Chapter 9 Flashcards by Kha vu hoai bao

1) The Central Dogma specifies that the information in ________.
A) DNA is copied into an RNA molecule during transcription, and the information in that RNA
molecule is used to make a protein during translation
B) DNA is copied into an RNA molecule during translation, and the information in that RNA
molecule is used to make a protein during transcription
C) DNA is copied directly into a protein
D) RNA is copied into a DNA molecule during transcription, and the information in that DNA
molecule is used to make a protein during translation
E) protein is copied into an RNA molecule during translation, and the information in that RNA
molecule is used to make DNA during transcription

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2) A particular ________ carry the information for making a particular protein, but ________ can be used to make any protein.
A) gene and mRNA; a ribosome and a tRNA
B) gene and ribosome; a tRNA and an mRNA
C) tRNA and ribosome; a gene and an mRNA
D) gene and tRNA; a ribosome and an mRNA
E) ribosome and mRNA; a gene and a tRNA

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3) Match the function of DNA on the left with the appropriate description on the right.
i. expression ii. variation iii. replication iv. storage

a. stable maintenance and passage of information
b. duplicationofgeneticmaterial
c. potential for alteration
d. production of a phenotype
Which of the choices below is correct? A)i=d; ii=b; iii=c; iv=a
B)i=d; ii=b; iii=a; iv=c
C)i=b; ii=d; iii=a; iv=c
D)i=c; ii=a; iii=b; iv=d
E)i=d; ii=c; iii=b; iv=a

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4) In the mid-1940s, genetic information was known to consist of ________.

A) lipid and protein
B) nucleic acid and protein
C) carbohydrate and nucleic acid 
D) protein and carbohydrate
E) nucleic acid and lipid

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5) Who discovered that DNA was the genetic material (or “transforming principle”) that could convert nonvirulent R-type Diplococcus pneumoniae bacterium to the virulent S-type?

A) Hershey and Chase
B) Watson, Crick, Wilkins, and Franklin C) Frederick Griffith
D) Erwin Chargaff
E) Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty

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6) The classic Hershey and Chase (1952) experiment that offered evidence in support of DNA being 6the genetic material in bacteriophages made use of which of the following labeled component(s)?
A) nitrogen and oxygen
B) oxygen and phosphorus 
C) phosphorus and sulfur
D) hydrogen 
E) tritium

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7) In the classic experiment conducted by Hershey and Chase, why was the pellet radioactive in the centrifuge tube that contained bacteria with viruses?
A) The bacteria were in the pellet, and they had incorporated radioactive proteins into their cell membranes.
B) The radioactive viruses were in the pellet, and the bacteria were in the supernatant.
C) The radioactive viruses (coats plus DNA) were in the pellet.
D) The radioactive protein coats of the viruses were in the pellet.
E) The bacteria were in the pellet, and many contained the radioactive viral DNA.

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8) When a protoplast is infected by only the nucleic acid component of a virus, the infection is referred to as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) transfection
B) transduction 
C) recombination
D) lysis
E) transformation

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9) Genetic functions in a eukaryote can be observed in ________.
A) mitchondria and chloroplasts
B) chloroplasts
C) mitchondria
D) the nucleus
E) chloroplasts, mitchondria, and the nucleus

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10) If protein were the genetic principle and not nucleic acid, significant mutagenic effects would be detected at \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) 280 nm 
B) 300 nm 
C) 240 nm 
D) 260 nm 
E) 320 nm

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11) Reverse transcriptase is an enzyme found in association with retroviral activity. It has the property of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) requiring no template
B) translation
C) synthesis of DNA from an RNA template
D) synthesis of RNA from a DNA template 
E) most lysozymes

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12) What are the two major components of the tobacco mosaic virus?

A) RNA and protein
B) lipids and nucleic acids
C) RNA and DNA
D) DNA and protein
E) carbohydrates and nucleic acids

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13) The figure below shows a representative dinucleotide:

This figure represents ________, and the arrow is closest to the ________ end.

A)RNA; 5’
B)DNA; 5’
C)RNA; 3’
D)DNA; 3’

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14) The figure below shows a representative dinucleotide:

 diesterase is an enzyme that breaks the covalent bond that connects the phosphate to the 5' carbon. If the dinucleotide is digested with spleen diesterase, to which base and to which carbon on the sugar is the
phosphate now attached?
A)T; 3' 
B)A; 3'
C)T; 5' 
D)A; 5'

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15) The covalent linkage between the monomers in a dinucleotide is a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
A) phosphodiester bond
B) peptide bond 
C) ionic bond
D) disulfide bond 
E) ester bond

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16) The basic structure of a nucleotide includes \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A) tryptophan and leucine
B) base, sugar, and phosphate 
C) mRNA, rRNA, and tRNA 
D) phosphorus and sulfur
E) amino acids

17) Regarding the structure of DNA, the covalently arranged combination of a deoxyribose and a nitrogenous base would be called a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) nucleoside monophosphate
B) ribonucleotide
C) nucleotide
D) nucleoside
E) oligonucleotide

18) The figure below is a nucleotide

If you were told that this molecule could be found in either DNA or RNA, depending on the identity of the chemical groups labeled (X) and (Y), the nitrogen-containing ring structure would have to be
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) cytosine 
B) adenine 
C) uracil 
D) thymine 
E) guanine

21) Any two nucleic acid fragments will spontaneously hybridize if they encounter each other as long as they are \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) complementary; antiparallel
B) identical; compatible
C) primed; replicated
D) transcribed; translated 
E) DNA; RNA

22) Considering the structure of double-stranded DNA, which kind(s) of bonds hold one complementary strand to the other?
A) van der Waals 
B) disulfide
C) covalent
D) hydrogen 
E) ionic

23) The base content of a sample of nucleic acid is as follows: A = 31%, G = 31%, T = 19%, C = 19%. What conclusion should be drawn from this information?
A) The purine/pyrimidine ratio in this molecule fits Chargaff’s data.
B) This nucleic acid is double-stranded DNA.
C) The strands in this molecule are parallel rather than antiparallel.
D) This nucleic acid is made of RNA.
E) This nucleic acid is single-stranded DNA.

24) The two DNA chains in a double helix ________.

A) have identical base sequences
B) have an overall diameter of 2 μm
C) wind around each other in such a way that purines are always opposite pyrimidines and vice
versa
D) are parallel to each other in 5’ to 3’ directionality
E) are held together due to the charges of their phosphate groups

25) If 15% of the nitrogenous bases in a sample of DNA from a particular organism are thymine, what percentage should be cytosine?
A) 35% 
B) 40% 
C) 15% 
D) 30% 
E) 70%

26) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of double-stranded DNA to see which bases are equivalent in concentration, which of the following would be true?
A) A = C
B) A = G and C = T 
C) A + C = G + T
D) G = T
E) A + T = G + C

In base pair between a guanine and a cytosine, ________ hydrogen bonds form between a partially positive hydrogen on the guanine and a more electronegative atom on the cytosine. A) 4 B) 0 C) 1 D) 2 E) 3

28) The most specific name for an incoming monomer about to be incorporated into a DNA chain is 28) ________. A) nucleotide B) deoxyribonucleoside C) ribonucleoside diphosphate D) deoxyribonucleoside triphosphate E) nucleoside monophosphate

29) Which of the following clusters of terms accurately describes DNA as it is generally viewed to exist 29) in prokaryotes and eukaryotes? A) double-stranded, parallel, (A + T)/C + G) = 1.0, (A + G)/(C + T) = 1.0 B) double-stranded, antiparallel, (A + T)/C + G) = variable, (A + G)/(C + T) = variable C) single-stranded, antiparallel, (A + T)/C + G) = 1.0, (A + G)/(C + T) = 1.0 D) double-stranded, antiparallel, (A + T)/C + G) = variable, (A + G)/(C+ T) = 1.0 E) double-stranded, parallel, (A + T)/C + G) = variable, (A + G)/(C + T) = 1.0

30) The form of DNA that is observed to adopt a left-handed helix is ________. A) Z-DNA B) C-DNA C) P-DNA D) A-DNA

31) The form of DNA that is believed to be most biologically significant is ________. A) B-DNA B) E-DNA C) Z-DNA D) A-DNA

32) Compared with B-DNA, A-DNA is ________ compact, has ________ base pairs per turn, and is a 32) ________ helix. A) more; fewer; right-handed B) more; fewer; left-handed C) more; more; right-handed D) less; more; right-handed E) less; fewer; left-handed

33) Arrange the principal forms of RNA in order of abundance from LEAST abundant to MOST 33) abundant. A) rRNA, tRNA, mRNA B) mRNA, tRNA, rRNA C) mRNA, rRNA, tRNA D) tRNA, rRNA, mRNA E) tRNA, mRNA, rRNA

34) When calculating a molecule's Svedberg coefficient, the rate of sedimentation is affected by the 34) molecule's ________. A) size B) shape C) mass D) size and shape E) mass, size, and shape

35) Which type of rRNA can be found in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes? 35) E) 23S A) 5S B) 5.8S C) 18S D) 16S

``` 36) Some forms of genetic regulation can be facilitated by ________. 36) A) siRNA B) lncRNA C) miRNA D) lncRNA and siRNA E) miRNA, siRNA, and lncRNA ```

37) FISH can be used to determine the ________. 37) A) difference in lengths between two fragments of DNA B) difference between A-form and B-form DNAs C) chromosomal location of specific genetic information D) locations of major and minor grooves in a double helix E) melting temperature of a fragment of DNA

39) Consider the following two statements about DNA melting temperature: 39) 1) The melting temperature of a sample of DNA is the temperature at which 50% of the double helices in the sample have completely denatured. 2) A molecule with 53% G—C base pairs would have a higher melting temperature than a molecule of equivalent length with 53% A—T base pairs. Determine which one of the statements below is CORRECT. A) Statement 1) and statement 2) are true. B) Statement 1) is false; statement 2) is true. C) Statement 1) is true; statement 2) is false. D) Statement 1) and statement 2) are false.