Chapter 9: Enviornmental and Nutritional Diseases Flashcards

(136 cards)

1
Q

What are the leading causes of death in developed countries?

A

Ischemic heart disease and cerebrovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Postnatally, what are the 3 conditions that are preventable that cause deaths in children under 5 y/o?

A

1) Pneumonia
2) Diarrheal diseases
3) Malaria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Activation of Xenobiotics to generate toxic compounds occurs in 2 phases, what are they?

A

Phase I: chemicals undergo hydrolysis, oxidation, or reduction (by CYP 450)

Phase II: often metabolized to water soluble compounds through glucuronidation, sulfation, methylation, and conjugation w/ glutathione

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Xenobiotics are metabolized by what?

Cause what?

A
  • CYP-450 system in ER of liver
  • Either detoxification or conversion into active compounds that cause cell injury –> ROS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the inducers of CYP? (mnemonic)

A

SHADE

Smoking

Hormones

Alcohol

Drugs

Enviornmental chemicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What decreases CYP activity?

A

Fasting and/or starvation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which size particles are the most harmful?

What happens when inhaled?

A
  • Fine or ultrafine particles less than 10 μm in diameter
  • Readily inhaled into alveoli where they are phagocytosed by macrophages and neutrophils,respond by releasinginflammatory mediators
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Acute poisoning by CO is marked by which characteristic morphology?

A

Cherry-red color of the skin and mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Lead is a readily absorbed metal that binds to what?

Interferes with?

Leads to what kind of toxicities?

A
  • Binds to sulfhydryl groups in proteins and interferes with CALCIUM metabolism
  • Leads to: hematologic, skeletal, neurologic, GI, and renal toxicities
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Most absorbed lead is incorporated into?

Competes with?

A
  • Bones and teeth
  • Competes with calcium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

High levels of lead cause CNS disturbances in both adult and children, but what condition is predominant in adults?

A

Peripheral neuropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Lead inhibits the activity of what 2 enzymes involved in heme synthesis?

Causes what type of anemia?

A
  • δ-aminolevulinic acid dehydratase and Ferrochelatase

- Microcytic hypochromic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What morphological blood and bone marrow changes are present in lead poisoning?

Histological findings?

A

- Ring sideroblasts —> red cell precursors w/ iron-laden mitochondria that are detected with Prussian blue stain

- Punctate basophilic stippling of the red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What kind of brain/CNS damage is associated with children in lead poisoning?

Adults?

A
  • In children = brain damage
  • In adults = peripheral demyelinating neuropathy (wrist drop and foot-drop)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Mercury mostly affects what organs?

A

CNS

Kidney

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Arsenic affects what organs most commonly?

A

GI tract

Nervous System

Skin

Heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Arsenic trioxide is a frontline treatment for?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Cadmium is toxic to what systems?

Due to increased production of?

A
  • Kidneys and Lungs
  • Increased production of ROS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The principal toxic effects of excess cadmium take the form of what diseases?

Due to?

A
  • Obstructive lung disease caused by necrosis of alveolar epithelial cells
  • Renal tubular damage that may progress to end-stage renal disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BPAs have been known to be a potential ________ disruptor.

Elevated urine BPA linked to?

A
  • Endocrine disruptor
  • Elevated urine BPA linked to heart disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are among the most potent carcinogens and are released during the combustion of fossil fuels, particularly coal and gas at high temps?

Implicated in the development of what diseases?

A
  • Polycyclic Hydrocarbons
  • Lung and bladder cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Organochlorines (i.e., DDT, PCB, dioxins) disrupt what?

A

Hormonal balance due to antiestrogenic and antiandrogenic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dioxins and PCBs can cause what skin disorder?

Affect CYPs how?

A
  • Folliculitis and a dermatosis known as chloracne, characterized by acne, cyst formation, hyperpigmentation, and hyperkeratosis of face and behind ears
  • Induce CYPs, may shown abnormal drug metabolism
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which components of cigarette smoke are potent carcinogens and are directly involved in the development of lung cancer?

A

Polycyclic hydrocarbons

Nitrosamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Carcinogens from cigarette smoke are processed by CYPs, but some of the intermediates produced are electrophilic and form what?
**DNA adducts**; persistence of these adducts can cause **mutations** in **oncogenes** and **tumor suppressors**
26
What are the causal mechanisms for the development of atherosclerosis in smokers?
- Increased platelet aggregation - Decreased myocardial O2 supply - Increased O2 demand - Decreased threshold for ventricular fibrillation
27
Passive smoke inhalation (second-hand smoke) in non-smokers can be estimated by measuring the blood levels of?
**Cotinine**, a metabolite of nicotine
28
How does alcohol potentiate the depressant effects of narcotic, sedative, and other psychoactive drugs?
- Alcohol induces CYPs - Competes with other CYPE21 substrates and delays drug catabolism
29
What is the direct, and toxic, product of alcohol oxidation?
Acetaldehyde
30
About 50% of Asians have very low alcohol dehyrogenase activity, due to what? What is the normal allele and the inactive variant? What effect does the inactive variant have?
- Substitution of **lysine** for **glutamine** at residue **487** - Normal allele = ALDH2\*1 - Inactive variant = ALDH2\*2 = **dominant negative**
31
Oxidation of ethanol by ADH (alcohol dehydrogenase) takes place in the?
**Cytosol** = most important route
32
The cytochrome P-450 system and its CYP2E1 isoform are located?
In the ER (**microsome**)
33
Oxidation of alcohol by alcohol dehydrogenase causes the reduction of which molecule? What is this molecule important for?
- Reduction of NAD to NADH (decreased NAD and increased NADH) - NAD is **required** for **fatty acid oxidation** in the **liver** and for the conversion of **lactate** ---\> **pyruvate**
34
The main cause of accumulation of fat in the liver of alcoholics is deficiency of? What else does this cause in alcoholics?
- Deficiency of NAD, required for fatty acid oxidation in liver - Increased NADH/NAD ration also causes **lactic acidosis**
35
How does alcohol consumption lead to lipid peroxidation of hepatocyte cell membranes?
Metabolism of ethanol in the liver by CYP2E1 produces ROS, causes lipid peroxidation
36
What effect does alcohol have on gram negative bacteria in the intestinal flora? Stimulates the production of?
- Causes the release of **endotoxin** (lipopolysaccharide) - Stimulates production of **TNF** and other cytokines from macrophages and Kupffer cells, leading to **hepatic injury**
37
Menopausal hormone therapy (MHT) increases the risk for?
- **Breast** cancer (after 5-6 yrs use), **ovarian** and **endometrial** cancers - Stroke and venous thromboembolism, including DVT and pulmonary embolism
38
What is the effect of oral contraceptives on development of breast carcinomas, endometrial cancer, and ovarian cancers?
- Do **not** increase **breast** cancer risk - Have a **protective** effect against **endometrial** and **ovarian** cancers
39
What is the relationship between oral contraceptives and thromboembolism?
- Associated with a **threefold** to **sixfold** **INCREASED** risk of s**venous thrombosis** and **pulmonary thromboembolism** - Due to hypercoagulable state induced by elevated hepatic synthesis of coagulation factors
40
There is a well-defined association between the devlopment of what type of tumor in older woman who have used OCs for prolonged periods?
Rare benign hepatic tumor (**hepatic adenoma**)
41
What is the cause of 50% of cases of acute liver failure, with 30% mortality, in the US?
Acetaminophen toxicity
42
At therapeutic doses, 95% of acetaminophen undergoes detoxification in the liver by what? Excreted as?
- Phase **II** enzymes - Excreted as **glucuronate** or **sulfate conjugates**
43
How is the other 5% of acetaminophen metabolized and what is the product of this metabolism? How is this product usually dealt with? Large doses of this toxic metabolite lead to?
- Through **CYP2E** --\> **NAPQI** (N-acetyl-*p*-benzoquinoneimine) = **highly reactive** metabolite - NAPQI is **usually conjugated** with glutathione (GSH) - In large doses, unconjugated NAPQI accumulates and causes hepatocellular injury, leading to **centrilobular necrosis** that may progress to **liver failure**
44
What are the 2 mechanisms in which the toxic metabolite of acetaminophin, NAPQI, produces injury within the liver?
1) **Covalent** binding to hepatic proteins which causes **damage to cellular membranes** and **mitochondrial dysfunction** 2) Depletion of **GSH**, making hepatocytes **more susceptible** to **ROS** induced injury
45
Why does acetaminophen toxicitiy occur in lower doses in chronic alcoholics?
Due to alcohol **inducing CYP2E** in liver
46
A patient presents to the ED with nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and eventually shock after ingesting unknown pills from the medicine cabinet, a few days later they develop jaundice. What do you suspect the culprit to be?
Acetaminophen toxicity
47
How can acetaminophen toxicity (ODs) be treated within 12 hours of ingestion?
Administration of ***N-acetylcysteine*,** which **restores GSH** levels
48
In serious overdoses of acetaminophen, how does liver failure occur?
Beginning with **centrilobular necrosis** that may extend to **entire lobules** \*Liver transplantation will be the only hope for survival
49
Often Aspirin overdose results from accidental ingestion of a large number of tablets by children or attempted suicide by adults. What is a much less common cause?
Ointments containing oil of wintergreen (**methyl salicylate**)
50
Acute salicylate overdose causes what acid-base shift, due to? Followed by?
- **Alkalosis** as a consequence of **stimulation** of the **respiratory center** in the medulla (ASA is an **acid**) - Followed by **metabolic acidosis** and **accumulation** of **pyruvate** and **lactate**, due to **uncoupling** of **OxPhos** and **inhibition** of the **Krebs cycle**
51
A patient presents to the ED with a hx of headaches, dizziness, ringing in the ears (tinnitus), hearing impairment, mental confusion, drowsiness, nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea. They tell you they take an OTC for chronic pain management, what do you suspect is the culprit of their symptoms?
Chronic **aspirin** toxicity (**salicylism**)
52
Chronic aspirin toxicity may lead to what GI issues?
- **Acute erosive gastritis**, leading to: - Overt or covert **GI bleeding** and lead to **gastric ulceration**
53
Bleeding disorders can be caused by chronic aspirin ingestion, what are the signs of this?
**Petechial hemorrhages** may appear in **skin** and **internal viscera**, and bleeding from gastric ulcerations may be exaggerated. \*Remember that primary hemostasis disorders = defects in platelets = mucocutaneous bleeding = petechia, purpura, and ecchymosis
54
Proprietary analgesic mixtures of aspirin and phenacetin or its active metabolite, acetaminophen, when taken over several years, can cause?
Tubulointerstitial nephritis w/ renal papillary necrosis, referred to as ***analgesic nephropathy***
55
Cocaine blocks the reupatake of? Stimulates release of?
- **Dopamine** in the CNS - **Epi** and **NE** at adrenergic nerve endings; while stimulating presynaptic release of **NE**
56
What are the pulmonary complications that can arise as a result of Heroin use?
- Moderate to severe **edema** - Septic embolism from **endocarditis** - Lung abscess - Opportunistic infections - Foreign-body **granulomas** (from **talc** and other adulterants)
57
What are the 4 most common places of infection complications as a result of heroin use?
1) Skin and subcutaneous tissue 2) Heart valves 3) Liver 4) Lungs
58
Endocarditis in heroin abusers often takes a distinctive form involving? Most cases causes by what bacteria?
- **Right**-sided heart valves, particularly **tricuspid** - Most cases, caused by ***S. aureus***
59
What is the most common infection among individuals addicted to heroin? Acquired how?
Viral hepatitis acquired through sharing needles
60
What 2 forms of kidney disease are most frequently encountered in heroin/opiate abusers?
1) Amyloidosis (secondary to skin infections) 2) Focal and segmental glomerulosclerosis
61
What kind of burns involve injury to the dermis?
Partial thickness burns (**2nd degree**)
62
What kind of burns extend to the subcutaneous tissue? Those that involve damage to the muscle tissue?
- Full-thickness (**3rd degree**) - Now called full-thickness, but damage to muscle beneath subcutaneous tissue were formerly called **4th degree** burns
63
Which type of burn is confined to the epidermis?
Superficial (**1st degree**)
64
What are the greatest threats to life in burn patients?
Shock, sepsis, and respiratory insufficiency
65
Shift of the body's fluid into the interstitial compartment, both at the burn site and systemically, following a severe burn, is due to? Leads to?
- Due to the ***Systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)*** - Leads to **shock**
66
An important pathophysiologic effect of burns is the development of what state?
**Hypermetabolic state** associated with **excess heat loss** and **increased** need for **nutritional support** **\***Estimated that when **\>40%** of body surface is burned the **RMR** may **double**
67
Burn sites are ideal growth enviornments for microorganisms and virtually all burns become colonized with bacteria. Which is the most common offender? Other strains?
- *Pseudomonas aeruginosa **=*** **most common** - *S. aureus* (methicillin-resistant) = **MRSA** - Fungi, particularly ***Candida*** species
68
What are the most common serious complications produced by direct bacteremic spread in burn victims?
**- Pneumonia** **- Septic shock** w/ **renal failure** and/or **acute respiratory distress syndrome**
69
Which gases are more likely to reach the deeper airways and produce pneumonitis?
**Lipid-soluble** gases, such as **NO** and **products of burning plastics**
70
What type of scarring is a common complication of burn injury? Marked by excessive?
- Hypertrophic scarring - Marked by excessive deposition of **collagen** in the healing wound bed
71
Morphologically how do full-thickness burns appear in comparison to partial-thickness burns?
**Full-thickness** = white or charred, dry, and painless (destruction of nerve endings) **Partial-thickness** = pink or mottled with **blisters** and painful
72
Histologically what is seen with devitalized tissue and the vital tissue surrounding burns? Quicky accumulates what?
**Coagulative necrosis**, adjacent to vital tissue that quickly accumulates **inflammatory cells** and marked **exudation**
73
In heat stroke, the hyperthermia is accompanied by?
Marked generalized **vasodilation**, with **peripheral pooling** of blood and **decreased effective circulating blood volume**
74
Sustained contractions of skeletal muscle can exacerbate hyperthermia in someone suffering a heat stroke, leading to muscle necrosis known as? Results from?
- Rhabdomyolysis - Nitrosylation of ryanodine receptor 1 (**RYR1**), located in SR of skeletal muscle - Heat stroke deranges RYR1 function and allows **calcium** to leak into the cytoplasm, stimulating **muscle contraction** and **heat production**
75
Inherited mutaitons in RYR1 occur in a condition called? Characterized by?
- Malignant hyperthermia - Characterized by a "heat-stroke-like" rise in core body temp and muscle contractures following **exposure** to **common anesthetics**
76
High humidity, wet clothing, and dilation of superficial blood vessels resulting from ingestion of alcohol all contribute to?
Lowering of body temperature ---\> Hypothermia
77
Hypothermia causes injury by 2 mechanisms, what are they?
**Direct** = physical disruption within cells by high salt concentrations caused by the crystallization of intra- and extracellular water **Indirect** = result from **circulatory** changes; vary depending on rate and duration of the temperature drop
78
Slow chilling (indirect mechanism) may have what physiologic effects?
May induce vaso**constriction** and **increase vascular permeability**, leading to **edema**, and **hypoxia** \*Typical of "trench foot" seen in soldiers during WWI, frequently causing **gangrene**
79
Sudden, persistent chilling (indirect mechanism) may have what physiologic effects? What type of injury can occur?
- Vaso**constriction** and **increased viscocity** of the blood in the local area mau cause **ischemic injury** and degenerative changes in **peripheral nerves** - Vascular injury and edema become evident only **after** the temp begins to normalize
80
Ionizing radiation such as that used in diagnostic imaging can produce what short- and long-term effects?
Fibrosis Mutagenesis Carcinogenesis Teratogenesis (malformation in a developing fetus)
81
Differentiate Curie (Ci) vs. Gray (Gy) vs. Sievert (Sv) units of radiation.
***Curie* (Ci) =** amount of radiation emitted by a source ***Gray* (Gy)** = energy absorbed by the target tissue per unit mass ***Sievert* (Sv)** = depends on the biologic rather than the physical effects of radiation
82
Which tissues are extremely vulnerable to radiation?
- Tissue with **high rate** of **cell division**: - Gonads - Bone marrow - Lymphoid tissue - Mucosa of GI tract
83
What is the major mechanism by which DNA is damaged by ionizing radiation?
Production of **ROS** from rxns with **free radicals** generated by **radiolysis** of **water**
84
What are the acute effects of marrow irradiation on peripheral blood counts of granulocytes, neutrophils, and platelets (i.e., neutropenia, anemia, thrombocytopenia)?
- **Neutropenia** appears within **several days**; often near zero by end of 2nd week - Recovery of normal **granulocyte** count may require **2-3 months** - **Thrombocytopenia** appears by **end of first week** - **Anemia** appears after 2-3 weeks and may persist for months
85
Very high doses of radiation kill marrow stem cells and induce?
Permanent aplasia (**aplastic anemia**) = failure of blood count recovery
86
What is the "bystander effect" produced by damaged cells from radiation?
- Abnormal cells are able to **alter** the **behavior** of **nonirradiated** surrounding **cells** through the production of **GFs** and **cytokines** - Referred to as **non-target effects of radiation**
87
What are common sites of fibrosis following radiation therapy?
- Lungs - Salivary glands - Colorectal - Pelvic areas
88
What is the main site of injury from 1-2 Sv ionizing radiation? 2-10 Sv? 10-20 Sv? \>50 Sv?
**1-2 Sv** = Lymphocytes **2-10 Sv** = Bone marrow **10-20 Sv** = Small bowel **\>50 Sv** = Brain
89
What is the most common repair pathway for double-stranded breaks of DNA caused by ionizing radiation? What common mutations result from this pathway?
- Nonhomologous end joining **(NHEJ)** - **Short deletions** or **duplications**, or gross chromosomal aberrations such as **translocations** and **inversions**
90
A BMI less than _____ kg/m2 is considered malnourished? A child whose weight falls less than \_\_\_\_\_\_% of normal is considered malnourished?
A BMI less than **16 kg/m2** is considered malnourished A child whose weight falls less than **80%** of normal is considered malnourished
91
Marasmus affects which protein compartment of the body? Which hormone is low and what does this trigger? What occurs to the extremities and head?
- Catabolism and depletion of the **somatic** protein compartment - Production of **leptin** is **low,** may stimulate H-P-A axis to produce **high levels** of **cortisol,** which contributes to lipolysis - Extremities are **emaciated**, by comparison the head appears too large for the body
92
Kwashiorkor occurs when? Depletion of which protein compartment? Levels of albumin?
- Occurs when protein deprivation is relatively more severe than the deficit in total calories - Marked protein deprivation of the **visceral compartment**, with resultant **hypoalbuminemia ---\> generalized** or **dependent edema**
93
Albumin levels in Marasmus and Kwashiorkor?
- In **Marasmus**, the albumin levels are **normal** - In **Kwashiorkor**, there is **hypoalbuminemia --\> generalized** or **dependent edema**
94
What are the characteristics of the skin and hair in children with Kwashiorkor?
- **Skin lesions**, with **alternating** zones of **hyperpigmentation**, areas of **desquamation**, and **hypopigmentation**, giving a **"flaky paint"** appearance - Hair changes include overall **loss of color** or **alternating bands** of pale and darker hair
95
What is the liver like in Kwashiorkor?
Enlarged, **fatty liver** from reduced synthesis of the carrier protein component of lipoproteins
96
What morphological changes occur to the small bowel of a child with Kwashiorkor? Most often manifested as?
- **Decrease** in the **mitotic index** in the **crypts** and **glands**, associated with mucosal atrophy and **loss of villi** and **microvilli** - **Loss** of small intestinal **enzymes**, most often manifested as **disaccharide deficiency** **\***Infants w/ Kwashiorkor initially may **not** respond well to **full-strength**, milk-based diets
97
Which mediators secreted by tumors and during chronic inflammatory reactions contribute to development of Cachexia?
- **Proteolysis-inducing factor:** glycosylated polypeptide excreted in urine of weight-losing patients w/ pancreatic, breast, colon, and other cancers **- Lipid-mobilizing factor**: increases fatty acid oxidation and proinflammatory cytokines, such as **TNF** and **IL-6**
98
Proteolysis-inducing factor and proinflammatory cytokines cause skeletal muscle breakdown in cachexia through what?
**NF-kB** induced activation of the **ubiquitin proteasome pathway**, promoting degradation of structural proteins such as **myosin heavy chain** by upregulating expression of several muscle-specific **ubiquitin ligases**
99
What clinical finding is so common in Anorexia that its presence is considered a diagnostic feature?
Amenorrhea
100
What are major complications that may result from Anorexia?
**Cardiac arrhythmia** and **sudden death,** resulting from hypokalemia
101
What are the 3 major medical complications associate with Bulimia?
1) **Electrolyte imbalance (hypokalemia)**, predisposing pt to cardiac arrhythmias 2) **Pulmonary aspiration** of gastric contents 3) **Esophageal** and **gastric rupture**
102
Which vitamins can be synthesized endogenously?
- **Vit D** from steroids - **Vit K** from biotin by intestinal microflora - **Niacin** from tryptophan
103
What are the 3 major functions of Vitamin A?
1) Maintenance of vision 2) Regulation of cell growth and differentiation 3) Regulation of lipid metabolism
104
Vitamin A supplmentation can reduce the morbidty and mortality from some forms of? Also in preschool children with what disease?
- Some forms of **diarrhea** - Improve clinical outcome of **measles**
105
Vitamin A used in the treatment of what disorders?
- **Severe acne** and some forms of **psoriasis** - Tx of **acute promyelocytic leukemia**
106
What are the most devastating consquences of Vitamin A deficiency?
- **Xerophthalamia (dry eye)** gives rise to epithelial **metaplasia** - Followed by **buildup of keratin** debris in small opaque plaques ***(******Bitot spots**)* - Progresses to erosion of the roughened corneal surface, softening and destruction of the cornea (***keratomalacia***) and **blindness**
107
Effect of Vitamin A deficiency on the immune system? Leads to?
**Immune deficiency**, responsible for higher mortality rates from common infections such as **measles, pneumonia,** and **infectious diarrhea**
108
Why should synthetic retinoids, such as those used to tx acne, be avoided in pregnant woman?
Well-established **teratogenic effects** of retinoids
109
Deformation of the chest results from overgrowth of cartilage or osteoid tissue at the costochondral junction, producing what characteristc morphology in Rickets?
Rachitic rosary
110
What skeletal deformities are commonly seen in Rickets?
- **Pectus carinatum** ("pigeon" brest deformity) - Excessive **Lumbar lordosis** - **Bowing** of the **legs**
111
Spinocerebellar degeneration is a deficiency syndrome of what vitamin?
Vitamin E
112
Cheilosis, stomatitis, glossitis, dermatitis, and corneal vascularization are all associated with what vitamin deficiency?
Riboflavin (vitamin B2)
113
Megaloblastic pernicious anemia and degeneration of posterolateral spinal cord tracts are a result of what vitamin deficiency?
Vitamin B12
114
What is the deficiency syndrome of Niacin? (The 3 D's)
- Pellagra - **D**ementia - **D**ermatitis - **D**iarrhea
115
Megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects are a result of what vitamin defect?
Folate
116
Cheilosis, glossitis, dermatitis, **peripheral neuropathy**, and dismaintenance of myelinization of spinal cord tracts is a result of what vitamin deficiency?
Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
117
A rash around the eyes, mouth, nose, and anus called acrodermatitis enteropathica results from a deficiency in what vitamin?
Zinc
118
Hypochromic microcytic anemia results from a deficiency in what vitamin?
Iron
119
Muscle weakness, neurologic defects, and **abnormal collagen crosslinking** due to a deficiency in what vitamin?
Copper
120
Myopathy and cardiomyopathy (Keshan disease) due to a deficiency in what vitamin?
Selenium
121
Vitamin C deficiency has what consequences?
- **Impaired collagen formation leads to:** - Impaired wound healing - Inadequate synthesis of osteoid - Mucosal bleeding (gums) and joints
122
Which immune cell can synthesize 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D? How?
- **Macrophages**, through the activity of **CYP27B** in the **mitochondria** - Pathogen-induced activation of **TLR** in macrophages causes increased expression of **vitamin D receptor** and **CYP27B,** leading to local synthesis and activation of vitamin-D-dependent gene expression
123
POMC/CART producing α-MSH that activates MC3/4R in second order neurons regulate what component of hunger and food intake?
Anorexigenic effect
124
NPY/AgRP activating Y1/5 receptors in second order neurons regulate what component of hunger and food intake?
Promote food intake (orexigenic effect)
125
Haploinsufficiency of brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF), an imoortant component of signaling downstream of MC4R in the hypothalamus is associated with obesity in patients with what syndrome?
**WAGR** syndrome (Wilms tumor, aniridia, genitourinary defects, mental retardation, and obesity) = **very rare**
126
What are levels of PYY like in Prader-Willi syndrome?
Decreased
127
What is 6 times more likely in obese people than lean people, especially women?
Cholelithiasis (gallstones)
128
In very obese individuals the constellation of respiratory abnormalities encompassing *Hypoventilation syndrome*, is known as?
Pickwickian syndrome
129
Obesity causes what kind of cancer in women? Due to what?
- Uterine and breast - Increased estrogen synthesis
130
*Aflatoxin* is involved in the development of what cancer in parts of Asia and Africa?
Hepatocellular carcinomas
131
What cancers are associated with nitrosamines and nitrosamides?
Gastric cancers
132
What is the single leading global cause of health loss (defined as morbidity and premature death)?
Undernutrition
133
Exposures of a fetus to high levels of mercury in utero may lead to what disease? Characterized by?
- Minamata disease - Cerebral palsy, deafness, blindness, and mental retardation
134
Naphthylamines, 4-aminobiphenyl, benzidine, and rubber products have all be implicated in the development of what cancer?
Bladder cancer
135
Silica, nickel, arsenic, chromium, mustard gas, and uranium have all be implicated in the devlopment of what cancer?
Lung cancer
136
Effectivness of all-trans-retinoic acid in the Tx of acute promyelocytic leukemia lies in its ability to bind what?
The **PML-RAR**α **fusion protein**