Chapter Questions (module 9-11&14)

Question 1

The perineum (perineal area) is cleaned with a special cleansing wipe before collecting a:
A) 24-hour urine specimen
B) Clean catch urine specimen
C) Random urine specimen
D) Stool specimen

Answer 1

B) Clean catch urine specimen

Question 2

The most comfortable position for using a bedpan is:
A) Fowler’s position
B) Sims’ position
C) Prone position
D) Supine position

Answer 2

A) Fowler’s position

Question 3

How far is an enema tube inserted into the rectum in an adult?
A) 3 to 4 inches
B) 5 to 6 inches
C) 7 to 8 inches
D) 12 to 16 inches

Answer 3

A) 3 to 4 inches

Question 4

One of your residents needs to have an enema administered. How should you position the resident in preparation for the enema?
A) Left Sims’ position
B) Fowler’s position
C) Supine position
D) Right Sims’ position

Answer 4

A) Left Sims’ position

Question 5

In a person with an indwelling urinary catheter, why must the urine drainage bag be kept lower than the person’s bladder?
A) Keeping the drainage bag below bladder level will prevent a bedridden person from seeing the bag, which they may find embarrassing
B) Keeping the drainage bag below bladder level will keep the person comfortable in bed
C) Keeping the drainage bag below bladder level will prevent urine from returning to the bladder, where it could cause infection
D) Keeping the drainage bag below bladder level will prevent the urine from leaking out

Answer 5

C) Keeping the drainage bag below bladder level will prevent urine from returning to the bladder, where it could cause infection

Question 6

Which one of the following describes normal urine?
A) Cloudy with a strong odor
B) Well-formed
C) Red-tinged
D) Clear, light yellow, or golden with a slight odor

Answer 6

D) Clear, light yellow, or golden with a slight odor

Question 7

A healthy person’s feces will be:
A) Black and tarry
B) Soft, brown, formed, and moist with a distinct odor
C) Hard and pellet-like
D) Long and stringy

Answer 7

B) Soft, brown, formed, and moist with a distinct odor

Question 8

To help your residents or patients to maintain healthy bowel function, it is important to:
A) Answer call lights promptly
B) Encourage them to eat a well-balanced diet and drink plenty of fluids
C) Assist them with exercise
D) All of the above

Answer 8

D) All of the above

Question 9

When caring for a person who is incontinent of urine or feces, it is important to:
A) Provide good perineal care
B) Let the person know that their behavior is inappropriate, so it will stop
C) Take the person to the bathroom once daily
D) Restrict fluids to reduce the chance of an accident

Answer 9

A) Provide good perineal care

Question 10

When caring for a person with an indwelling catheter, always remember to:
A) Leave the drainage bag above the level of the bladder, while the person is in bed
B) Tape any leaks at the connection site
C) Wear gloves when providing daily catheter care
D) Tape the drainage tube under the leg

Answer 10

C) Wear gloves when providing daily catheter care

Question 11

Mr. Pak has an ileostomy and you assist him with stoma care. What would you expect his feces to be like?
A) Very liquid, continuously flowing
B) Hard, dry pellets
C) Soft, brown, moist, and formed
D) Firm

Answer 11

A) Very liquid, continuously flowing

Question 12

What is the artificial opening for a colostomy called?
A) Rectum
B) Stoma
C) Anus
D) Diverticulum

Answer 12

B) Stoma

Question 13

A stethoscope is used to determine the:
A) Brachial pulse rate
B) Carotid pulse rate
C) Apical pulse rate
D) Popliteal pulse rate

Answer 13

C) Apical pulse rate

Question 14

Which one of the following is the pressure exerted by the blood flowing through the arteries when the heart muscle relaxes?
A) Diastolic pressure
B) Pulse pressure
C) Pulse deficit
D) Systolic pressure

Answer 14

A) Diastolic pressure

Question 15

The most common site for counting the pulse is the:
A) Brachial artery
B) Radial artery
C) Carotid artery
D) Apex of the heart

Answer 15

B) Radial artery

Question 16

When counting respirations, you should:
A) Have the person exercise first to get a true reading
B) Count five respirations and then check your watch
C) Count respirations for a full minute if they are irregular
D) Have the person count respirations while you take their pulse

Answer 16

C) Count respirations for a full minute if they are irregular

Question 17

You are using a glass Fahrenheit thermometer. When you shake it down, the liquid indicator should be below the:
A) 98.6°F mark
B) Arrow
C) 100°F mark
D) 94°F mark

Answer 17

D) 94°F mark

Question 18

Which of the following can cause an inaccurate oral temperature reading?
A) The person exercised vigorously 15 minutes prior to having their temperature taken
B) The nursing assistant failed to shake down the mercury thermometer
C) The person drank a cup of hot coffee 15 minutes prior to having their temperature taken
D) All of the above

Answer 18

D) All of the above

Question 19

One of your patients, Ms. Jones, has a temperature of 98.8°F, a pulse rate of 80 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. Which finding should be reported to the nurse immediately?
A) Ms. Jones’ respiratory rate
B) Ms. Jones’ pulse rate
C) Ms. Jones’ temperature
D) None of these findings needs to be reported to the nurse

Answer 19

A) Ms. Jones’ respiratory rate

Question 20

Which one of the following could cause a decreased pulse rate?
A) Pain
B) Anger
C) Certain medications
D) Fever

Answer 20

C) Certain medications

Question 21

What should you observe when taking a person’s pulse?
A) The rhythm and regularity of the pulse
B) The number of beats per minute
C) The strength of the pulse
D) All of the above

Answer 21

D) All of the above

Question 22

If you notice a significant change in a person’s vital signs, what should you do?
A) Record the change with a special notation to indicate that the reading was different
B) Mention the change to the nurse at the end of your shift
C) Tell the patient or resident about the change
D) Report the change to a nurse immediately

Answer 22

D) Report the change to a nurse immediately

Question 23

Which instrument is used to measure blood pressure?
A) A temporal artery thermometer
B) A sphygmomanometer
C) An upright scale
D) A watch with a second hand

Answer 23

B) A sphygmomanometer

Question 24

Which one of the following conditions would prevent you from taking an oral temperature?
A) The person has diarrhea
B) The person has just had a mastectomy
C) The person is unconscious
D) The person is a 10-year-old child

Answer 24

C) The person is unconscious

Question 25

When assisting a person with eating, one of the first things you should do is: A) Provide the person with privacy B) Butter the person’s bread C) Wash your hands and the person’s hands D) Cut the food into large pieces

Answer 25

C) Wash your hands and the person’s hands

Question 26

Mrs. Wellington is blind. Which one of the following should she have during meal time? A) A soft diet B) Help identifying the location of the food on the plate C) A large spoon D) A cup holder

Answer 26

B) Help identifying the location of the food on the plate

Question 27

Mr. Zakos is 98 years old and has no food restrictions on his diet. However, he is missing several teeth. Which one of the following menus would be the best choice for Mr. Zakos? A) Spare ribs, macaroni and cheese, coleslaw, and fruit cocktail B) Hamburger, french fries, corn on the cob, and ice cream C) Baked fish, mashed potatoes, spinach soufflé, and tapioca D) Fried chicken, baked potato, green beans, and chocolate chip cookies

Answer 27

C) Baked fish, mashed potatoes, spinach soufflé, and tapioca

Question 28

Which one of the following lists only items that would be included in fluid intake? A) Orange juice, soft boiled egg, toast B) Milk, soup, gelatin C) Water, mashed potatoes, egg custard D) Milk, ham sandwich, ice cream bar

Answer 28

B) Milk, soup, gelatin

Question 29

Miss Lee drank one third of an 8-oz glass of iced tea. How many milliliters of fluid did Miss Lee drink? A) 60 mL B) 80 mL C) 100 mL D) 240 mL

Answer 29

B) 80 mL

Question 30

Which one of the following lists foods that are good sources of protein? A) Steak, chicken, fish B) Spinach, carrots, beets C) Bread, cereal, rice D) Apples, oranges, bananas

Answer 30

A) Steak, chicken, fish

Question 31

Which one of the following nutrients accounts for 50% to 60% of our total body weight? A) Vitamin A B) Glucose C) Water D) Calcium

Answer 31

C) Water

Question 32

At the beginning of your shift, you give Mr. Gibson a water pitcher containing 270 mL of water. At the end of your shift, you note that 35 mL of water are left in the pitcher. How much water did Mr. Gibson drink? A) 35 mL B) 175 mL C) 235 mL D) 140 mL

Answer 32

C) 235 mL

Question 33

Which of the following lists foods that are good sources of carbohydrates? A) Liver, fish, chicken B) Cereal, fruit, bread C) Milk, beans, cheese D) Water, soda, butter

Answer 33

B) Cereal, fruit, bread

Question 34

Which one of the following can be harmful if too much is consumed? A) Folic acid B) Water-soluble vitamins (for example, vitamins C and B12) C) Fat-soluble vitamins (for example, vitamins A, D, E, and K) D) None of the above

Answer 34

C) Fat-soluble vitamins (for example, vitamins A, D, E, and K)

Question 35

Which health care professional is specially trained to plan for the patient’s or resident’s nutritional needs and teach about good nutrition? A) The nurse B) The dietitian C) The nursing assistant D) The doctor

Answer 35

B) The dietitian

Question 36

Which one of the following can affect a person’s food likes and dislikes? A) The person’s religious beliefs B) The person’s culture C) Where the person lives D) All of the above

Answer 36

D) All of the above

Question 37

Hot foods must be kept at or above what temperature to avoid pathogen growth? A) 100°F B) 100°C C) 40°C D) 140°F

Answer 37

D) 140°F

Question 38

The process that helps a person with a disability to return to their highest level of physical function and emotional well-being is called: A) Homeostasis B) Restoration C) Prosthetics D) Rehabilitation

Answer 38

D) Rehabilitation

Question 39

Which of the following is a nursing assistant’s responsibility that is related to the rehabilitation and restorative care effort? A) Encouraging the resident to use a trapeze to reposition themselves in bed, if this is part of the resident’s care plan B) Taking the resident to the toilet every hour as part of normal care C) Teaching the resident techniques used for swallowing, such as the “chin tuck” D) All of the above

Answer 39

A) Encouraging the resident to use a trapeze to reposition themselves in bed, if this is part of the resident’s care plan

Question 40

Someone who is frail is: A) Injured B) Old C) Feeble or weak D) Confused

Answer 40

C) Feeble or weak

Question 41

A person who is having difficulty with balance when walking can benefit from which of the following? A) Emotional rehabilitation B) Occupational rehabilitation C) Physical rehabilitation D) Speech–language pathology

Answer 41

C) Physical rehabilitation

Question 42

Mr. Dirkens has a history of stroke. He sometimes has difficulty keeping food in his mouth when chewing because he cannot close his lips all the way on the right side of his face. Which of the following might be of benefit to Mr. Dirkens? A) A visit to the dentist B) Speech–language pathology C) Occupational therapy D) Physical therapy

Answer 42

B) Speech–language pathology

Question 43

Mrs. Chao always liked to play cards. She is frustrated now because she is having difficulty holding her hand of cards. Which of the following statements is true? A) Occupational therapy could help Mrs. Chao regain her ability to play cards. B) Physical therapy could help Mrs. Chao regain fine motor control in her fingers. C) A restorative care program should be initiated to improve Mrs. Chao’s card game. D) Mrs. Chao will need to find another pastime to enjoy because playing cards will not be possible for her anymore.

Answer 43

A) Occupational therapy could help Mrs. Chao regain her ability to play cards.

Question 44

The rehabilitation process starts as soon as: A) The person’s insurance approves of it B) The person is able to walk C) The person is medically stable D) The person is emotionally stable

Answer 44

C) The person is medically stable

Question 45

The second phase of the rehabilitation process is called the: A) Chronic phase B) Subacute phase C) Active phase D) Acute phase

Answer 45

B) Subacute phase

Question 46

Devices used to stabilize a weak joint or limb, such as splints and braces, are known as: A) Prosthetic devices B) Assistive devices C) ADL devices D) Supportive devices

Answer 46

D) Supportive devices

Question 47

One of your patients is being transferred to another unit in the hospital. What would you pack for them to take along? A) The bed linens B) Their medical record C) Their personal belongings D) All of the above

Answer 47

C) Their personal belongings

Question 48

One of your patients, Mrs. Sarandis, mentions to you that she is leaving the hospital, and her son is coming to pick her up. Before Mrs. Sarandis can be permitted to leave the premises, she must have: A) A nurse’s order for discharge B) A doctor’s order for discharge C) An admissions sheet on record D) A completed resident inventory sheet

Answer 48

B) A doctor’s order for discharge

Question 49

As a nursing assistant, one of your tasks during the admission process will be to: A) Take and record the new patient’s or resident’s vital signs B) Assess the new patient’s or resident’s medical condition C) Hurry the new patient or resident through the admissions process to keep things running smoothly D) Reassure the new patient or resident by telling them that everything will be fine

Answer 49

A) Take and record the new patient’s or resident’s vital signs

Question 50

Who writes the orders on admission for a person’s diet, medications, level of activity, and type of room? A) The admissions clerk B) The patient or resident, or one of their family members C) The Director of Nursing D) The person’s doctor

Answer 50

D) The person’s doctor

Question 51

Discharge planning begins: A) A couple of days before the patient or resident is scheduled to be discharged B) When the patient or resident is admitted to the health care facility C) The day the patient or resident is scheduled to be discharged D) Before the patient or resident is admitted to the health care facility

Answer 51

B) When the patient or resident is admitted to the health care facility

Question 52

The ultimate goal of discharge planning is to: A) Make sure that the room is clean and ready for the next patient or resident B) Close out the nursing care plan C) Help the person who is being discharged achieve their best level of health D) Make sure that all of the patient’s or resident’s belongings are accounted for

Answer 52

C) Help the person who is being discharged achieve their best level of health

Question 53

Who is responsible for carrying out the actions prescribed by the discharge plan (for example, teaching a patient’s family member how to change a dressing)? A) The doctor B) The hospital social worker C) The nurse D) The nursing assistant

Answer 53

C) The nurse

Question 54

Mr. Singer, one of your patients, tells you that he hates the food at the hospital and feels that being hospitalized is actually doing him more harm than good. He says that he has called his wife, and she is coming that afternoon to take him home. As far as you know, Mr. Singer’s discharge has not been ordered. What should you do? A) Apply a restraint B) Help Mr. Singer pack; it is his right to leave if he wants to C) Tell the nurse immediately D) Remind Mr. Singer’s roommate that the door to the room must be kept shut and locked at all times

Answer 54

C) Tell the nurse immediately

Question 55

Why should a newly admitted patient or resident be given a warm welcome? A) Because they represent more revenue for the facility B) Because they will be a good roommate for another lonely patient or resident C) Because they may be feeling scared and uncomfortable about entering a health care facility D) You should simply just go about your duties; after all, admissions happen every day and a “business as usual” attitude is best to avoid upsetting the other patients or residents

Answer 55

C) Because they may be feeling scared and uncomfortable about entering a health care facility

Question 56

What is a draw sheet? A) A fitted bottom sheet B) A half-sized sheet that is placed over the middle of the bottom sheet and has varied uses, including repositioning and lifting a person in bed C) A half-sized sheet that is placed over the middle of the top sheet and used to make toe pleats D) A sheet used to add a decorative touch to the person’s room

Answer 56

B) A half-sized sheet that is placed over the middle of the bottom sheet and has varied uses, including repositioning and lifting a person in bed

Question 57

What is a bed that has a person in it called? A) An open bed B) A closed bed C) A surgical bed D) An occupied bed

Answer 57

D) An occupied bed

Question 58

A bed that has the top linens fanfolded to the side has been prepared for what type of patient? A) A patient who is paraplegic B) A patient who is incontinent C) A patient who will be arriving on a stretcher D) A patient who will be returning to bed in the evening

Answer 58

C) A patient who will be arriving on a stretcher

Question 59

What is the purpose of a “toe pleat?” A) To hold the bedspread in place at the foot of the bed B) To relieve pressure on the feet from tightly tucked sheets C) To hold a person’s feet in proper alignment D) To make a person’s personal bed coverings look neat

Answer 59

B) To relieve pressure on the feet from tightly tucked sheets

Question 60

When you are handling linens, always remember to: A) Shake the bedspread to remove dust B) Place the dirty linens on the floor, to get them out of your way C) Hold the linens away from your body D) All of the above

Answer 60

C) Hold the linens away from your body

Question 61

What do you call a metal frame that is placed between the bottom and top sheets to keep the bed linens from resting on the person’s feet? A) A bed board B) A pressure-relieving mattress C) A bed cradle D) A footboard

Answer 61

C) A bed cradle

Question 62

What personal protective equipment (PPE) should be worn when removing used bed linens? A) Gloves B) A gown C) Eye goggles D) No PPE is necessary

Answer 62

A) Gloves

Question 63

When are bed linens changed? A) When they become wet or soiled B) According to facility policy C) When they become excessively wrinkled D) All of the above

Answer 63

D) All of the above

Question 64

Who has to write the order for oxygen to be used? A) The nurse B) The respiratory therapist C) The doctor D) No order is necessary

Answer 64

C) The doctor

Question 65

The nurse asks you to obtain a sputum specimen from Ms. Long, who has pneumonia. Which one of the following is correct to do when obtaining a sputum specimen? A) Have Ms. Long rinse her mouth with mouthwash before producing the specimen. B) Have Ms. Long cough the specimen into an emesis basin, and then transfer the specimen to the specimen container. C) Explain to Ms. Long that the specimen must come from deep within her chest. D) Put the specimen container in the refrigerator after you have collected the sputum specimen and labeled the container with Ms. Long’s name and room number.

Answer 65

C) Explain to Ms. Long that the specimen must come from deep within her chest.

Question 66

What color is a healthy lung? A) Blue B) Gray C) White D) Pink

Answer 66

D) Pink

Question 67

Where does gas exchange take place? A) In the alveoli B) In the bronchioles C) In the pleura D) In the nasal cavity

Answer 67

A) In the alveoli

Question 68

Which of the following is true about a person who has an endotracheal tube in place? A) The person is able to eat and drink normally. B) The person is able to talk normally. C) The person will need frequent oral care. D) The person is unconscious.

Answer 68

C) The person will need frequent oral care.

Question 69

You have been assigned to care for Mr. Fenley, who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). He is on continuous oxygen by a nasal cannula at a rate of 4 liters per minute. One morning, you enter Mr. Fenley’s room to do your morning checks, and you notice that the flow rate on the flow meter is set at 8 liters per minute. What should you do? A) Call the nurse immediately. B) Decrease the flow rate back to the prescribed 4 liters per minute. C) Tell Mr. Fenley that it is very dangerous for him to make adjustments to the flow meter on his own. D) Nothing. A patient or resident can adjust the flow rate of oxygen to meet their own needs.

Answer 69

A) Call the nurse immediately.

Question 70

One of your responsibilities is to assist Mr. Tang with shaving. Mr. Tang is receiving continuous oxygen via a nasal cannula. What should you do when helping Mr. Tang to shave? A) Remove the nasal cannula before you begin the procedure. B) Use a battery-operated razor or a blade razor instead of an electrical razor. C) Increase the flow of oxygen during the procedure. D) Decrease the flow of oxygen during the procedure.

Answer 70

B) Use a battery-operated razor or a blade razor instead of an electrical razor.

Question 71

One of your newly admitted residents, Mr. Petersen, has emphysema. You are going to meet Mr. Petersen for the first time. Thinking back on what you learned during your nurse assistant training course about people with emphysema, which one of the following would you expect to be true of Mr. Petersen? A) His breathing will probably be shallow and rapid. B) He might need supplemental oxygen. C) He may have to catch his breath frequently while talking. D) All of the above.

Answer 71

D) All of the above.

Question 72

Where does the process of digestion begin? A) In the stomach B) In the large intestine C) In the mouth D) In the esophagus

Answer 72

C) In the mouth

Question 73

What is the hollow, muscular pouch that holds food? A) The appendix B) The gallbladder C) The duodenum D) The stomach

Answer 73

D) The stomach

Question 74

What is another term for the large intestine? A) Stomach B) Duodenum C) Colon D) Appendix

Answer 74

C) Colon

Question 75

Where does most absorption of nutrients take place? A) In the jejunum and ileum of the small intestine B) In the rectum of the large intestine C) In the stomach D) In the liver

Answer 75

A) In the jejunum and ileum of the small intestine

Question 76

Where is most of the water absorbed from the chyme, resulting in the formation of formed, semi-moist feces? A) In the large intestine B) In the small intestine C) In the stomach D) In the gallbladder

Answer 76

A) In the large intestine

Question 77

Normal changes in the digestive system related to aging include: A) Less efficient chewing and swallowing B) Less efficient digestion C) Increased risk for constipation D) All of the above

Answer 77

D) All of the above

Question 78

You have been caring for Mrs. Zimmerman for several months. Mrs. Zimmerman has always had a “sensitive stomach.” She often tells you that she is “queasy” or that something she ate “didn’t agree with her.” Although she always complains about the food at the facility, she usually cleans her plate. Today, however, you noticed that not only did Mrs. Zimmerman not eat her lunch, she has seemed particularly listless all afternoon. What should you do? A) Nothing; Mrs. Zimmerman always has “stomach issues” B) Record Mrs. Zimmerman’s lack of appetite in her chart; the nurse will follow up later C) Report this change in Mrs. Zimmerman’s behavior to the nurse immediately D) Wait and see if Mrs. Zimmerman has any appetite for dinner

Answer 78

C) Report this change in Mrs. Zimmerman’s behavior to the nurse immediately