Chapter Five: Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards
(228 cards)
1
Q
What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:
Musculoskeletal
A
Function: supports shape and stature of body, allows and supports for movement
Involved Organs: bones, muscles, tendons, ligaments
2
Q
What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:
Nervous/Sensory
A
Function: translate input and make decisions
Involved Organs: brain, spinal cord, nerves, eyes, ears, nose, tongue, skin
3
Q
What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:
Circulatory/Cardiovascular
A
Function: transportation of oxygen, hormones, and nutrients
Involved Organs: blood vessels, capillaries, heart
4
Q
What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:
Endocrine
A
Function: turn functions and hormones on and off
Involved organs: glands (i.e pituitary, thymus, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas)
5
Q
What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:
Reproductive
A
Function: Continuation of species, human sexual function
Involved organs:
- female: ovaries, uterus, fallopian tubes, vagina
- male: testes, penis, prostate
6
Q
What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:
Digestive
A
Function: Intake and absorption of nutrients
Involved organs: mouth, teeth, esophagus, stomach, intestines, liver, gall bladder, pancreas
6
Q
What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:
Lymphatic
A
Function: protection and prevention of infection
Involved organs: lymph vessels, spleen, tonsils
6
Q
What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:
Integumentary
A
Function: protection of internal organs
Involved organs: skin, hair, nails
7
Q
What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:
Respiratory
A
Functions: Intake of oxygen and output of waste
Involved organs: mouth, nose, trachea, bronchi, lungs, alveoli
8
Q
What are the functions and the involved organs of the following system:
Excretory
A
Functions: output of waste
Involved organs: Kidney, ureter, urethra, bladder
9
Q
What are the functions and descriptions of the following type of tissue:
Epithelial
A
Functions: covers and lines
Description: found as skin, glands, and within the lining of organs
10
Q
What are the functions and descriptions of the following type of tissue:
Connective
A
Functions: joins together alike or different kinds of tissues
Description: Identified by type of matrix
- hard: found in bone
- liquid: found in blood
- fibrous: found in tendon
- soft: found in areolar tissue
11
Q
What are the functions and descriptions of the following type of tissue:
Muscle
A
Functions: contracts tissue
Description:
-cardiac: found in heart
-smooth: found in vessels and organs
-skeletal: found in voluntary muscles
12
Q
What are the functions and descriptions of the following type of tissue:
Nervous
A
Functions: carries electric potential
Description: neurons pick up potential and pass it on to subsequent neurons
13
Q
What are the seven warning signs of cancer that should alert a person to seek physician’s assessment?
A
- Lump or mass, especially one that is growing, hard and is not able to be moved
- Change in mole
- Chronic cough or hoarseness
- Persistent indigestion
- Unexplained bleeding
- Sore that does not heal
- Change in bowel or bladder habits
14
Q
What is the meaning of the term superior?
A
above
examples: the nose is superior to the chin
15
Q
What is the meaning of the term inferior?
A
below
examples: the lips are inferior to the nose
16
Q
What is the meaning of the term ventral/anterior?
A
belly side
examples: the breasts and knees are on the ventral/anterior side of the body
17
Q
What is the meaning of the term dorsal/posterior?
A
back side
examples: the buttocks and knuckles are on the dorsal/posterior side of the body
18
Q
What is the meaning of the term distal?
A
greatest distance away from a point of insertion
examples: a lesion by the wrist is distal to the shoulder
19
Q
What is the meaning of the term proximal?
A
closest to a point of insertion
examples: a lesion by the shoulder is proximal to the shoulder
20
Q
What is the meaning of the term lateral?
A
away from the midline of the body
examples: the ears are lateral to the nose
21
Q
What is the meaning of the term medial?
A
toward the midline of the body
examples: the nose is medial to the ears
22
Q
What are the three planes of the body?
A
- sagittal, splits the body in right and left sections
- frontal or coronal, splits the body in front and back sections
- transverse, spilts the body in upper and lower sections
23
What are the functions of the integumentary system?
- provision of a protective barrier from foreign invaders
- regulations of body temperature
- reception of information through pressure receptors
- linings for body cavities and organs
24
What does the following color of skin indicate:
Blue
Cyanosis
lack of oxygen or profusion of the cells
25
What does the following color of skin indicate:
Red
erythema
fever, blush, burn, or infection
26
What does the following color of skin indicate:
White
pale
anemia
27
What does the following color of skin indicate:
Orange
cirrhosis
liver or pancreatic cancer
28
What does the following color of skin indicate:
Gray
Ashen
serious illness, death
29
What does the following color of skin indicate:
Brown-orange
bronze
adrenal problems
30
What does the following color of skin indicate:
purple
ecchymosis
bruising or deep tissue injury
31
What does the following color of skin indicate:
yellow
jaundice
bile problems involving liver, gallbladder, or pancreas
32
What is a papule?
a small elevation of the skin. example: wart
33
What is a macule?
a flat portion of the skin. example: freckle
34
What is a vesicle?
a papule with clear fluid in the skin. example: blister, chicken pox
35
What is a pustule?
a papule with pus. example: pimple, boil
36
What is a nevus?
a brown elevation of the skin. example: mole
37
What is a nodule?
a lump under the skin. example: sebaceous cyst
38
What is a decubitus?
an ulceration of the skin. example: pressure sore
39
What is an avulsion?
tissue torn out of the skin. example: dog bite, trauma to the skin
40
What is an excoriation?
tissue rubbed off of the skin. example: scrape or rubbing of two skin surfaces
41
What is a laceration?
a cut to the skin with clean edges. example: knife cut
42
What is a fissure?
a tear to the skin by use at a site of pressure. example: rectal fissure
43
What is a tear?
ragged edges. example: skin shearing from friction
44
What is a puncture?
small surface area but a deep wound. example: stab wound
45
What is dermatitis?
inflamed, dry, irritated skin
46
What is eczema?
erythema, scaling, and itching due to allergic reaction
47
What is psoriasis?
overgrowth of epidermis resulting in silvery scales
48
What is a verruca (wart)?
a benign, fleshy tumor caused by a virus
49
What is herpes simplex?
a viral lesion with water vesicles; type 1: nose and mouth, type 2: genitalia
50
What is Tinea Pedis?
Athletes foot
fungus that flourishes in warm, moist, dark places; causes scaling, itching, and burning to feet and between toes
51
What is a Tinea Crurtitis?
Jock Itch
fungus that flourishes in groin and other skin folds; causes burning and redness
52
What is Tinea Corporis?
Ring worm
red lesions in a circular pattern blanched in the center caused by fungus, not an actual worm
53
What is impetigo?
golden crusts on oozing lesions, bacterial, spread through direct contact or with personal items like towels or bed clothing
54
What is a furuncle?
boil
A staph infection in hairy area of body such as groin, neck, or armpit; common in diabetics or those w/ impaired immunity; needs systemic antibiotic. A group is called a carbuncle
55
What is a basal cell carncinoma?
Shiny pearl-like lesion due to overexposure to sun
56
What is a squamous cell carcinoma?
reddened patch of skin that will not heal due to overexposure to sun
57
What is melanoma?
a large, asymmetrical, dark, malignant mole that swiftly spreads through body and can be terminal
58
What characterizes a 1st degree burn?
redness
59
What characterizes a 2nd degree burn?
blisters and redness
60
What characterizes a 3rd degree burn?
full thickness damage through skin into nerves and muscles
61
What characterizes an open/compound break?
breaks through the skin, will be high risk for osteomyelitis (a severe bone infection)
62
What characterizes a closed/simple break?
the bone is broken but does not break the skin
63
What characterizes a greenstick fracture?
splinters, bends, or cracks
63
What characterizes an impacted/compacted fracture?
One piece of bone jammed into another
64
What characterizes a spiral fracture?
bone twisted into multiple pieces
65
What characterizes a comminuted fracture?
Bone breaks into multiple pieces
66
What characterizes a pathological fracture?
break caused by disease process
67
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
osteoporosis
Decreased bone mass that often occurs in middle-aged women.
Treated by hormone replacement therapy, increased calcium, weight-bearing exercise, weight loss
68
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
scoliosis
deviation of the spine to the side.
Treated by a brace, physical therapy or surgery in extreme cases
69
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
Lordosis
Excessive curvature of the lumbar spine (swayback)
Treated by surgery or physical therapy
70
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
Kyphosis
Excessive curvature of the thoracic spine (hunchback)
Treated by bracing and physical therapy
71
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
Osteoarthritis
wear and tear on joints causing pain, stiffness, and swelling
Medical treatment includes anti-inflammatory drugs, assistive devices, exercise, and joint replacement
72
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
Rheumatoid Arthritis
stiffness, swelling, and pain in joints due to autoimmune disorder
Treatment includes medication and drug therapy, acupuncture
73
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
Bursitis
Swelling of the fluid sac that cushions a joint
Treatment includes avoiding pressure on joint, medication, and possible surgical aspiration
74
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
Gout
collect of uric acid crystals in joint causing pain and swelling
treatment includes low purine diet, Allopurinol, black cherry juice can help prevent recurrence and severity
75
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
Muscular dystrophy
hereditary; poorly developed muscles
treated with physical therapy and braces
76
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
Torticollis
wry neck; spasm of the sternocleidomastoid muscle
treated by heat, antispasmodic drugs, physical therapy
77
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
Atrophy
wasting of muscle
treated by exercise and range of motion exercises
78
Describe the following musculoskeletal disease and possible treatment:
Cleft palate
congenital deformity in roof of mouth due to failure of maxillary bones to fuse
treated my surgery
79
What special functions does the frontal lobe of the brain control?
memory, emotions, impulse control, problem solving, social interaction, motor function, and personality
80
What special functions does the parietal lobe of the brain control?
receiving and processing sensory input such as touch, pressure, heat, cold, and pain. Math and logic. Involved in the perception of body awareness and the construction of a spatial coordinate system to represent the world around us.
81
What special functions does the temporal lobe of the brain control?
helps you use your senses to understand and respond to the world around you. Key role in communication, access to memories, processing spoken word, use language and process emotions.
82
What special functions does the occipital lobe of the brain control?
visuospatial processing, distance and depth perception, color determination, object and face recognition, and memory formation.
83
What are the two divisions of the nervous system?
- Peripheral nervous system
- Central nervous system
84
What is the peripheral nervous system made of?
Nerves and neurons
85
What is the central nervous system made of?
Spinal cord and brain
86
What tissue connects the two hemispheres of the brain?
The Corpus Callosum
87
What are the four main parts of the brain?
cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, and diencephalon
88
What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:
Meningitis
Inflammation of the meninges, which are the membranes that are covering the brain and spinal cord
Symptoms: nuchal rigidity, fever, headache, vomiting
89
What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:
Hemiplegia
Paralysis of one side of the body that typically as a result of a stroke
Symptoms: paralysis on one side of the body
90
What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:
Paraplegia
Paralysis as a result of severing spinal cord in lower back or sacrum
Symptoms: Inability to move legs, may have bowel and bladder dysfunction
91
What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:
Quadriplegia
Paralysis as a result of severing of spinal cord in the upper thoracic or cervical area
Symptoms: inability to move arms and legs, may have respiratory dysfunction
92
What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:
Encephalitis
Inflammation of the brain caused by virus, bacteria, or toxin
Symptoms: Headache, fever, confusion
93
What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:
Cerebrovascular accident (stroke)
Blockage of a vessel or bleeding into brain prevents oxygen from getting to brain tissue
Symptoms: malfunction in the portion of the brain that is deprived of circulation
94
What is a description and symptoms of the following nervous system disease:
Herniated disc
Protrusion of nucleus pulposis against spinal cord
Symptoms: nerve pain that can radiate down lower extremities
95
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
deterioration of motor neurons
96
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
Poliomyelitis
viral infection that leads to weakened muscles
97
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
Transient ischemic attack
brief interludes of confusion that often precede CVA (stroke)
98
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
Hydrocephalus
enlargement of head due to accumulated fluid in ventricles of brain
99
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
expressive aphasia
inability to form words and verbally communicate
100
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
receptive aphasia
inability to understand what is being said and process communication
101
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
Epilepsy
abnormal electrical activity of brain
102
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
cerebral palsy
damage to brain that causes motor or balance problems
103
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
intracerebral hematoma
accumulation of blood within the brain tissue due to trauma to head or spontaneous rupture of blood vessel
104
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
subdural hematoma
accumulation of blood due to tear in meningeal layer
105
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
concussion
Headache, vomiting, damage to brain tissue due to closed head trauma
106
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
Alzheimer's Disease
Progressive degeneration thought to be due to plaque and tangles of brain tissue leading to regression of ability to think
107
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
Parkinson's Disease
progressive neurological disease with resulting tremors, shuffling gait, and rigidity
108
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
Multi-infarct dementia
brain damage from chronic ischemia
109
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
Bell's Palsy
temporary facial paralysis caused by virus damaging the VII cranial nerve (facial)
110
What is a description of the following nervous system disease:
Trigeminal neuralgia
Severe spasm of V cranial nerve (trigeminal)
111
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
I
olfactory; carries impulses for smell
112
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
II
optic; carries impulses for sight
113
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
III
oculomotor; controls eye movement
114
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
IV
trochlear; controls eye movement
115
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
V
trigeminal; carries sensation from eye, upper and lower law, movement of jaw
116
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
VI
Abducens; controls facial expression, controls salivary and tear glands, carries taste
117
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
VII
facial; carries taste, controls facial expression
118
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
VIII
vestibulocochlear; carries hearing and controls equilibrium
119
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
IX
glossopharyngeal; carries taste, controls swallowing and gag
120
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
X
Vagus; controls voice box, throat, and digestive juices, longest nerve which expands all the way through the abdominal cavity
121
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
XI
spinal accessory; controls muscles in neck and larnyx
122
What is the name of the following cranial nerve and its function:
XII
hypoglossal; controls muscles of tongue
123
What does PERRLA test for?
pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation
eyes are examined as a manner of assessing the nervous system. PERRLA is a notation made to signify that pupils are equal in size, round, and either eye responds to a light being shined in it by contracting and the other pupil responds likewise.
124
What is Myopia?
nearsightedness; cannot see objects in the distance
125
What is Hyperopia?
farsightedness; cannot see up close
126
What is Presbysopia?
"old eye"; lens loses elasticity
126
What is an Astigmatism?
irregular curvature of lens which causes effect on vision, especially lights at night
126
What are cataracts?
cloudy lenses
127
What is Conjunctivitis?
"pink eye"; redness and itching of conjunctiva
128
What is Glaucoma?
accumulation of fluid pressure and poor drainage of aqueous humor
129
What is macular degeneration?
Abnormal blood vessel growth causing loss of central vision
130
What is Strabismus?
"crossed eyes"; unable to focus independently of one another
131
What is Nystagmus?
Repetitive and involuntary movement of eye
132
What is Blepharitis?
infection of the eyelid and eyelash
133
What is Diplopia?
double vision
134
What is Ambylopia?
Lazy eye causing other eye to lose some portions of vision
135
What is Chalazion?
small, painless, localized swelling of eyelid
136
What is Hordeolum?
purulent staph infection of hair follicle of eyelid
137
138
What is Keratitis?
inflammation of the cornea
138
What is enucleation?
surgical removal of the eye
139
What is Nyctalopia?
inability to see at night
140
What is Pterygium?
Triangular thickening of conjunctiva
141
What is Otitis Media?
middle ear infection, usually caused by URI
142
What is Otitis Externa?
outer ear infection, "swimmer's ear" caused by exposure to pathogens
143
What is impacted cerumen?
buildup of earwax until auditory canal is occluded
144
What is otosclerosis?
buildup of spongy bone and stiffening of stapes within the ear
145
What is Presbycusis?
Decrease in hearing receptors due to aging or abuse
146
What is Meniere's?
vertigo, dizziness and hearing loss related to inner ear
147
What is tinnitus?
buzzing or ringing in ear/ears
148
What is olfactory stimulation?
the sense of smell
149
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Myocardial Infraction
Heart Attack
Ischemia (lack of blood) to area of heart that causes tissue death
Treatment varies per patient but includes bypass graft around blockage or angioplasty with stent to keep coronary arteries open
150
151
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Coronary Artery Disease
Multiple areas with start of vessel disease (narrowing and strictures)
Chest pain, palpitations, indigestion, irregular heart rhythms, edema to hands and feet, shortness of breath
Treatment includes stopping smoking, increasing exercise, low-fat and high-fiber diet
152
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Angina
Ischemia during stress or exercise, unstable angina during rest
Chest pain that can radiate to back and shoulders, shortness of breath, weakness, fatigue
Treatment includes nitroglycerin, stop activity that induces angina, stop smoking
153
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Arrhythmia
irregular heartbeat
Treatment includes medication, surgery, pacemaker, cardioversion
154
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Hypercholesterolemia
Total cholesterol greater than 200 mg
Treatment includes change in diet and lifestyle and possible medication
155
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Hypertension
Blood pressure elevated greater than 140/90
Treatment includes DASH diet, exercise, medication, weight loss, stress reduction and management
156
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Peripheral vascular disease
Narrowing or occlusion of vessels in legs and feet
Treatment includes bypass graft or medication
157
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Thrombus
Blood clot
Treatment includes preventing clot from moving until dissolved, medication
158
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Thrombophlebitis
Blood clot and inflammation of veins
Treatment includes heparin, antibiotics, blood thinners, exercise, avoid immobility or constriction of veins
159
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Arteriosclerosis
Calcium and fibrous deposits inside vessels
Treatment includes Aspirin or blood thinners, possible surgery
160
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Atherosclerosis
fatty deposits inside vessels
Treatment includes change to low-fat, high-fiber diet, and an increase in exercise
161
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Murmurs
valvular disorder
Extra or unusual sounds made by circulating through the heart's chambers or valves
Treated by medication, or valve replacement surgery in severe cases
162
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Congestive heart failure
Weak ventricle (either side); allows blood to back up; left side=SOB, frothy sputum, coughing; Right side= edema and cyanosis
Treated with medication (Lasix and Lanoxin)
163
What is a description, symptoms, and treatment of the following cardiovascular disease:
Aneurysm
bulging weak spot in vessel
Treatment includes a surgical graft inserted into area and sutured above and below weak point
164
What are the percentages of the blood and components?
Blood= 55% plasma, 45% formed elements
Plasma= 90% water, proteins, and nutrients
165
What characteristics does Type A blood have?
A antigens on the RBC and anti-B antibodies in plasma
166
What characteristics does Type B blood have?
B antigens on the RBC and anti-A antibodies in plasma
167
What characteristics does Type AB blood have?
A and B antigens one the RBC and no antibodies in plasma
168
What characteristics does Type O blood have?
no antigens on the RBC and both A and B antibodies in plasma
169
What is the universal recipent?
Type AB blood
170
What is the universal donor?
Type O blood
171
What is the primary function of the lymphatic system?
to protect the body from foreign invaders.
172
What are the four accessory organs of the lymphatic system?
- lymph nodes
- tonsils
- thymus
- spleen
173
Where are the two main lymph nodes located?
- Under the armpits
- Inguinal area
174
What are the three sets of tonsils?
- palatine tonsils
- nasopharyngeal tonsils (adenoids)
- lingual tonsils
175
True or False: the thymus is the source of immunity the first two years of life and shrinks as we get older
true
176
Where is the thymus located?
Underneath the sternum
177
What is the function of the spleen?
filter out bacteria from blood, destroy old RBC's, stores iron, provides a reservoir of blood for an emergency, and produces phagocytes to fight foreign invaders.
178
In what diseases does splenomegaly (enlargement of the spleen) occur?
- syphilis
- scarlet fever
- typhoid fever
- typhus fever
179
What is sinusitis?
Infection of the epithelial tissue of sinus acitivities
180
What is epistaxis?
Nose bleed
181
What is Coryza?
nasal discharge, rhinorrhea
182
What is Influenza?
Inflammation of trachea, aches, pains, coughing, fever
183
What is pneumonia?
air spaces filled with fluid due to viral, bacterial, chemical, or aspiration irritation
184
What is tuberculosis?
caused by mycobacterium bacilli, night sweats, cough with bloody sputum
185
What is Atelectasis?
Incomplete expansion of lung due to injury, mucous plug, cancer, or foreign body
186
What is Asthma?
Spasm of bronchus and bronchioles due to allergy
187
What is hayfever?
Watery eyes, sneezing, runny nose
188
What is an URI?
Upper Respiratory Infection
Viral or bacterial infection of eyes, ears, nose, and throat; coughing, sneezing, or sore throat
189
What is pneumothorax?
collapse of either lung due to nonpatent lung (bleb) or trauma
190
What is hemothorax?
collapse of lung due to pressure from bleeding or trauma
191
192
Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:
Anterior Pituitary Gland
Base of the brain
- Growth Hormone (GH): stimulates growth of long bones
- Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH): stimulates growth of egg in ovary or sperm in testes
- Melanocyte Stimulating Hormone (MSH): Regulates skin pigment
- Leutinizing Hormone (LH): stimulates ovulation
- Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH): stimulates thyroid to produce thyroxine
- Prolactin: stimulates production of breastmilk
193
Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:
Posterior Pituitary Gland
Base of brain
- Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH): facilitates reabsorption of water in nephron of kidney
-Oxytocin: stimulates milk ejection and uterine contraction
194
Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:
Pineal Gland
Center of brain
- Melatonin: controls sleep/wake cycles
195
Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:
Thymus Gland
Behind Sternum
- Thymosine: Facilitates immunity by stimulating the growth of T-cells
196
Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:
Thyroid Gland
Neck
- Thyroxine: stimulates metabolism
197
Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:
Pancreas
Abdomen
- Insulin: Assists sugar to go from bloodstream into tissue
198
Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:
Adrenal Glands
Top of Kidney
- Aldosterone: regulates sodium and potassium
- Cortisol: regulates fat metabolism and blood pressure
199
Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:
Ovaries/Testes
Lower abdomen/scrotum
- Estrogen/ Testosterone: Facilitates secondary sex characteristics
200
Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:
Kidney
Lower Back
- Erythropoietin: Monitors blood for oxygen level
201
Name the location, hormone produced, and its purpose for the following gland:
Parathyroid Glands
Imbedded in Thyroid
- Parathyroid Hormone (PTH): Facilitates calcium into bloodstream
202
What enzyme breaks down food in the mouth and starts chemical digestion?
Amylase
203
How many permanent teeth are in full grown, healthy adults?
32
204
By what action does food move through the digestive system?
Peristalsis
205
What enzyme breaks down connective tissue in food in the stomach?
Pepsin
206
What do gastric glands in the stomach secrete?
hydrochloric acid
207
What are the functions of the liver?
- production of bile
- storage of glycogen
- formation of blood plasma proteins
- formation of urea from the metabolism of proteins
- modification of fats to promote their usefulness on the body
- detoxification of harmful substances such as alcohol and certain drugs
- storage of some vitamins and iron
208
What is the primary function of the large intestine?
reabsorbs water and nutrients and stores and compacts waste
209
What is Cirrhosis of the liver?
chronic scarring of the liver
210
What are hemorrhoids?
engorged and enlarged rectal veins due to increased intra abdominal pressure
211
What is constipation?
Hard, dry stools that are difficult to pass
212
What is a peptic ulcer?
erosion of the mucous membrane of the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum due to smoking, NSAIDs, alcohol, aspirin, or helicobacter pylori
213
What is Irritable Bowel Syndrome?
bowel is overly sensitive to stress, pain, diarrhea, weight loss and rectal bleeding
214
What is Leukoplakia?
thickened white patches of the mouth
215
What is cholelithiasis?
stones formed from the substances in bile that have potential to block common bile duct and cause pain (
216
What is Hepatitis A, B, C?
inflammation of the liver that may be life threatening
Hepatitis A is caused by fecal-food contamination
Hepatitis B and C are caused by blood and body secretions
217
What is pyloric stenosis?
hardened, narrow lumen of the pyloric sphincter prohibits food from entering small intestine; symptoms included projectile vomiting, poor feedings, and weight loss
218
What is gingivitis?
inflamed, bleeding pink tissue around teeth
219
What are the functions of the Urinary System?
- eliminates metabolic waste from the body
- maintains appropriate levels of water
- regulates the acid-base balance (pH)
- regulates blood pressure
- regulates red blood cell production
220
What are the four main organs of the Urinary system?
kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder, and the urethra
221
What is the term for the beginning of menstruation? What is the average age?
menarche; 12
222
What is the term for the cessation of menstruation?
Menopause
