to another organism of the same species.
c. an organism that contains DNA from a donor species.
d. an organism that has both RNA and DNA as the core genetic material.
e. an organism that is both prokaryotic and eukaryotic.
an organism that contains DNA from a donor species.
41
Which statement about selective breeding and genetically modified organisms is true?
a. GMO plants are now more common in the world's food supply than wild plants.
b. Vitamin A genes have been introduced into rice to make these crops resistant to pests.
c. Farmers have historically produced new varieties of crops by selective breeding alone.
d. GMOs are always superior to selectively bred organisms.
e. Desired traits engineered into crops must come from DNA of the same species (e.g. rice genes must always be used to genetically engineer rice).
Farmers have historically produced new varieties of crops by selective breeding alone.
42
When creating a DNA fingerprint using gel electrophoresis, the smallest fragments of DNA:
a. have the highest amounts of adenine and thymine.
b. have the highest amounts of cytosine and guanine.
c. move the most quickly across the gel.
d. stay at the negatively charged electrode.
e. are always produced by the first cut of a restriction enzyme.
move the most quickly across the gel.
43
Which is NOT considered a legal or philosophical argument against human cloning?
a. exploitation of women
b. requirements for government oversight
c. inability of cloned individual to give consent
d. concerns of identity and individuality
e. issues of safety for the mother and child
requirements for government oversight
44
Diabetes is to insulin as _____ is to _____.
a. anemia; human growth hormone
b. cystic fibrosis; erythropoietin
c. fast-flush syndrome; the enzyme lactase
d. dwarfism; human growth hormone
e. lactose intolerance; blood doping
dwarfism; human growth hormone
45
Which description about genetically modified foods is false?
a. They have the potential to reduce food costs globally.
b. They could lead to a loss of genetic diversity among crop plants.
c. They are the subject of much derision and controversy.
d. They are no concern to the natural ecosystem.
e. They could potentially harm organisms that we don't wish to harm.
They are no concern to the natural ecosystem.
46
Which example is NOT a potential application of cloning?
a. growing transgenic E. coli containing the gene for human insulin
b. testing embryos for the presence of genes for certain diseases
c. producing cows with increased milk production
d. producing rhu-EPO in cells, which were originally harvested from hamster ovaries
e. cloning tissues to use as grafts to replace damaged tissues
testing embryos for the presence of genes for certain diseases
47
Which step is NOT part of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?
a. Two identical copies of the original segment of DNA result.
b. A segment of DNA is cooled, which causes it to separate into two single strands.
c. Initially, DNA is heated to separate the double-stranded DNA into two single strands.
d. DNA polymerase is added to the solution with free nucleotides, and the solution is cooled.
e. DNA polymerase adds complementary bases to each single strand.
A segment of DNA is cooled, which causes it to separate into two single strands.
48
White rice that has a gene from a daffodil inserted into its genome would be an example of a(n):
a. genetically modified organism (GMO).
b. artificially selected organism.
c. whole organism clone.
d. gene library.
e. DNA fingerprint.
genetically modified organism (GMO).
49
What is the function of Cas9 in the CRISPR process?
a. It is used to amplify the target sequence, making many copies.
b. It cuts the host DNA at a specific target sequence.
c. It moves the target sequence to a different location in the genome.
d. It carries the DNA into the cell nucleus.
e. It guides the plasmid to the target location in the genome.
It cuts the host DNA at a specific target sequence.
50
Which statement about DNA fingerprinting is true?
a. The DNA used must be taken from a coding region of the genome.
b. The DNA used must come from the most conserved (similar) regions of the human genome.
c. The DNA used can come from anywhere in the human genome.
d. The DNA used must be taken from a highly variable region within the genome.
e. The DNA used cannot possibly produce a banding pattern matching anyone else's.
The DNA used must be taken from a highly variable region within the genome.
51
When Dolly the sheep was created using whole organism cloning, how many different sheep were involved in the process (excluding Dolly)?
a. 5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 2
e. 1
3
52
*Which component of a polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is responsible for lengthening the nucleotide sequence?
a. restriction enzymes
b. plasmid vector
c. DNA polymerase
d. primers
e. free nucleotides
DNA polymerase
53
One concern regarding genetically modified organisms (GMOs) is the widespread loss of genetic diversity in crops such as soybean and corn. What is a significant problem caused by this loss?
a. Entire crops can become vulnerable to environmental changes or pests.
b. Nearly identical crops can be raised more efficiently than genetically diverse crops.
c. Genetically similar crops can be more sensitive to pesticides or herbicides.
d. Genetically similar crops will have less vigorous growth than diverse crops.
e. GMOs of different species are more likely to interbreed and produce undesirable hybrids.
Entire crops can become vulnerable to environmental changes or pests.
54
Which statement about biotechnology is false?
a. A reduction in the use of pesticides for certain agricultural crops can be attributed to biotechnology.
b. Biotechnology is a growing field of increasing economic value.
c. In journalism, most headlines about biotechnology can be taken at face value.
d. Advances in the field of biotechnology have led to better means of screening for genetic diseases.
e. When applied to criminal justice, biotechnology has led to both convictions and exonerations.
In journalism, most headlines about biotechnology can be taken at face value.
55
In order to identify an individual using DNA evidence left at a crime scene, forensic scientists analyze specific regions of the genome called:
a. introns.
b. clones.
c. recombinant DNA.
d. short tandem repeats (STRs).
e. plasmids.
short tandem repeats (STRs).
56
The production of genetically identical cells, organisms, or DNA molecules is known as _____.
a. genetic engineering
b. gene therapy
c. cloning
d. biotechnology
e. DNA fingerprinting
cloning
57
Which description about restriction enzymes is false?
a. They target a particular base-pair sequence on either side of the gene.
b. They are involved in generating many copies of DNA fragments.
c. They are involved in chopping up the DNA from a donor organism.
d. They usually recognize a sequence that is four to eight base pairs long.
e. They are often involved in the first step of biotechnology.
They are involved in generating many copies of DNA fragments.
58
What can be used to transfer DNA into the genome of an organism?
a. plasmids
b. restriction enzymes
c. polymerase chain reaction (PCR)
d. CRISPR
e. bacteria
plasmids
59
Which statement regarding Bt crystal-producing corn is true?
a. Its production has increased the use of pesticides by farmers.
b. It has increased nutritional value compared to nonrecombinant forms of corn.
c. It is produced by inserting bacterial DNA into the genomes of corn cells.
d. When caterpillars consume these plants, lethal bacterial DNA is incorporated into their genomes.
e. Its production is limited because it is dangerous for humans to consume.
It is produced by inserting bacterial DNA into the genomes of corn cells.
60
A human growth hormone gene is placed into a bacterial plasmid. This is an example of:
a. recombinant DNA.
b. a restriction enzyme.
c. a whole organism clone.
d. DNA polymerase.
e. a mutation.
recombinant DNA.
61
Which statement about gene therapy is NOT true?
a. The organism used to transfer a "good" gene may infect the wrong cells in the recipient.
b. Not enough cells in the recipient may get a working copy of the gene.
c. Gene therapy has rarely, if ever, produced any clear successful cures.
d. There is some difficulty in getting a working gene into the specific cells that need it.
e. In the few cases where gene therapy produced a cure, the children of these patients were free of their parent's disease.
In the few cases where gene therapy produced a cure, the children of these patients were free of their parent's disease.
62
Which statement about transgenic plants is true?
a. Transgenic plants contain genes from more than one species.
b. Intermediate species are required for transgenic plants to be produced.
c. Transgenic plants have been used successfully for insect resistance but not herbicide resistance.
d. Transgenic plants take many more years to grow than their unmodified counterparts.
e. All transgenic plants are dangerous to humans and animals and should never be consumed.
Transgenic plants contain genes from more than one species.
63
Which step was part of the cloning process that produced Dolly the sheep?
a. One sheep's egg cell was fertilized by that same sheep's identical twin brother.
b. The nucleus of a mammary gland cell was removed from one sheep and inserted into an egg cell of another sheep.
c. An egg cell from a sheep was induced to make an identical copy of its DNA, doubling the chromosome number, and then was induced to divide, simulating normal embryonic development.
d. A stem cell from a sheep was induced to divide (in the same way an embryo begins to develop), and the embryo was grown in an incubator that simulated the uterine environment.
e. A stem cell from a sheep was converted to an egg cell and induced to divide, simulating embryonic cell division.
The nucleus of a mammary gland cell was removed from one sheep and inserted into an egg cell of another sheep.
64
For which organisms are transgenes most commercially utilized in the United States?
a. pest- and herbicide-resistant corn, cotton, and soybean crops
b. seedless watermelons
c. rice crops that contain transgenes enabling beta-carotene biosynthesis
d. transgenic Atlantic salmon
e. featherless chickens
pest- and herbicide-resistant corn, cotton, and soybean crops
65
When cloning a sheep, a scientist begins by isolating an egg cell from one sheep and a mammary cell from another. Then, the scientist removes the nucleus of each cell. The very next step is:
a. growing the embryo in culture.
b. birthing the cloned sheep.
c. implanting the nucleus of the mammary cell into the egg cell.
d. transplanting the embryo into the womb of a surrogate mother sheep.
e. initiating cell division.
implanting the nucleus of the mammary cell into the egg cell.
66
Some people make the argument that genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are inherently dangerous because they are unnatural. What is the best rebuttal to this argument?
a. Transgenic organisms are no different from organisms that have been selectively bred, so they are no more dangerous. [[
b. Many diseases, such as smallpox, are natural and still deadly to humans; whereas vaccines, which are unnatural, have helped to eliminate many deadly diseases and continue to keep humans safe.
c. Farmers have to purchase their seeds from the manufacturer, so the seeds are safer.
d. GMO crops can outcompete their naturally growing counterparts, so they must be healthier to consume.
e. GMOs have more nutritional value than their naturally growing counterparts, so they cannot be dangerous.
Many diseases, such as smallpox, are natural and still deadly to humans; whereas vaccines, which are unnatural, have helped to eliminate many deadly diseases and continue to keep humans safe.
67
STRs have a high degree of variability in the number of repeats in each region. This makes these segments of DNA useful in _____.
a. cloning
b. DNA fingerprinting
c. CRISPR
d. polymerase chain reaction
e. gene therapy
DNA fingerprinting
68
A researcher isolates a small segment of DNA. She heats the DNA in solution, causing its two strands to separate. What is the next step in this process?
a. She would insert a bacterial plasmid, which contains a gene of interest, into a bacterial cell.
b. She would use a restriction enzyme to make a cut in a bacterial plasmid.
c. She would generate an RNA guide molecule.
d. She would cool the solution in the presence of DNA polymerase, primers, and free nucleotides.
e. She would chop up the two single strands of DNA using restriction enzymes.
She would cool the solution in the presence of DNA polymerase, primers, and free nucleotides.
69
If you begin with one copy of a fragment of DNA, how many copies of the targeted DNA will you have after 3 rounds of PCR?
a. 6
b. 4
c. 8
d. 16
e. 3
8
70
*Which aspects of polymerase chain reaction (PCR) make it such an effective and critical laboratory tool?
a. PCR is inexpensive to perform and a relatively easy laboratory procedure to carry out.
b. PCR is able to produce large quantities of DNA in a very short period of time.
c. PCR is a vital tool in almost all genetic procedures performed in a laboratory today, and has a high rate of success.
d. All of the above are reasons supporting the statement that PCR is an effective and critical laboratory tool.
e. PCR is highly sensitive and can amplify even the smallest quantity of DNA into billions of copies
All of the above are reasons supporting the statement that PCR is an effective and critical laboratory tool.
71
How has recombinant DNA technology improved treatment of dwarfism?
a. Human growth hormone (HGH) can now be produced using transgenic bacteria.
b. Gene therapy can now be used to make the body produce human growth hormone (HGH).
c. Stem cells can be engineered to produce human growth hormone (HGH) in test tubes.
d. DNA polymerase can amplify the human growth hormone (HGH) gene, making many copies for producing more of the hormone.
e. Plasmid vectors can carry the functional gene for human growth hormone (HGH) into a person's cells.
Human growth hormone (HGH) can now be produced using transgenic bacteria.
72
Why should you be skeptical when you hear claims about biotechnology "breakthroughs" in the media?
a. Historically, biotechnology has had few successes.
b. Often what is reported as a breakthrough is only an early research finding.
c. Journalists are incapable of understanding the basic science behind biotechnology.
d. The scientific community often misrepresents its findings to the media.
e. Every report on biotechnology in the media is fake.
Often what is reported as a breakthrough is only an early research finding.
73
What is the best example of how cloning can currently be used in medicine?
a. Hamster ovary cells can produce recombinant human erythropoietin.
b. Human children can be cloned.
c. Cloning can be used to screen for the presence of the sickle cell anemia gene.
d. Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) can be cured through cloning.
e. Cloning can be used to determine if a person will develop a genetic disease later in life.
Hamster ovary cells can produce recombinant human erythropoietin.
74
Which biotechnology tool is incorrectly matched with its purpose?
a. restriction enzymes: inhibit DNA overgrowth
b. PCR: amplification of DNA into larger quantities
c. cloning: increase in the number of transgenic organisms
d. plasmids: insertion of DNA into a new cell
e. gene library: transgenic organism creation.
restriction enzymes: inhibit DNA overgrowth
75
Two healthy parents (asymptomatic) have a child with Tay-Sachs disease. What statement best explains this phenomenon and its possible prevention?
a. This phenomenon is not possible, since both parents are asymptomatic.
b. The phenomenon occurred because the dominant Tay-Sachs gene was active in the child, but not in the parents.
c. The phenomenon occurred due to a point mutation that occurred during fertilization, but testing could have informed the parents of the disease in their unborn child.
d. The phenomenon occurred because both parents were gene carriers, but there is no testing available at this point for a disease such as Tay-Sachs.
e. The phenomenon occurred because the parents are both carriers of the gene for the disease, but with screening of the parents combined with genetic counseling and embryo testing, the risk could have been dramatically reduced.
The phenomenon occurred because the parents are both carriers of the gene for the disease, but with screening of the parents combined with genetic counseling and embryo testing, the risk could have been dramatically reduced.
76
Which is NOT a reason that polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is such an effective and critical laboratory tool?
a. PCR is highly sensitive and can amplify even the smallest quantity of DNA into billions of copies.
b. PCR is inexpensive to perform and a relatively easy laboratory procedure to carry out.
c. PCR is a vital tool in almost all genetic procedures performed in a laboratory today, and has a high rate of success.
d. PCR is capable of cutting DNA with high precision.
e. PCR is able to produce large quantities of DNA in a very short period of time.
PCR is capable of cutting DNA with high precision.
77
"Genetically modified foods are unnatural; therefore, they are harmful." This argument is:
a. valid; many consumers believe they are harmful, so it must be true.
b. valid; evidence suggests genetically modified foods are vectors for disease.
c. invalid; when evaluating if something is either beneficial or harmful, there is no value in knowing whether it is natural or unnatural.
d. invalid; evidence suggests that there are no risks associated with genetically modified foods.
e. valid; evidence suggests genetically modified foods trigger allergic reactions more often than non-genetically modified foods.
invalid; when evaluating if something is either beneficial or harmful, there is no value in knowing whether it is natural or unnatural.
78
What is not a product of recombinant DNA technology?
a. recombinant human growth hormone
b. recombinant human factor VIII
c. recombinant human insulin
d. recombinant human diabetes
e. recombinant human erythropoietin
recombinant human diabetes
79
In which laboratory situation would a restriction enzyme be the best tool to use?
a. to amplify a fragment of DNA containing a gene for red eyes in fruit flies
b. to insert a gene for antibiotic resistance into E. coli cells
c. to grow a culture of transgenic E. coli cells containing a mouse gene under investigation
d. to serve as a starting point for DNA synthesis to selectively copy a genomic region containing a gene for beta-carotene
e. to cut out a fragment of DNA that contains a gene coding for Bt crystals from the bacterial genome
to cut out a fragment of DNA that contains a gene coding for Bt crystals from the bacterial genome
80
What farming practice might have prevented the Irish Potato Famine?
a. use of Bt crystals
b. use of genetically modified potatoes
c. planting multiple varieties of potato
d. use of herbicides in potato fields
e. irrigation of potato fields
planting multiple varieties of potato
81
A farmer uses the same set of genetically modified crop plants every year. What risk will he encounter because of this practice?
a. The crops will eventually become resistant to herbicides.
b. The surrounding ecosystem will be destroyed by the modified crops.
c. The crops will become unsafe for human use or consumption.
d. The plants will lose the ability to photosynthesize after multiple generations of self-fertilization.
e. The plants will be more susceptible to environmental conditions, pests, and diseases because of their limited genetic diversity.
The plants will be more susceptible to environmental conditions, pests, and diseases because of their limited genetic diversity.
82
Which process or technology does not fall under the definition of genetic engineering?
a. transgenic organisms
b. bacterial plasmids
c. DNA fingerprinting
d. selective breeding
e. recombinant DNA technology
DNA fingerprinting
83
Why might a person decide to undergo genetic testing to find out if they have an increased chance of developing certain genetic diseases later in life?
a. Early detection could allow them to undergo gene therapy on their sperm or egg cells to eliminate defective genes.
b. Early detection can give people extra time to obtain the appropriate insurance coverage for managing expenses that will be incurred during future conditions.
c. Early detection can increase the ability to treat many diseases and decrease the risk of illness and death.
d. Genetic screening will prevent a person from getting a genetic disease.
e. Early detection will allow a patient to have cells harvested and cloned to produce healthy tissue, which can in turn replace tissue damaged by disease.
Early detection can increase the ability to treat many diseases and decrease the risk of illness and death.
84
What property of DNA allows it to be moved between two electrodes during electrophoresis?
a. DNA has no net charge.
b. Nucleotides are magnetic.
c. DNA is positively charged.
d. DNA is negatively charged.
e. Static electricity is stored between complementary bases.
DNA is negatively charged.
