Chapters 1-26 Flashcards
(189 cards)
1
Q
Chapt1 (T/F)- Information flows from protein to DNA
A
False
2
Q
Chapt1(T/F)- DNA is the only repository of information in a cell.
A
False
3
Q
Chapt1(T/F)- Seasonal differences in the number o eyespots among bicyclus butterflies are due to genetic differences?
A
False
4
Q
Chapt1-What causes helmets to grow on the heads of some Daphina?
A
Differences in the environment
5
Q
Chapt1- (T/F) Some traits are controlled by multiple genes
A
True
6
Q
Chapt1- (T/F) Genetic variants cause phenotypic differences by altering the function of the developmental system
A
True
7
Q
Chapt1- When did Darwin publish eh ‘Origin of Speices’
A
1859
8
Q
Chapt1- When did Mendel publish the work of his experiments
A
1866
9
Q
Chapt1- Who published the first genetic maps?
A
Thomas Morgan
10
Q
Chapt1- In what year was the rough drafts of the human genome sequence announced?
A
2000
11
Q
Chapt1- The three major branches of genetics are…
A
Transmission genetics, molecular genetics, and statistical genetics
12
Q
Chapt2- Who proposed the chromosome theory of inheritance in 1902
A
Sutton
13
Q
Chapt2- If the centromere is at the end of a chromosome it is…
A
telocentric
14
Q
Chapt2- The four stages of the cell cycle are…
A
G1, S, G2, M
15
Q
Chapt2- The correct order of the four stages of mitosis are…
A
Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase, and Telophase,
16
Q
Chapt2- The correct order of the five stages of Prophase I are…
A
Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakensis
17
Q
Chapt2- In metaphase I_________ are seperated into seperate cells
A
homologous chromosomes
18
Q
Chapt2- The synaptonemal complex forms in…
A
Prophase I
19
Q
Chapt2- The synaptonemal complex is important because it is the site of…
A
recombination
20
Q
Chapt2- Different forms of a gene are called
A
alleles
21
Q
Chapt2- Without recombination, an organism with 3 pairs of chromosomes can produce ____ unique gametes
A
8
22
Q
Chapt2- What are two major advantages of sexual reproduction
A
speed up evolution and remove deleterious mutations
23
Q
Chapt3- Domestication of many agricultural plants and animals began about
A
10,000BC
24
Q
Chapt3- The theory of pangenesis suggests…
A
that all parts of the body contribute to the gametes
25
Chapt3- Performtionists can be divided into...
spermists and ovists
26
Chapt3- Mendel identified strains of pea plants that showed seven different _____ characteristics
qualitative
27
Chapt3- pea flowers are cleistogamous, meaning that...
the flowers are closed to pollinators and self-fertilize
28
Chapt3- Mendel's observation that some traits were dominant in the F1 hybrids was in contrast to the prevailing theory of...
blending inheritance
29
Chapt3- Mendel's first law is the law of ...
segregation
30
Chapt3- A Punnett square is used to predict...
the genotypic proportions arising from a cross
31
Chapt3- Mendel's second law is the law of
independent assortment
32
Chapt3- Pascal's triangle is a useful tool for remembering the coefficients of...
the binomial expansion
33
Chapt3- 'AND' statements indicate that the probabilities should be.....
multiplied
34
Chapt3- 'OR' statements indicate that the probabilities should be...
added
35
Chapt3- Chi-squared tests are used to evaluate how well the data fits...
a model
36
Chapt3- if the chi-squared value exceeds the critical value, we_____ the null.
reject
37
Chapt4- What characteristics make Drosophila a good model organism for genetic research
small size, short generation time, abundant offspring, visible mutations
38
Chapt4- What are two clues that a gene is sex-linked
Ratios differ in reciprocal crosses, different phenotypic ratios in males and females
39
Chapt4- Non-disjunction is a failure of chromosomes to segregate into separate cells in...
in both meiosis and meiosis but most common in meiosis I
40
Chapt4- The sex of Drosophila is not determined by a Y chromosome but by....
the ratio of X chromosome to autosomes
41
Chapt4- In birds, ______ are the heterogametic sex
females
42
Chapt4- X-inactivation is one mechanism of...
dosage compensation
43
Chapt4- tortoiseshell cats are...
females
44
Chapt4- A protandrous sequential hermaphrodite beings life as a...
male
45
Chapt4- Sex in alligators is determined by...
incubation temperature
46
Chapt4- Sexually antagonistic selection on the orange-blotch color polymorphism in Malawi cichlids led to the evolution of a new __________ sex-determination system
ZW
47
Chapt5- the multiple alleles of the white locus...
have different transporter activity
48
Chapt5- Penetrance refers to...
the % of individuals of a particular genotype that express the trait
49
Chapt5- Blood group antigens are a good example of...
codominance
50
Chapt5- The mouse yellow mutant is...
recessive, lethal, and dominant
51
Chapt5- If mutations are in the same complementation group then they are...
in the same gene
52
Chapt5- The number of complementation groups is an indication of the...
number of enzymes in a biochemical pathway
53
Chapt5- The ratio 9:3:3:1 indicates______ epistasis.
no
54
Chapt5- The ratio 9:7 indicates that the development of the phenotype requires a dominant allele at _____ loci.
both
55
Chapt5- The _____ gene regulated the deposition of pigment in dog hairs
agouti
56
Chapt5- Variants of the _____ gene determine whether dog hair is long or short.
fgf5
57
Chapt6- What pedigree symbol is used for an affected male
filled square
58
Chapt6-How are individuals numbered within each generation of a pedigree
birth order
59
Chapt6-What are the characteristics features of a recessive trait
tends to skip generations, affected offspring are usually born to unaffected parents, appears more frequently in offspring of consanguineous marriages
60
Chapt6-What are the characteristics of a dominant trait
does not skip generations
61
Chapt6-(T/F)The state of Maryland has no eugenic laws currently in effect.
False
62
Chapt6-(T/F) Marriages between first cousins result in an elevated level of birth defects
True
63
Chapt6-(T/F) The pre-natal Quad-screen test can reveal the presence of neural tube defects and trisomies
True
64
Chapt6-(T/F) Newborns are routinely tested for about two dozen inherited metabolic conditions
True
65
Chapt6-(T/F) Most autosomal aneuploidies are full viable
False
66
Chapt6-(T/F) The occurrence of aneuploidies does not depend on maternal age
False
67
Chapt6- (T/F)- HLA haplotypes can e used to calculate the probability of a particular pedigree
True
68
Chapt7- (T/F) The probability of recombination can be computed exactly from the number of DNA base pairs between markers
False
69
Chapt7- (T/F) First division segregation indicates recombination between the marker and the centromere
False
70
Chapt7- A recombination fraction of 0.3 corresponds to...
30cM
71
Chapt7- Distances between map markers that are far apart on a chromosome are typically
underestimated
72
Chapt7- Repulsion refers to the configuration of markers in which mutant alleles...
are on different chromosomes
73
Chapt7- The phase of parental chromosomes can be determined...
by identifying the most frequent chromosomes in the progeny
74
Chapt7- In a three-point cross, the order of the markers can be determined from the...
double recombinants
75
Chapt7- The phenomenon in which chiasma inhibit nearby combinations is called...
interference
76
Chapt7- Mapping functions are designed to...
correct unobservable double recombination
77
Chapt7- The Haldane and Kosambi mapping functions differ in their assumptions about the relationship between...
distance and interference
78
Chapt8- An idiogram is...
a schematic drawing of the karyotype
79
Chapt-8 The giant chromosomes found in Drosophila salivary glands are called "polytene" because...
they are composed of many strands of identical DNA
80
Chapt-8 The TWO major types of chromosome-level variation are...
structural and ploidy
81
Chapt-8 Chromosome variation has a major effect on development and viability because of changes in....
gene expression
82
Chapt-8 (T/F)Pericentric inversion include the centromeres
true
83
Chapt-8 Inversions cause a decrease in fertility by...
disrupting chromosome pairing in meiosis
84
Chapt-8 Only____ segregation of translocation heterozygotes allows the formation of balanced gametes
alternate
85
Chapt-8 Platypus males have a translocation series involving ___ unique Y chromosomes
5
86
Chapt-8 Commercial bananas are seedless because they are....
triploid
87
Chapt-8 The evolution of modern bread wheat involved two rounds of...
allopolyploidy
88
Chapt-8 Heat shock 4 minutes after fertilization of tilapia embryos suppress cell division to produce ______________
heterozygous meiotic gynogens
89
Chapt9- Which came first in the evolution of life
RNA
90
Chapt9- What was the first enzymatic activity discovered in RNA...
self-splicing
91
Chapt9- The genome of E.coli contains approximately...
4.6 million base pairs
92
Chapt9- An______ is a bacterial strain that requires nutritional supplements in order to grow on minimal media
auxotroph
93
Chapt9- A contransformation frequency of 20% is equivalent to ____ map units
5
94
Chapt9- Bacterial conjugation requires direct contact between cells through_______.
a cytoplasmic bridge
95
Chapt9- A typical F plasmid contains about ______ basepairs
100,000
96
Chapt9- The difference between an F+ cell and an Hfr cell is whether the F plasmid _______
has integrated into the host chromosome
97
Chapt9- The alternative life cycles of phage are the____
lytic and lysogenic
98
Chapt9- Genetic mapping of bacterial genomes using phage is done using the frequency of ______
co-transduction
99
Chapt9- A 'colony' of phage cells growing on a lawn of bacteria is called a______
plaque
100
Chapt9- Recombination between two phage genomes occurs after____
coinfection of the same bacterial cell
101
Chapt10- What were the three experimental treatments used by Avery, MacCleod and McCarty to suggest that DNA is the genetic material?
proteinase, RNAse, DNAse
102
(T/F) DNA absorbs UV light
True
103
In the Hershey-Chase experiment, radioactive 35S is used to label phage
protein
104
In the Hershey-Chase experiment, radioactive 32P is used to label phage
DNA
105
The three components of a nucleotide are...
phosphate, sugar, and a nitrogenous base
106
The double-ring purine bases are____
adenine and guanine
107
The correct pairing of DNA bases is achieved with the _____ form of the bases
keto
108
One turn of the DNA helix contains....
10 base pairs
109
The diameter of DNA helix is 2nm or 20 ______
angstroms
110
The phosphodiester bond is between the 3’ carbon of the sugar of one nucleotide and the _________ of the sugar of the next base.
5' carbon
111
What are the difference in sugars of DNA and RNA nucleotides?
The 2' OH group is NOT found in DNA
112
What is the structural difference between thymine and uracil
thymine has an extra methyl group.
113
Chapt11- A drosophila genome is about...
165 Mb
114
A human genome is about
3.4 Gbp
115
Chapt11- The Marmur-Doty equation predicts the melting temperature of a DNA molecule in solution based on the concentration of salt and
%GC
116
Chapt11- The human genome has a ________ Cot value than the Drosophila genome
Correct!
larger
117
Chapt11- The DNA molecules inside a human cell total more than ____________ long
2 meters
118
Chapt11- The first stage of DNA packaging is the formation of...
supercoils
119
Chapt11- The structure composed of 146bp of DNA wrapped around 8 histone proteins is called a...
nucleosome
120
Chapt11- The proteins that control the structure of DNA loops are called...
condensins
121
Chapt11- The centromere attaches to the spindle microtubules through the...
kinetochore
122
Chapt11- The telomere has two functions: to replicate the 3’ ends of the DNA helix, and _______________.
to protect the ends of the chromosomes from degradation
123
Chapt12- What are the three models of DNA replication considered in the Meselson and Stahl experiment?
conservative, semiconservative and dispersive
124
What salt is used to establish a gradient in the analytical ultracentrifuge?
cesnium chloride
125
DNA is synthesized
5' --> 3'
126
DNA synthesis on the lagging strand is
discontinuous
127
Which enzyme removes the RNA primer?
DNA pol I
128
Which enzyme joins the Okazaki fragments?
DNA ligase
129
What stabilizes the two strands of the DNA helix when they are separated for replication?
single stranded binding proteins
130
What is the complex molecular machine at the replication fork called?
replisome
131
What Greek letter does the E. coli genome look like halfway through replication?
theta
132
How fast does DNA polymerase add nucleotides during replication of the E. coli genome?
2,000 bp/sec
133
How big is the average replicon in a mouse?
150,000 bp
134
What is the error rate of DNA replication in E. coli before proofreading?
1/1,000,000
135
In the Holliday junction model, branch migration produces a stretch of ___________
heteroduplex DNA
136
What consensus sequences are typically found in E. coli promoters?
-10 and -35 boxes
137
When a sigma factor is added to the subunits of the core RNA polymerase, the complex is called the...
RNA polymerase holoenzyme
138
The Shine-Dalgarno sequence is the site at which the mRNA binds to the...
ribosome
139
The two most common modifications of eukaryotic ribosomal RNAs are...
2’-O-ribose methylation and pseudouridylation
140
Which RNA polymerase is responsible for transcribing most eucaryotic mRNAs?
pol II
141
What modifications are made to the 5’ end of eukaryotic mRNAs?
5' cap
142
What modifications are made to the 3’ end of eukaryotic mRNAs?
poly-A tail
143
What technique was used to discover introns?
DNA - RNA hybrids
144
What is ‘intron’ short for?
intervening sequences
145
What is the ribonucleoprotein complex that performs splicing called?
spliceosome
146
Which enzyme processes miRNAs and siRNAs?
dicer
147
What class of proteins is guided to their targets by miRNAs?
argonaute
148
How was the meaning of most of the codons determined?
triplet binding assay
149
The structure of the genetic code makes is somewhat resistant to
mutation
150
Codons for structurally similar amino acids are located ___________ in the codon table.
adjacent
151
Highly expressed genes tend to have ___________ usage of synonymous codons.
a more uneven
152
Transcription and translation of a messenger RNA are simultaneous in
procaryotes
153
Repressor proteins normally bind to the ____________.
operator
154
If the regulatory control of an operon is described as ‘negative, repressible’, it means transcription is ___________ unless there is a high level of product from the pathway.
on
155
The two regulatory mechanisms at work on the trp operon are negative repression and ________________.
attenuation
156
Transcription of the trp operon is regulated by the rate of _______________ of the trp leader.
translation
157
In the footprinting assay, DNA is protected from degradation by ________________
bound protein
158
The lac operon encodes _________ proteins thought to be important in lactose metabolism.
3
159
The lacI gene is NOT part of the lac operon, and encodes_______________.
Correct!
a repressor protein
160
Regulation of the lac operon can be characterized as
negative inducible
161
Binding of CAP induces ____________ upstream of the lac promoter.
DNA bending
162
What are the tradeoffs implicit in regulation of gene activity at different points in gene expression?
regulatory speed vs. energetic cost
163
Open versus closed chromatin refers to how tightly the DNA is bound _____________.
in nucleosomes
164
Methylation of histones can either increase or decrease transcription depending on ____________________.
the site of methylation
165
Acetylation of histones __________ their affinity for DNA.
reduces
166
Methylation of DNA generally _____________ transcription.
decreases
167
The pre-initiation complex brings together RNA polymerase and other proteins of the __________________.
basal transcription complex
168
Transcription typically requires additional __________________ bound at some distance from the promoter.
transcriptional activator proteins
169
The interaction of enhancers with promoters is limited to particular topologically associated domains by ___________________.
insulators
170
Gene expression can be regulated after transcription by ______________________ of the mRNA.
processing and degradation
171
Sex determination in Drosophila is mediated by a chain of __________________.
alternative splicing
172
siRNA can degrade mRNA via ____________________.
an RNA-induced silencing complex
173
Translation can be regulated by the availability of __________________.
initiation factors
174
Translation can be inhibited by binding of an RISC directed to its target by _________________.
a miRNA
175
(T/F) Phosphorylation allows rapid regulation of protein activity.
True
176
An allele is expected to behave in a neutral manner when the absolute value of its selection coefficient (s) is less than or equal to _________.
1/N
177
The molecular clock ticks fastest in ____________ .
synonymous sites
178
UPGMA clustering is a method for _____________.
constructing phylogenetic trees
179
The mtDNAs of all modern humans had a common ancestor about __________ years ago.
150,000
180
If p = q = 0.5, the frequency of AA homozygotes is ________.
0.25
181
(T/F) Inbreeding is one of the four evolutionary forces that can change allele frequency in a population.
False
182
Self-fertilization (selfing) can lead to essentially complete inbreeding in as few as _______ generations.
6
183
The change in allele frequency in a population due to migration is proportional to ___________________.
the migration rate and the difference in allele frequency between populations
184
Selection models are built by first defining the___________ genotypes.
relative fitness among
185
Genetic variance can be partitioned into ___________________ components.
additive and dominance
186
Narrow sense heritability is the ratio of _______________.
additive to phenotypic variance
187
Offspring on parent regressions can be used to estimate _____________.
heritability
188
The expected response to selection can be estimated by multiplying ________________.
the heritability by the selective differential applied
189
QTL mapping measures the association between _______________.
phenotypes and the segregation of genetic markers
